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MOHAP Dentist Exam study materials
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MOHAP Dentist Exam practice questions

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Question 1Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which nerve provides sensory innervation to the pulp and dentin of the mandibular molars?

  1. Lingual nerve
  2. Inferior alveolar nerve Correct answer.
  3. Long buccal nerve
  4. Mylohyoid nerve

Explanation

The inferior alveolar nerve is the branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve that supplies pulpal and dentinal sensation to the mandibular teeth. The other branches listed serve different oral territories.

Question 2Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Enamel is formed by which cell type during tooth development?

  1. Ameloblasts Correct answer.
  2. Fibroblasts
  3. Cementoblasts
  4. Odontoblasts

Explanation

Ameloblasts are derived from the inner enamel epithelium of the dental organ and secrete the enamel matrix. Odontoblasts form dentin and cementoblasts form cementum.

Question 3Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which immunoglobulin is the principal antibody in saliva and other mucosal secretions?

  1. IgG
  2. IgA Correct answer.
  3. IgM
  4. IgE

Explanation

Secretory IgA is produced by plasma cells near mucosal surfaces and transported across epithelium, making it the dominant immunoglobulin in saliva. IgG predominates in serum and IgM is the primary early response antibody.

Question 4Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of glycolysis?

  1. Phosphofructokinase-1 Correct answer.
  2. Pyruvate kinase
  3. Hexokinase
  4. Aldolase

Explanation

Phosphofructokinase-1 converts fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate and is the committed, rate-limiting step of glycolysis. It is regulated by ATP, AMP, and citrate.

Question 5Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy due to impaired collagen hydroxylation?

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin K
  3. Vitamin C Correct answer.
  4. Vitamin A

Explanation

Vitamin C is a cofactor for prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase, enzymes needed for stable collagen cross-linking. Deficiency produces bleeding gums, poor wound healing, and capillary fragility.

Question 6Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which bacterial species is most strongly associated with the initiation of dental caries?

  1. Porphyromonas gingivalis
  2. Streptococcus mutans Correct answer.
  3. Treponema denticola
  4. Fusobacterium nucleatum

Explanation

Streptococcus mutans adheres to enamel, produces glucans from sucrose, and is acidogenic and aciduric, making it central to caries initiation. The other species are associated with periodontal disease.

Question 7Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which muscle elevates the mandible during closure?

  1. Geniohyoid
  2. Lateral pterygoid
  3. Masseter Correct answer.
  4. Digastric

Explanation

The masseter is one of the muscles of mastication that elevates the mandible. The lateral pterygoid and suprahyoid muscles primarily depress or protrude the mandible.

Question 8Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which type of epithelium lines the oral mucosa of the hard palate?

  1. Keratinized stratified squamous Correct answer.
  2. Non-keratinized stratified squamous
  3. Simple columnar
  4. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

Explanation

The hard palate is a masticatory mucosa subject to friction and is lined by keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Non-keratinized epithelium occurs in lining mucosa such as the buccal mucosa.

Question 9Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

A patient taking warfarin is at increased bleeding risk because the drug inhibits which process?

  1. Thrombin binding to fibrin
  2. Platelet cyclooxygenase
  3. Vitamin K-dependent gamma-carboxylation Correct answer.
  4. Factor VIII release from endothelium

Explanation

Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing gamma-carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX, and X. This impairs their calcium-dependent binding to phospholipid membranes.

Question 10Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which renal structure is responsible for the countercurrent multiplication that concentrates urine?

  1. Collecting duct
  2. Proximal convoluted tubule
  3. Loop of Henle Correct answer.
  4. Glomerulus

Explanation

The loop of Henle establishes the medullary osmotic gradient through countercurrent multiplication, enabling water reabsorption in the collecting duct under ADH. The proximal tubule reabsorbs bulk solute but does not create the gradient.

Question 11Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

A lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen would produce which finding?

