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DOH Allied Health Exam study materials
DOH Allied Health Exam study resources

DOH Allied Health Exam practice questions

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Question 1Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is sitting upright and becomes lightheaded during a blood draw. What is the most appropriate first action?

  1. Lay the patient supine and elevate the legs Correct answer.
  2. Give the patient water and continue standing
  3. Ask the patient to take slow deep breaths while seated
  4. Finish the draw quickly and then reassess

Explanation

Vasovagal presyncope during phlebotomy is managed by placing the patient supine and elevating the legs to restore cerebral perfusion. The procedure should be paused, not rushed to completion.

Question 2Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which vital sign value for an adult at rest is generally considered within normal limits?

  1. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
  2. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute Correct answer.
  3. Temperature of 39.0 degrees Celsius
  4. Blood pressure of 148/96 mmHg

Explanation

A resting adult heart rate of about 60 to 100 beats per minute is normal, so 72 is within range. The other values fall outside accepted adult resting norms.

Question 3Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

When performing hand hygiene with an alcohol-based rub, which step is essential for effectiveness?

  1. Applying the product to dry hands and rubbing until dry Correct answer.
  2. Wiping the hands on a paper towel while still wet
  3. Applying the product only to the palms
  4. Rinsing the hands with water afterward

Explanation

Alcohol-based hand rubs work best applied to dry hands and rubbed until the product evaporates completely. Covering all surfaces of the hands is required.

Question 4Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient with a new order for contact precautions needs transport to radiology. What is the correct approach?

  1. Place a clean gown and gloves on the patient for transport
  2. Notify receiving staff of the precautions and follow facility transport policy Correct answer.
  3. Remove all PPE before leaving the room and transport without precautions
  4. Have the patient wear a mask and transport without notifying staff

Explanation

Transport of a patient on contact precautions requires communicating the precaution status to receiving personnel and following facility policy for barriers and equipment. This maintains continuity of infection control.

Question 5Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which action best demonstrates proper body mechanics when lifting a heavy object from the floor?

  1. Bending at the waist with straight legs
  2. Holding the breath throughout the lift
  3. Twisting the torso while lifting
  4. Keeping the load close and bending the knees Correct answer.

Explanation

Bending the knees and keeping the load close reduces spinal flexion and the lever arm on the low back. Twisting and breath-holding increase injury risk.

Question 6Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient reports sudden onset of chest pain radiating to the left arm with shortness of breath. What is the priority action?

  1. Give the patient an antacid and observe
  2. Obtain an ECG and notify the provider immediately Correct answer.
  3. Document the complaint and reassess in 30 minutes
  4. Encourage the patient to ambulate to relieve the pain

Explanation

Chest pain with radiation and dyspnea suggests a cardiac emergency; obtaining an ECG and escalating to the provider without delay is the priority. Time-sensitive conditions require prompt assessment.

Question 7Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which finding is the earliest and most reliable indicator of hypoxemia during patient monitoring?

  1. Trend of pulse oximetry saturation Correct answer.
  2. Blood pressure reading
  3. Patient report of thirst
  4. Skin color changes

Explanation

Pulse oximetry provides a continuous, objective measure of arterial oxygen saturation and trends downward early in hypoxemia. Skin color changes are late and unreliable indicators.

Question 8Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

When obtaining a blood pressure with a manual cuff, which technique is correct?

  1. Place the cuff over the sleeve of a thick sweater
  2. Have the patient cross the legs during measurement
  3. Position the cuff so the bladder is centered over the brachial artery Correct answer.
  4. Deflate the cuff rapidly at 10 mmHg per second

Explanation

The cuff bladder should be centered over the brachial artery with the arm supported at heart level for accurate readings. Proper deflation and positioning improve reliability.

Question 9Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which statement about standard precautions is accurate?

  1. They apply only to patients with a known infectious diagnosis
  2. They require gloves for every patient contact
  3. They replace the need for hand hygiene between patients
  4. They apply to all patients regardless of diagnosis Correct answer.

Explanation

Standard precautions are applied to all patients because infection status may be unknown. They include hand hygiene, PPE as indicated, and safe handling of sharps.

Question 10Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is at risk for falls. Which intervention is most appropriate?

