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Question 1Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is using the nursing process to care for a newly admitted client. Which step immediately follows the assessment phase?
- Diagnosis Correct answer.
- Evaluation
- Implementation
- Planning
Explanation
The nursing process follows a fixed sequence: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. Once data are collected and validated, the nurse analyzes them to formulate nursing diagnoses before any planning can occur.
Question 2Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
Which action best demonstrates the principle of medical asepsis?
- Wearing sterile gloves to insert a urinary catheter
- Placing a sterile drape on the bedside table
- Performing hand hygiene before touching a client Correct answer.
- Sterilizing surgical instruments before an operation
Explanation
Medical asepsis, or clean technique, reduces the number and spread of microorganisms, and hand hygiene is its cornerstone practice. Sterile technique (surgical asepsis) is reserved for procedures that breach body defenses.
Question 3Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A client reports pain rated 8 out of 10. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Reposition the client and apply a warm compress
- Administer the prescribed analgesic immediately
- Assess the characteristics and location of the pain Correct answer.
- Document the pain score and reassess in one hour
Explanation
A complete pain assessment, including location, quality, onset, and aggravating factors, guides the choice of intervention and provides a baseline for evaluation. Interventions should follow a thorough assessment rather than precede it.
Question 4Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
Which statement is the best example of a correctly written measurable outcome goal?
- Client will ambulate 50 feet with a walker within 48 hours Correct answer.
- Client will improve mobility as tolerated
- Client will feel more comfortable by tomorrow
- Client will be encouraged to walk daily
Explanation
A measurable goal is client-centered, specific, and includes a time frame and a quantifiable criterion. 'Ambulate 50 feet with a walker within 48 hours' meets all these elements.
Question 5Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse records a client's blood pressure as 118/76 mmHg. Which part of the nursing process does this represent?
- Evaluation
- Planning
- Diagnosis
- Assessment Correct answer.
Explanation
Vital signs are objective data collected during the assessment phase, the systematic gathering of information about the client. Interpretation of these data into a diagnostic statement occurs later.
Question 6Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to a dependent client. Which action best prevents injury to the nurse?
- Raising the bed to waist height and keeping feet apart Correct answer.
- Standing with feet together beside the bed
- Raising the bed to waist height and bending forward
- Twisting the trunk while reaching across the client
Explanation
Good body mechanics for bedside care include adjusting the bed to a comfortable working height and using a wide base of support with feet apart. This reduces spinal flexion and strain.
Question 7Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A client is on strict intake and output monitoring. Which item should the nurse record as intake?
- Wound drainage on a dressing
- Ice chips swallowed during the shift Correct answer.
- Emesis collected in a basin
- Urine output from a catheter
Explanation
Intake includes all fluids taken by mouth or tube, and melted ice chips count as oral fluid volume. Outputs include urine, wound drainage, emesis, and stool.
Question 8Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is teaching a client about a newly prescribed medication. Which phase of the nursing process is being carried out?
- Assessment
- Evaluation
- Planning
- Implementation Correct answer.
Explanation
Client teaching is a nursing intervention carried out during the implementation phase, when the care plan is put into action. Evaluation would follow to determine whether learning occurred.
Question 9Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse notes that a client's previously set goal of independent ambulation has not been met after two days. Which action is most appropriate?
- Continue the same plan because goals are fixed
- Document the goal as met to close the care plan
- Remove the goal and stop all ambulation attempts
- Revise the plan of care based on reassessment findings Correct answer.
Explanation
Evaluation is a dynamic process; when goals are unmet, the nurse reassesses and modifies the plan. Goals are not permanent and should be adjusted to the client's current status.
Question 10Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
Which finding is an example of subjective data?
- A blood glucose reading of 7.8 mmol/L
- The client's report of nausea Correct answer.
- A temperature of 38.2 degrees Celsius
- A heart rate of 96 beats per minute
Explanation
Subjective data are what the client perceives and reports, such as nausea or pain, and cannot be directly observed by the nurse. Objective data are measurable findings obtained through observation or instruments.
Question 11Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse uses the SBAR format to communicate with a physician about a deteriorating client. Which element belongs in the 'R' component?