  1. Ipsilateral facial muscle paralysis Correct answer.
  2. Contralateral hearing loss
  3. Loss of taste on the posterior third of the tongue
  4. Loss of corneal reflex afferent limb

Explanation

The facial nerve exits the stylomastoid foramen after branching of the chorda tympani and nerve to stapedius, so a lesion there causes ipsilateral motor facial weakness. Taste is preserved because the chorda tympani branches more proximally.

Question 12Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which process describes the programmed cell death that removes interdigital tissue during limb development?

  1. Necrosis
  2. Apoptosis Correct answer.
  3. Dysplasia
  4. Metaplasia

Explanation

Apoptosis is genetically regulated programmed cell death that sculpts tissues during development without inflammation. Necrosis is pathological cell death accompanied by inflammation.

Question 13Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which change in blood pH results from prolonged vomiting of gastric contents?

  1. Respiratory alkalosis
  2. Metabolic acidosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis
  4. Metabolic alkalosis Correct answer.

Explanation

Vomiting loses hydrogen ions and chloride from the stomach, raising plasma bicarbonate and producing metabolic alkalosis. Respiratory disorders alter carbon dioxide rather than bicarbonate primarily.

Question 14Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which structure separates the submandibular space from the sublingual space and is a key landmark in the spread of odontogenic infection?

  1. Buccinator muscle
  2. Mylohyoid muscle Correct answer.
  3. Medial pterygoid muscle
  4. Temporalis muscle

Explanation

The mylohyoid muscle forms the floor of the mouth and separates the sublingual space above from the submandibular space below. Infections can track between these spaces around its posterior free border.

Question 15Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which phase of the cell cycle is the primary target of vinca alkaloids used in cancer therapy?

  1. M phase Correct answer.
  2. S phase
  3. G0 phase
  4. G1 phase

Explanation

Vinca alkaloids bind tubulin and inhibit microtubule polymerization, arresting cells in mitosis. Antimetabolites such as methotrexate act mainly in S phase.

Question 16Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction underlies anaphylaxis?

  1. Type II
  2. Type IV
  3. Type III
  4. Type I Correct answer.

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is an IgE-mediated type I immediate hypersensitivity reaction with mast cell degranulation. Type IV is T-cell mediated and delayed.

Question 17Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

A patient with chronic periodontitis shows destruction of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. Which cell type is primarily responsible for bone resorption in this process?

  1. Osteoblasts
  2. Osteocytes
  3. Osteoclasts Correct answer.
  4. Fibroblasts

Explanation

Osteoclasts are multinucleated cells that resorb bone, and their activity is increased by inflammatory cytokines in periodontitis. Osteoblasts form bone and osteocytes maintain matrix.

Question 18Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which enzyme deficiency causes phenylketonuria?

  1. Tyrosinase
  2. Phenylalanine hydroxylase Correct answer.
  3. Branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase
  4. Homogentisate oxidase

Explanation

Phenylketonuria results from deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, causing phenylalanine accumulation and intellectual disability if untreated. Tyrosinase deficiency causes albinism.

Question 19Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which feature best distinguishes reversible cell injury from irreversible injury under the microscope?

  1. Ribosomal detachment
  2. Membrane integrity loss Correct answer.
  3. Cellular swelling
  4. Fatty change

Explanation

Loss of plasma membrane integrity with enzyme leakage marks the transition to irreversible injury. Swelling and fatty change are classic reversible changes.

Question 20Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

A patient's blood gas shows pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and normal bicarbonate. Which acid-base disturbance is present?

  1. Respiratory acidosis Correct answer.
  2. Respiratory alkalosis
  3. Metabolic alkalosis
  4. Metabolic acidosis

Explanation

Elevated PaCO2 with acidemia and a normal bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis from hypoventilation. A compensatory rise in bicarbonate would take time to develop.

Question 21Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

During mandibular nerve block, sudden onset of tachycardia, hypertension, and mydriasis after inadvertent intravascular injection suggests which agent?

  1. Mepivacaine plain
  2. Bupivacaine
  3. Articaine
  4. Lidocaine with epinephrine Correct answer.

Explanation

Epinephrine in local anesthetic solutions can cause sympathomimetic effects such as tachycardia, hypertension, and mydriasis if injected intravascularly. Plain anesthetics lack these effects.