  1. Place the call light and personal items within reach Correct answer.
  2. Use a bed rail alone as a substitute for monitoring
  3. Encourage the patient to walk unassisted to build strength
  4. Keep the bed in the highest position for easier transfer

Explanation

Keeping the call light and belongings within reach reduces the need for unassisted movement and lowers fall risk. Bed height and assistance should match the patient's ability.

Question 11Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which action is correct when a needlestick injury occurs?

  1. Apply a tight tourniquet above the site
  2. Squeeze the site firmly to express blood, then report it
  3. Wait to see if symptoms develop before reporting
  4. Wash the site with soap and water and report the exposure promptly Correct answer.

Explanation

After a needlestick, wash the site with soap and water and report the exposure immediately so post-exposure evaluation and prophylaxis can be initiated. Prompt reporting is critical.

Question 12Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which patient identifier is acceptable for verifying identity before a procedure?

  1. Visual recognition by the clinician
  2. Room number and bed location
  3. Two identifiers such as full name and date of birth Correct answer.
  4. The patient's diagnosis

Explanation

At least two patient-specific identifiers, such as name and date of birth, must be used and matched to the order. Location and diagnosis are not unique identifiers.

Question 13Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is receiving oxygen and reports nasal dryness. Which measure is most appropriate?

  1. Apply a water-based lubricant to the nares per policy Correct answer.
  2. Discontinue oxygen without an order
  3. Increase the flow rate to maximum
  4. Switch the patient to a non-rebreather mask

Explanation

Nasal dryness from oxygen therapy is commonly relieved with a small amount of water-based lubricant per facility policy. Oxygen should not be discontinued without an order.

Question 14Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which factor most increases a patient's risk for a pressure injury?

  1. Use of a pressure-redistribution mattress
  2. Frequent repositioning
  3. Immobility and reduced sensation Correct answer.
  4. A diet high in protein

Explanation

Immobility and reduced sensation impair the ability to shift weight and perceive pressure, increasing pressure injury risk. Repositioning and support surfaces reduce risk.

Question 15Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient's blood glucose is 52 mg/dL and the patient is conscious and able to swallow. What is the appropriate first action?

  1. Administer a dose of long-acting insulin
  2. Give a fast-acting oral carbohydrate and recheck Correct answer.
  3. Encourage the patient to sleep and recheck in an hour
  4. Restrict all oral intake until the provider arrives

Explanation

For a conscious patient with hypoglycemia who can swallow, giving fast-acting oral carbohydrate and rechecking the glucose is the standard first step. Long-acting insulin would worsen hypoglycemia.

Question 16Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which method best prevents cross-contamination when obtaining a specimen?

  1. Labeling specimens after they leave the room
  2. Placing specimens on the counter without a secondary container
  3. Using a new pair of gloves for each patient contact Correct answer.
  4. Reusing gloves between patients after wiping them

Explanation

Changing gloves between patients prevents transfer of organisms. Specimens should be labeled at the point of collection and transported in appropriate containers.

Question 17Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient has an order for nothing by mouth. Which action is consistent with this order?

  1. Removing oral care supplies from the room
  2. Providing frequent oral hygiene without swallowing fluids Correct answer.
  3. Offering small sips of water with medications
  4. Allowing ice chips to relieve thirst

Explanation

For a nothing-by-mouth order, oral hygiene can be provided while ensuring fluids are not swallowed. Ice chips and sips are oral intake and require an order.

Question 18Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which statement about sterile technique during a dressing change is correct?

  1. Sterile technique is optional for small wounds
  2. A sterile field is contaminated if it contacts a non-sterile surface Correct answer.
  3. Items below the waist of a sterile field remain sterile
  4. Sterile gloves may touch non-sterile surfaces as long as the field is dry

Explanation

Any contact between a sterile field and a non-sterile object contaminates the field. Sterile items must remain above waist level and within view.

Question 19Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is on a fluid restriction. Which action best supports adherence?

  1. Allow unlimited ice chips because they melt
  2. Reassess intake only at discharge
  3. Count only beverages drunk from a cup
  4. Track all intake including ice, soups, and gelatin Correct answer.

Explanation

Fluid restriction counts all sources of liquid intake, including ice, soups, and gelatin, which melt or are liquid at body temperature. Accurate tracking supports adherence.

Question 20Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which action is appropriate when a patient refuses a prescribed medication?

  1. Document the refusal and notify the provider Correct answer.
  2. Administer the medication later without documenting
  3. Discontinue the medication order independently
  4. Hide the medication in food

Explanation

A patient has the right to refuse medication; the clinician documents the refusal and informs the provider so the plan can be adjusted. Concealing medication violates autonomy and safety.