- The client's vital signs and current complaint
- The nurse's suggestion for what is needed Correct answer.
- The nurse's name and unit
- The client's admitting diagnosis
Explanation
SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. The Recommendation component states what the nurse believes is needed, such as a new order or bedside evaluation.
Question 12Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A client is admitted with dehydration. Which nursing diagnosis is written in the correct PES format?
- Deficient fluid volume related to vomiting as evidenced by decreased skin turgor Correct answer.
- Risk for dehydration related to inadequate intake
- Dehydration related to poor oral intake as evidenced by dry mucous membranes
- Fluid volume deficit as evidenced by dehydration
Explanation
A properly formatted nursing diagnosis includes the problem (P), the etiology or related factor (E), and the defining characteristics or signs (S). 'Deficient fluid volume related to vomiting as evidenced by decreased skin turgor' contains all three components using an approved diagnostic label.
Question 13Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
Which action is the priority when a nurse finds a client lying on the floor after an unwitnessed fall?
- Notify the family of the fall
- Help the client back into bed immediately
- Assess the client for injury before moving them Correct answer.
- Complete an incident report before any assessment
Explanation
After a fall, the nurse first assesses for injury, level of consciousness, and pain before any movement, because moving a client with an undetected fracture or head injury can cause harm. Documentation and notification follow care.
Question 14Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is performing a focused respiratory assessment. Which technique is used to assess for tactile fremitus?
- Inspecting the chest for symmetric expansion
- Auscultating the lungs while the client speaks
- Palpating the chest while the client repeats a phrase Correct answer.
- Percussing the posterior chest wall
Explanation
Tactile fremitus is assessed by palpation while the client phonates, such as repeating 'ninety-nine', to detect vibrations transmitted through the chest. Increased or decreased fremitus can indicate consolidation or pleural air or fluid.
Question 15Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. Which position best facilitates passage of the tube?
- Left lateral position with knees flexed
- Trendelenburg position
- Supine with the head flat
- High Fowler's position with the head tilted forward Correct answer.
Explanation
An upright, high Fowler's position with the chin tucked toward the chest aligns the esophagus and reduces the risk of the tube entering the airway. This position also eases swallowing during insertion.
Question 16Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
Which instruction should the nurse give a client to obtain a clean-catch midstream urine specimen?
- Collect urine from the collection bag after voiding
- Collect the first portion of the voided stream
- Void a small amount, then collect the midstream portion Correct answer.
- Drink minimal fluids for 12 hours before collection
Explanation
A clean-catch midstream specimen requires the client to cleanse the area, void a small amount to flush the urethra, and then collect the midstream portion in a sterile container. This reduces contamination from the distal urethra.
Question 17Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action best reduces the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection?
- Disconnecting the tubing to obtain urine samples
- Keeping the drainage bag below the level of the bladder Correct answer.
- Emptying the bag only when it is completely full
- Irrigating the catheter daily with an antiseptic solution
Explanation
Maintaining the drainage bag below bladder level prevents backflow of contaminated urine into the bladder, a key measure in preventing catheter-associated infection. A closed system should be maintained whenever possible.
Question 18Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is teaching a client how to use a metered-dose inhaler with a spacer. Which step should the client perform first?
- Rinse the mouth with water after inhalation
- Exhale fully and then activate the inhaler
- Shake the inhaler and attach it to the spacer Correct answer.
- Inhale deeply and hold the breath for 10 seconds
Explanation
Correct inhaler technique begins with shaking the canister and connecting it to the spacer to ensure an even suspension of medication. Exhalation, activation, and inhalation follow in sequence.
Question 19Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is preferred for most routine IM injections?
- Deltoid site
- Vastus lateralis site
- Dorsogluteal site
- Ventrogluteal site Correct answer.
Explanation
The ventrogluteal site is preferred for IM injections in adults because it is free of major nerves and blood vessels and has a reliable muscle mass. The dorsogluteal site carries risk of sciatic nerve injury.
Question 20Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is assessing a client for orthostatic hypotension. Which action is correct?
- Measure blood pressure after the client exercises
- Measure blood pressure while the client is seated only
- Measure blood pressure while supine, then after standing Correct answer.