Question 22Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which mechanism explains the analgesic action of aspirin in the dental setting?

  1. Blockade of opioid receptors
  2. Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase Correct answer.
  3. Inhibition of voltage-gated sodium channels
  4. Activation of GABA-A receptors

Explanation

Aspirin irreversibly acetylates cyclooxygenase, reducing prostaglandin synthesis and thereby pain and inflammation. Opioids act at opioid receptors and local anesthetics block sodium channels.

Question 23Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

A biopsy of a gingival lesion shows proliferation of squamous epithelium with keratin pearls and intercellular bridges invading connective tissue. Which diagnosis is most consistent?

  1. Fibroma
  2. Mucocele
  3. Squamous cell carcinoma Correct answer.
  4. Pyogenic granuloma

Explanation

Keratin pearls and intercellular bridges indicate squamous differentiation, and invasion of connective tissue indicates malignancy. Fibroma and pyogenic granuloma are benign lesions.

Question 24Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which molecular defect is most consistent with a mutation causing constitutive activation of a G-protein-coupled receptor?

  1. Reduced adenylate cyclase expression
  2. Increased receptor internalization
  3. Loss of GTPase activity in the alpha subunit Correct answer.
  4. Impaired ligand binding

Explanation

Loss of intrinsic GTPase activity keeps the alpha subunit in its active GTP-bound state, producing continuous downstream signaling. Receptor internalization and reduced effector expression would diminish signaling.

Question 25Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

A patient with a mandibular fracture develops numbness of the lower lip and chin. Which nerve is most likely injured?

  1. Lingual nerve
  2. Mylohyoid nerve
  3. Auriculotemporal nerve
  4. Mental nerve Correct answer.

Explanation

The mental nerve is the terminal branch of the inferior alveolar nerve, supplying sensation to the lower lip and chin, and is vulnerable in mandibular body fractures. The lingual nerve supplies the tongue.

Question 26Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which vitamin deficiency is most directly associated with impaired collagen synthesis and delayed wound healing?

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin C Correct answer.
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin B12

Explanation

Vitamin C is required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues in collagen, a step essential for stable collagen triple helix formation. Without it, collagen synthesis is impaired, leading to poor wound healing and connective tissue defects.

Question 27Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease takes a drug that irreversibly inhibits the H+/K+-ATPase pump in gastric parietal cells. Which drug is this?

  1. Omeprazole Correct answer.
  2. Ranitidine
  3. Misoprostol
  4. Sucralfate

Explanation

Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that covalently binds to the H+/K+-ATPase pump, irreversibly blocking the final step of gastric acid secretion. This results in prolonged acid suppression until new pumps are synthesized.

Question 28Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

A 6-year-old child is brought to the clinic with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. The most likely causative organism is which of the following?

  1. Influenza A virus
  2. Adenovirus
  3. Respiratory syncytial virus
  4. Parainfluenza virus Correct answer.

Explanation

Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of croup (laryngotracheobronchitis), which presents with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor in young children. RSV typically causes bronchiolitis, while influenza and adenovirus more often cause pharyngitis or pneumonia.

Question 29Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

Which mechanism best explains the action of local anesthetics such as lidocaine?

  1. Blockade of calcium channels
  2. Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels Correct answer.
  3. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
  4. Activation of potassium channels

Explanation

Local anesthetics reversibly bind to voltage-gated sodium channels in nerve membranes, preventing sodium influx and blocking the propagation of action potentials. This results in loss of sensation in the area supplied by the affected nerve.

Question 30Basic and Applied Biomedical Sciences (anatomy, physiology, histology, biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology)

A 45-year-old man presents with a non-healing ulcer on the lateral border of the tongue. A biopsy shows invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Which molecular alteration is most frequently found in such tumors?

  1. Mutation in the TP53 gene Correct answer.
  2. Deletion of the RB1 gene
  3. Translocation t(8;14)
  4. Overexpression of HER2

Explanation

TP53 mutations are among the most common genetic alterations in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma, including oral tongue cancer. They impair the tumor suppressor function of p53, allowing uncontrolled cell proliferation.