Question 21Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which practice reduces the risk of medication administration errors?

  1. Using only the patient's room number for identification
  2. Preparing medications for several patients at once
  3. Verifying the rights of medication administration before giving Correct answer.
  4. Relying on memory for dosage calculations

Explanation

Verifying the rights of medication administration (right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation) before administration reduces errors. Preparing multiple patients' medications together increases mix-ups.

Question 22Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient with a new tracheostomy is being suctioned. Which action is correct?

  1. Apply suction only while withdrawing the catheter Correct answer.
  2. Use the same catheter for the entire shift
  3. Suction for 30 seconds continuously
  4. Insert the catheter with suction applied

Explanation

Suction is applied intermittently while withdrawing the catheter to limit mucosal trauma and hypoxia. Prolonged suction and suction during insertion increase injury risk.

Question 23Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which observation suggests a patient may be experiencing an acute change in condition that warrants escalation?

  1. A single normal temperature reading
  2. A stable trend in all vital signs over the shift
  3. New confusion compared with baseline Correct answer.
  4. A request for an extra blanket

Explanation

New or worsening confusion compared with baseline can signal hypoxia, infection, or metabolic change and warrants prompt assessment and escalation. Stable trends are reassuring.

Question 24Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which action is correct when transferring a patient from bed to a chair with a gait belt?

  1. Stand in front and block the patient's knees while guiding Correct answer.
  2. Pull the patient up by the arms
  3. Apply the belt loosely around the hips
  4. Ask the patient to pivot while the belt is unfastened

Explanation

Standing in front, blocking the knees, and guiding with a properly fitted gait belt supports a safe transfer and protects both patient and clinician. The belt should be snug.

Question 25Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient reports pain rated 8 out of 10 one hour after receiving an analgesic. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Wait the full four hours before any further assessment
  2. Document that the pain is resolved
  3. Reassess the pain and report unrelieved pain to the provider Correct answer.
  4. Tell the patient the medication should have worked by now

Explanation

Reassessing pain and escalating unrelieved severe pain to the provider supports timely adjustment of the plan. Pain should be reassessed after intervention per policy.

Question 26Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is found unresponsive and not breathing. After calling for help and activating emergency response, which action should be taken next?

  1. Begin chest compressions Correct answer.
  2. Check for a pulse for 10 seconds
  3. Place the patient in the recovery position
  4. Give two rescue breaths

Explanation

For an unresponsive, apneic patient, high-quality chest compressions should be started immediately after activating emergency response. Compressions provide circulation until advanced care arrives. Delaying compressions to check a pulse or give breaths can worsen outcomes.

Question 27Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

Which action best prevents the spread of infection when a healthcare worker has direct contact with a patient's blood?

  1. Wearing eye protection
  2. Wearing a mask
  3. Wearing gloves Correct answer.
  4. Wearing a gown

Explanation

Gloves are the primary barrier for hands when contact with blood or body fluids is anticipated. They prevent contamination of the healthcare worker's skin and reduce transmission. Other PPE is used based on the anticipated exposure.

Question 28Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

When caring for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter, which action helps prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infection?

  1. Irrigating the catheter routinely
  2. Changing the catheter every 48 hours
  3. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage tubing daily
  4. Keeping the drainage bag below the level of the bladder Correct answer.

Explanation

Keeping the drainage bag below bladder level prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing infection risk. Routine irrigation and frequent catheter changes are not recommended and can introduce organisms. Maintaining a closed system is essential.

Question 29Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is receiving a tube feeding. To reduce the risk of aspiration, which action is most appropriate?

  1. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees Correct answer.
  2. Checking residual volume every 4 hours
  3. Administering the feeding at a rapid rate
  4. Flushing the tube with 10 mL of water every hour

Explanation

Elevating the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees reduces the risk of reflux and aspiration during tube feeding. This position uses gravity to help keep formula in the stomach. Other practices like checking residuals are not routinely recommended.

Question 30Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient with a new colostomy needs instruction on ostomy care. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?

  1. I should cut the skin barrier opening larger than the stoma.
  2. I should expect the stoma to be pale and dry.
  3. I should change the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full. Correct answer.
  4. I should clean the skin around the stoma with alcohol.