- Measure blood pressure only while the client is supine
Explanation
Orthostatic vital signs are assessed by measuring blood pressure and pulse with the client supine and again after the client stands, looking for a drop in systolic pressure or a rise in pulse. This detects impaired postural compensation.
Question 21Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A client with an intravenous infusion reports pain and swelling at the insertion site. The nurse notes cool, pale skin around the site. Which complication should the nurse suspect?
- Phlebitis
- Air embolism
- Fluid overload
- Infiltration Correct answer.
Explanation
Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into surrounding tissue, producing swelling, coolness, and pallor at the site. The infusion should be stopped and the limb elevated according to policy.
Question 22Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is caring for a client at risk for pressure injury. Which intervention is most effective for prevention?
- Applying a heating pad to pressure areas
- Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 90 degrees
- Massaging reddened bony prominences
- Repositioning the client at scheduled intervals Correct answer.
Explanation
Regular repositioning relieves pressure over bony prominences and is the cornerstone of pressure injury prevention. Skin should be inspected and kept clean and dry, and reddened areas should never be massaged.
Question 23Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse receives a telephone order from a physician. Which action is required for safe practice?
- Ask another nurse to write the order
- Wait until the physician writes the order in person
- Administer the medication before documenting
- Read back the order to the physician for verification Correct answer.
Explanation
Verbal and telephone orders must be documented and read back to the prescriber to verify accuracy, reducing the risk of medication errors. The order is then countersigned per facility policy.
Question 24Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is teaching a client about a low-sodium diet. Which food choice indicates the client understands the teaching?
- Canned soup
- Processed deli meat
- Fresh fruit Correct answer.
- Salted crackers
Explanation
Fresh fruit is naturally low in sodium and is an appropriate choice for a sodium-restricted diet. Processed and canned foods are typically high in sodium because salt is added during manufacturing.
Question 25Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is documenting care in the client record. Which entry reflects correct documentation practice?
- Will check on client later
- Client probably had a good night
- Client reports pain 6/10; analgesic given at 14:00 Correct answer.
- Client seems to be in pain; gave medication
Explanation
Accurate documentation is objective, specific, and includes measurable data and times. 'Client reports pain 6/10; analgesic given at 14:00' records the assessment and intervention clearly.
Question 26Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
During which phase of the nursing process does the nurse establish client goals and expected outcomes?
- Planning Correct answer.
- Evaluation
- Assessment
- Implementation
Explanation
The planning phase involves setting measurable, client-centered goals and expected outcomes that guide nursing interventions. Assessment is data collection, implementation is carrying out interventions, and evaluation is judging goal achievement.
Question 27Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to an adult client. Which position is most appropriate?
- Sims' position Correct answer.
- High Fowler's position
- Prone position
- Dorsal recumbent position
Explanation
Sims' position, with the client on the left side and the right knee flexed, facilitates safe and effective rectal suppository insertion. It allows adequate exposure and reduces discomfort.
Question 28Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse is assessing a client's pain using the PQRST mnemonic. Which component does the 'R' represent?
- Region
- Radiation Correct answer.
- Rating
- Relief
Explanation
In the PQRST pain assessment, 'R' stands for Radiation, asking whether the pain travels to other areas. The other letters are P (provocation/palliation), Q (quality), S (severity/scale), and T (timing).
Question 29Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A nurse receives a verbal order from a physician for a new medication. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Write the order in the client's record and read it back to the physician. Correct answer.
- Document the order only after the medication is given.
- Administer the medication immediately to avoid delay.
- Ask another nurse to verify the order later.
Explanation
Verbal orders must be written down and read back to the prescriber to ensure accuracy and prevent errors. This is a required safety practice before implementing the order.
Question 30Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process
A client with a new colostomy refuses to look at the stoma and says, 'I can't deal with this.' Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
- Disturbed body image related to colostomy as evidenced by refusal to look at stoma Correct answer.
- Risk for infection related to surgical incision
- Impaired skin integrity related to colostomy as evidenced by redness
- Impaired urinary elimination related to colostomy
Explanation
The client's refusal to look at the stoma and statement of inability to cope indicate disturbed body image. The defining characteristics directly support this diagnosis.