Question 31Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which tooth surface is most commonly affected by dental caries in the permanent dentition?

  1. Occlusal pits and fissures Correct answer.
  2. Lingual surfaces of anterior teeth
  3. Cervical root surfaces
  4. Smooth proximal surfaces

Explanation

Pits and fissures of occlusal surfaces retain plaque and are difficult to clean, making them the most caries-prone sites in permanent teeth. Smooth surfaces are more self-cleansing and accessible to fluoride.

Question 32Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

The predominant microorganism associated with the initiation of smooth-surface caries is:

  1. Lactobacillus acidophilus
  2. Porphyromonas gingivalis
  3. Streptococcus mutans Correct answer.
  4. Actinomyces viscosus

Explanation

Streptococcus mutans is a key cariogenic organism that adheres to enamel and produces acid from sucrose, initiating smooth-surface lesions. Lactobacilli are more associated with progression of established lesions.

Question 33Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

A white spot lesion on enamel represents which underlying process?

  1. Fluorotic hypoplasia of the enamel organ
  2. Deposition of extrinsic stain on the enamel surface
  3. Complete cavitation through the full enamel thickness
  4. Subsurface demineralization with an intact surface layer Correct answer.

Explanation

Early caries presents as a white spot because demineralization occurs beneath a relatively intact surface layer, scattering light. The surface remains mineralized while the subsurface is porous.

Question 34Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which salivary buffer system is the most important for neutralizing dietary acids in the mouth?

  1. Bicarbonate system Correct answer.
  2. Protein buffer system
  3. Urea system
  4. Phosphate system

Explanation

The bicarbonate buffer system is the principal salivary buffer that neutralizes acid and restores pH after meals. Its concentration rises with salivary flow rate.

Question 35Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which cell type is responsible for resorbing bone during orthodontic tooth movement?

  1. Cementoblast
  2. Osteoclast Correct answer.
  3. Osteoblast
  4. Fibroblast

Explanation

On the compression side of a moving tooth, osteoclasts resorb bone to allow the tooth to relocate. Osteoblasts deposit bone on the tension side.

Question 36Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

The periodontal ligament derives its principal blood supply from:

  1. Lymphatic channels of the palate
  2. The maxillary sinus mucosa
  3. Alveolar arteries and gingival vessels Correct answer.
  4. Pulpal vessels through the apical foramen

Explanation

The periodontal ligament is supplied by branches of the alveolar arteries, supplemented by gingival and intraosseous vessels. This rich supply supports its high metabolic activity.

Question 37Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which immunoglobulin predominates in gingival crevicular fluid?

  1. IgM
  2. IgA
  3. IgG Correct answer.
  4. IgE

Explanation

IgG is the dominant immunoglobulin in gingival crevicular fluid and reflects the local humoral response to periodontal pathogens. IgA is present but in lower concentration.

Question 38Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which enzyme in saliva initiates the digestion of dietary starch?

  1. Salivary lipase
  2. Lysozyme
  3. Carbonic anhydrase
  4. Salivary alpha-amylase Correct answer.

Explanation

Salivary alpha-amylase hydrolyzes alpha-1,4 glycosidic bonds in starch, beginning carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. Lingual lipase begins fat digestion.

Question 39Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

A patient reports recurrent aphthous ulcers. Which clinical feature best distinguishes minor aphthous ulcers?

  1. Vesicles that rupture into crusted lesions
  2. Ulcers larger than 10 mm that heal with scarring
  3. Round ulcers under 10 mm that heal without scarring Correct answer.
  4. Painless indurated ulcers of the tongue border

Explanation

Minor aphthous ulcers are small, shallow, round lesions that heal spontaneously within about two weeks without scarring. Major aphthous ulcers are larger and frequently scar.

Question 40Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which condition presents with a white, adherent plaque on the buccal mucosa that cannot be wiped off and is confirmed by biopsy?

  1. Chemical burn
  2. Fordyce granules
  3. Oral candidiasis
  4. Oral leukoplakia Correct answer.

Explanation

Leukoplakia is a clinical diagnosis of a white patch that cannot be rubbed off and cannot be attributed to another cause; biopsy is required to exclude dysplasia or malignancy. Candidiasis can usually be wiped off.