Explanation

Emptying the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full prevents leakage and skin irritation. The stoma should be red and moist, and the barrier should fit closely without being larger than the stoma. Alcohol is too drying for the skin.

Question 31Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is scheduled for surgery and asks why they must not eat or drink before the procedure. Which response is most accurate?

  1. It lowers the risk of postoperative infection.
  2. It helps the surgical site heal faster.
  3. It reduces the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Correct answer.
  4. It prevents dehydration during surgery.

Explanation

Fasting before surgery reduces the risk of aspiration of stomach contents during anesthesia. Anesthesia impairs protective airway reflexes, so an empty stomach is safer. Hydration and healing are not the primary reasons for fasting.

Question 32Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

When performing a blood glucose check with a glucometer, which action is correct?

  1. Apply the blood to the test strip after it has been inserted into the meter.
  2. Squeeze the finger firmly to obtain a large drop of blood.
  3. Use the first drop of blood without wiping it away.
  4. Cleanse the finger with an alcohol swab and let it dry before puncture. Correct answer.

Explanation

Allowing the alcohol to dry prevents dilution of the blood sample and stinging. Squeezing the finger can hemolyze the sample and alter results. The first drop is acceptable if the finger is clean and dry.

Question 33Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient has a new prescription for warfarin. Which instruction is most important to include in patient teaching?

  1. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising immediately. Correct answer.
  2. Double the dose if a dose is missed.
  3. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables.
  4. Take aspirin for minor pain.

Explanation

Warfarin increases bleeding risk, so patients must report signs of bleeding promptly. Consistent vitamin K intake is important, but increasing green leafy vegetables can reduce warfarin effectiveness. Aspirin increases bleeding risk and should be avoided unless prescribed.

Question 34Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is receiving intravenous fluids through a peripheral IV. Which finding at the insertion site requires immediate intervention?

  1. A dry dressing over the site
  2. Cool, pale skin with swelling around the site Correct answer.
  3. A small bruise at the site
  4. Mild redness without pain

Explanation

Cool, pale skin with swelling suggests infiltration or extravasation, which requires stopping the infusion and removing the IV. A small bruise or mild redness may be monitored. A dry dressing is expected.

Question 35Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is being discharged with a new prescription for a metered-dose inhaler. Which technique indicates correct use?

  1. Inhaling slowly and deeply while activating the inhaler Correct answer.
  2. Inhaling rapidly and shallowly after activating the inhaler
  3. Shaking the inhaler after each puff
  4. Activating the inhaler after a full exhalation and holding breath for 1 second

Explanation

Slow, deep inhalation during activation helps deliver medication to the airways. A rapid, shallow breath deposits medication in the mouth and throat. Breath should be held for about 10 seconds after inhalation.

Question 36Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient with a new below-the-knee amputation is being positioned. Which action is correct to prevent contracture?

  1. Encourage prolonged sitting in a chair.
  2. Position the patient in high Fowler's position frequently.
  3. Keep the residual limb elevated on a pillow at all times.
  4. Avoid placing a pillow under the residual limb. Correct answer.

Explanation

Placing a pillow under the residual limb can lead to hip flexion contracture. The limb should be kept flat and extended. Elevation is used temporarily to reduce edema, not continuously.

Question 37Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is receiving a blood transfusion. Which finding is the earliest sign of a transfusion reaction?

  1. Hypertension
  2. Fever and chills Correct answer.
  3. Bradycardia
  4. Polyuria

Explanation

Fever and chills are often the earliest signs of a febrile or hemolytic transfusion reaction. Vital signs should be monitored closely during the transfusion. Hypertension, bradycardia, and polyuria are not typical early signs.

Question 38Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

When measuring a patient's blood pressure with an automated cuff, which action helps ensure an accurate reading?

  1. Take the reading immediately after the patient walks into the room.
  2. Ask the patient to talk during the measurement.
  3. Place the cuff over the patient's clothing.
  4. Position the cuff so its center is at the level of the right atrium. Correct answer.

Explanation

The cuff should be at heart level to avoid hydrostatic pressure errors. The patient should be seated quietly for several minutes, and the cuff should be on bare skin, not over clothing.

Question 39Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient with a new prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is being instructed. Which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding?

  1. I will discard the first urine and start the collection from that point. Correct answer.
  2. I will keep the collection container at room temperature.
  3. I will collect the first urine of the day and then start the 24-hour period.
  4. I will stop the collection after 12 hours if the container is full.