Question 31Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client with a new colostomy has a stoma that is dark purple and dry. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Apply a tight ostomy pouch
- Massage the stoma gently
- Document the finding as normal
- Notify the surgeon immediately Correct answer.
Explanation
A healthy stoma is beefy red to pink and moist; dark purple, dusky, or dry tissue suggests ischemia and requires urgent surgical evaluation. Prompt reporting allows early intervention to preserve bowel viability.
Question 32Medical-Surgical Nursing
Which finding is most consistent with hypovolemic shock in an adult?
- Tachycardia with hypotension Correct answer.
- Bradycardia with hypertension
- Bounding peripheral pulses
- Widened pulse pressure
Explanation
Hypovolemic shock reduces circulating volume, producing compensatory tachycardia and falling blood pressure as compensation fails. Narrowed pulse pressure and weak pulses are typical, not widened or bounding pulses.
Question 33Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops fever, chills, and flank pain within minutes. What is the priority nursing action?
- Slow the transfusion rate
- Recheck vital signs in 30 minutes
- Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access Correct answer.
- Administer the next unit as ordered
Explanation
These signs suggest an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, which demands immediate cessation of the transfusion while keeping the IV line patent with normal saline for emergency treatment. Delaying allows further hemolysis and worsening injury.
Question 34Medical-Surgical Nursing
Which assessment finding is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure?
- Decerebrate posturing
- Decreased level of consciousness Correct answer.
- Irregular respirations
- Fixed dilated pupils
Explanation
A declining level of consciousness is often the earliest indicator of rising intracranial pressure. Pupillary fixation, posturing, and irregular breathing occur later as herniation progresses.
Question 35Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client with an acute asthma exacerbation has a peak expiratory flow at 40% of personal best. How should the nurse classify this finding?
- Severe exacerbation
- Normal variability
- Moderate exacerbation Correct answer.
- Mild exacerbation
Explanation
A peak flow of 40-69% of personal best falls in the moderate range for an acute asthma exacerbation. Values below 40% indicate severe exacerbation, and above 70% suggest mild disease.
Question 36Medical-Surgical Nursing
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely in a client taking furosemide?
- Serum potassium Correct answer.
- Serum chloride
- Serum magnesium
- Serum calcium
Explanation
Loop diuretics such as furosemide cause renal potassium wasting, so hypokalemia is the most clinically important electrolyte risk. Potassium monitoring guides replacement and prevents dysrhythmias.
Question 37Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client with a below-knee amputation reports sudden severe pain in the missing limb. Which intervention is appropriate?
- Restrict all opioid analgesia
- Administer prescribed gabapentin Correct answer.
- Apply ice to the residual limb
- Tell the client the pain is imaginary
Explanation
Phantom limb pain is real neuropathic pain treated with agents such as gabapentin or pregabalin. Dismissing the pain or using ice on the residual limb is inappropriate.
Question 38Medical-Surgical Nursing
Which client is at highest risk for developing a pressure injury?
- A client who uses a walker
- A client with a BMI of 24 who walks daily
- A client who is immobile and incontinent Correct answer.
- A client with well-controlled hypertension
Explanation
Immobility combined with moisture from incontinence greatly increases pressure injury risk through prolonged tissue pressure and skin maceration. Mobility and intact skin are protective factors.
Question 39Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?
- A blocked chest tube
- Normal tidal movement
- An air leak in the system Correct answer.
- Resolution of the pneumothorax
Explanation
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber signals air moving through the system, indicating a leak in the tubing or insertion site. Intermittent bubbling with respiration is normal, but continuous bubbling requires investigation.
Question 40Medical-Surgical Nursing
Which instruction should the nurse give a client starting warfarin therapy?
- Report any black or tarry stools Correct answer.
- Double the dose if a dose is missed
- Use aspirin freely for headaches
- Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
Explanation
Warfarin increases bleeding risk, and black tarry stools suggest gastrointestinal bleeding requiring prompt evaluation. Consistent, not increased, vitamin K intake is advised, and aspirin adds bleeding risk.
Question 41Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client with diabetic ketoacidosis is receiving an insulin infusion. Which parameter is most important to monitor for the development of cerebral edema?
- Urine specific gravity
- Serum amylase
- Serum glucose and neurologic status Correct answer.