Question 41Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

A 60-year-old smoker presents with a non-healing ulcer on the lateral tongue border. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. Prescribe a topical corticosteroid
  2. Incisional biopsy of the lesion Correct answer.
  3. Prescribe an antifungal mouthwash
  4. Reassure and review in six months

Explanation

A persistent ulcer on the lateral tongue in a smoker is suspicious for squamous cell carcinoma and requires biopsy for histopathologic diagnosis. Delay risks missing malignancy.

Question 42Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which feature is characteristic of oral lichen planus?

  1. Unilateral well-demarcated red velvety patch
  2. Deep punched-out ulceration with a necrotic base
  3. Bilateral white striae with a lacy pattern Correct answer.
  4. Yellow-white curd-like removable plaques

Explanation

Lichen planus classically shows bilateral reticular white striae (Wickham striae) on the buccal mucosa. It is a chronic T-cell mediated inflammatory condition.

Question 43Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which of the following is the most common benign epithelial tumor of the oral cavity?

  1. Hemangioma
  2. Squamous papilloma Correct answer.
  3. Pleomorphic adenoma
  4. Fibroma

Explanation

Squamous papilloma is a common benign epithelial proliferation often associated with human papillomavirus. Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland tumor but arises from glandular tissue.

Question 44Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which developmental anomaly results in a small tongue that is tied to the floor of the mouth?

  1. Ankyloglossia Correct answer.
  2. Microglossia
  3. Bifid tongue
  4. Macroglossia

Explanation

Ankyloglossia, or tongue-tie, results from a short lingual frenulum restricting tongue mobility. It can affect speech and feeding.

Question 45Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which structure is the embryologic origin of the enamel?

  1. Neural crest mesenchyme
  2. Endoderm
  3. Ectoderm Correct answer.
  4. Mesoderm

Explanation

Enamel is derived from the ectodermal dental organ, specifically ameloblasts of epithelial origin. Dentin and pulp arise from neural crest mesenchyme.

Question 46Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

A patient has a localized swelling at the angle of the mandible with pus discharge from a carious lower molar. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Odontogenic abscess Correct answer.
  2. Salivary duct calculus
  3. Trigeminal neuralgia
  4. Lymphoma

Explanation

A carious molar with swelling and pus suggests an odontogenic infection spreading through bone into surrounding tissues. Source control and antibiotics are required.

Question 47Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which antibiotic is contraindicated in a patient taking warfarin due to increased bleeding risk?

  1. Azithromycin
  2. Amoxicillin
  3. Metronidazole Correct answer.
  4. Clindamycin

Explanation

Metronidazole inhibits warfarin metabolism via CYP enzymes, raising INR and bleeding risk. Alternative antibiotics should be chosen or the INR monitored closely.

Question 48Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which condition is characterized by episodic unilateral facial pain triggered by light touch, chewing, or cold wind?

  1. Trigeminal neuralgia Correct answer.
  2. Temporomandibular disorder
  3. Atypical odontalgia
  4. Burning mouth syndrome

Explanation

Trigeminal neuralgia causes paroxysmal lancinating pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, provoked by innocuous stimuli. Carbamazepine is first-line therapy.

Question 49Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

A radiolucent lesion at the apex of a non-vital tooth with a well-defined border most likely represents:

  1. Odontoma
  2. Periapical granuloma Correct answer.
  3. Ameloblastoma
  4. Dentigerous cyst

Explanation

A periapical granuloma is a chronic inflammatory lesion at the apex of a necrotic tooth, appearing as a well-defined radiolucency. Histology shows granulation tissue.

Question 50Oral Biology, Oral Pathology, and Oral Medicine

Which type of epithelium lines the dorsal surface of the tongue?

  1. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
  2. Simple columnar epithelium
  3. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium Correct answer.
  4. Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

Explanation

The dorsal tongue is covered by keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, which provides mechanical protection during mastication. Non-keratinized epithelium lines the ventral surface.