Explanation

For a 24-hour urine collection, the patient should empty the bladder and discard that first specimen, then collect all urine for the next 24 hours. The container should be kept refrigerated or on ice, and the full 24-hour period must be completed.

Question 40Patient Care and Clinical Procedures

A patient is admitted with a suspected opioid overdose and has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. After ensuring a patent airway and providing supplemental oxygen, which medication is the priority to administer?

  1. Flumazenil
  2. Naloxone Correct answer.
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Atropine

Explanation

Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression. Flumazenil is for benzodiazepine reversal, atropine is for bradycardia, and epinephrine is for anaphylaxis or cardiac arrest.

Question 41Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which type of blood vessel is the primary site of nutrient and gas exchange with tissues?

  1. Capillary Correct answer.
  2. Lymphatic vessel
  3. Vein
  4. Artery

Explanation

Exchange occurs across the thin single-layer endothelium of capillaries, where diffusion distance is minimal. Arteries and veins are bulk-transport conduits with thick walls, and lymphatic vessels return fluid rather than serving as the main exchange surface.

Question 42Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which formed element of blood is most directly responsible for oxygen transport?

  1. Lymphocyte
  2. Platelet
  3. Neutrophil
  4. Erythrocyte Correct answer.

Explanation

Erythrocytes contain hemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in tissues. The other formed elements serve hemostasis or immune defense rather than gas transport.

Question 43Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which structure prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium?

  1. Aortic valve
  2. Mitral valve
  3. Tricuspid valve Correct answer.
  4. Pulmonary valve

Explanation

The tricuspid valve sits between the right atrium and right ventricle and closes during ventricular systole to prevent regurgitation. The other valves guard different junctions of the cardiac cycle.

Question 44Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which part of the nephron is the principal site of glucose reabsorption from the filtrate?

  1. Collecting duct
  2. Distal convoluted tubule
  3. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
  4. Proximal convoluted tubule Correct answer.

Explanation

The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs nearly all filtered glucose via sodium-coupled cotransporters under normal conditions. Later nephron segments handle water, ion fine-tuning, and hormone-regulated reabsorption instead.

Question 45Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary?

  1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
  2. Prolactin
  3. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  4. Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.

Explanation

The posterior pituitary stores and releases antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin, which are synthesized in the hypothalamus. The other listed hormones are produced and released by the anterior pituitary.

Question 46Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which muscle type is under voluntary control and shows striations?

  1. Smooth muscle
  2. Myoepithelial tissue
  3. Skeletal muscle Correct answer.
  4. Cardiac muscle

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is striated and innervated by somatic motor neurons, giving voluntary control. Cardiac and smooth muscle are involuntary, and myoepithelial tissue is a contractile epithelial derivative.

Question 47Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which type of joint is the knee primarily classified as?

  1. Pivot joint
  2. Ball-and-socket joint
  3. Hinge joint Correct answer.
  4. Saddle joint

Explanation

The knee functions mainly as a hinge (modified hinge) synovial joint, permitting flexion and extension with limited rotation. Ball-and-socket, pivot, and saddle joints describe other joint geometries with different motion axes.

Question 48Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which layer of the skin contains sweat glands, hair follicles, and blood vessels?

  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Epidermis
  3. Subcutaneous fascia
  4. Dermis Correct answer.

Explanation

The dermis is the connective tissue layer housing glands, follicles, and vasculature. The epidermis is avascular epithelium, the stratum corneum is its outermost dead layer, and subcutaneous tissue is deeper fat and fascia.

Question 49Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

A patient's blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Which value represents the pressure during ventricular relaxation?

  1. 85 mmHg Correct answer.
  2. 130 mmHg
  3. 107.5 mmHg
  4. 215 mmHg

Explanation

The diastolic value (the lower number) reflects arterial pressure while the ventricles relax and refill. The systolic value reflects peak pressure during ventricular contraction.

Question 50Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

During a normal cardiac cycle, which event immediately follows closure of the atrioventricular valves?

  1. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction Correct answer.
  2. Ventricular ejection
  3. Opening of the semilunar valves
  4. Atrial filling

Explanation

After the AV valves close at the start of systole, the ventricles contract with all valves shut, so pressure rises at constant volume. Ejection begins only once ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure and the semilunar valves open.