- Respiratory rate alone
Explanation
Cerebral edema in DKA is associated with rapid shifts in serum osmolality, so glucose decline and neurologic changes must be tracked closely. Falling glucose with headache or altered mentation warrants urgent intervention.
Question 42Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client is one day postoperative following abdominal surgery and reports sudden shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Encourage coughing exercises
- Elevate the head of the bed and assess oxygenation Correct answer.
- Administer the scheduled stool softener
- Ambulate the client in the hall
Explanation
Sudden dyspnea after abdominal surgery raises concern for pulmonary embolism or atelectasis, so positioning to ease breathing and assessing oxygenation are immediate priorities. Ambulation and routine medications are not first actions during acute respiratory distress.
Question 43Medical-Surgical Nursing
Which manifestation best distinguishes hypoglycemia from hyperglycemia in a client with diabetes?
- Deep rapid respirations
- Polyuria and polydipsia
- Fruity breath odor
- Cool clammy skin and shakiness Correct answer.
Explanation
Hypoglycemia produces adrenergic symptoms such as diaphoresis, tremor, and cool clammy skin. Polyuria, Kussmaul respirations, and fruity breath reflect hyperglycemia or ketoacidosis.
Question 44Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client with a new ileal conduit has a pouch that is leaking. Which action should the nurse take?
- Change the pouch immediately without preparation
- Apply lotion before attaching the pouch
- Tape the leak and wait 24 hours
- Clean the skin, dry it fully, and apply a new pouch Correct answer.
Explanation
A leaking ostomy pouch requires prompt change with thorough skin cleansing and complete drying so the new barrier adheres and protects peristomal skin. Lotions and tape interfere with adhesion and promote breakdown.
Question 45Medical-Surgical Nursing
Which finding suggests a client has developed fluid volume excess?
- Dry mucous membranes
- Urine output of 60 mL/hr
- Crackles in the lung bases Correct answer.
- Flat neck veins
Explanation
Fluid volume excess produces pulmonary congestion with crackles, along with jugular venous distention and edema. Dry mucous membranes and flat neck veins indicate volume deficit.
Question 46Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client is prescribed enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which technique is correct?
- Massage the site after injection
- Aspirate before injecting
- Inject into the abdomen without expelling the air bubble Correct answer.
- Inject into the deltoid at a 90-degree angle
Explanation
Low-molecular-weight heparin is given deep subcutaneously in the abdomen with the air bubble retained to deliver the full dose and minimize bruising. Massage and aspiration increase bleeding and tissue injury.
Question 47Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which finding is most concerning?
- Muscle cramps
- Peaked T waves on ECG Correct answer.
- Increased thirst
- Mild fatigue
Explanation
Hyperkalemia causes cardiac conduction abnormalities, and peaked T waves are an early ECG sign that can progress to lethal dysrhythmias. Cardiac effects are the priority concern.
Question 48Medical-Surgical Nursing
Which position is most appropriate for a client immediately after a lumbar puncture?
- Prone with head turned
- High Fowler position
- Flat supine for several hours Correct answer.
- Trendelenburg position
Explanation
Lying flat after a lumbar puncture helps reduce the risk of post-dural puncture headache by limiting cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Sitting upright or head-down positioning does not serve this purpose.
Question 49Medical-Surgical Nursing
A client with a tracheostomy is being suctioned. Which finding indicates the need to stop suctioning?
- Heart rate rising from 80 to 92 beats/min
- Thin white secretions
- Oxygen saturation dropping to 86% Correct answer.
- Coughing during catheter insertion
Explanation
Suctioning removes airway oxygen, so desaturation below acceptable limits requires stopping and reoxygenating the client. A modest heart rate rise or coughing is expected during the procedure.
Question 50Medical-Surgical Nursing
Which client statement indicates understanding of a low-purine diet for gout?
- I will limit organ meats and shellfish Correct answer.
- I will avoid all fruits
- I will increase my beer intake
- I will eat more sardines for protein
Explanation
Purine-rich foods such as organ meats, shellfish, and some fish raise uric acid and should be limited in gout. Alcohol, especially beer, also increases uric acid and should be reduced.