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AEE Business Energy Professional practice questions

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Question 1Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

Which organization administers the LEED green building rating system?

  1. ASHRAE
  2. U.S. Department of Energy
  3. International Code Council
  4. U.S. Green Building Council Correct answer.

Explanation

LEED was created and is maintained by the U.S. Green Building Council, while project certification is administered by the Green Business Certification Inc. LEED is a voluntary rating system rather than a building code.

Question 2Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

ASHRAE Standard 90.1 sets minimum energy efficiency requirements for which scope of buildings?

  1. Only federal buildings and military installations
  2. Only projects seeking a green building rating
  3. Every residential building, including detached single-family houses
  4. Most commercial and high-rise residential buildings Correct answer.

Explanation

ASHRAE 90.1 applies broadly to new construction and major renovations of commercial, high-rise residential, and certain other buildings, while low-rise residential buildings fall under the IECC residential provisions. It is not limited to federal buildings or to projects pursuing voluntary certification.

Question 3Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

In EPA ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager, a score of 50 indicates what about a building?

  1. The building performs at the national median for its property type Correct answer.
  2. The building uses 50% less energy than the national median
  3. The building meets the current ASHRAE 90.1 standard
  4. The building qualifies for ENERGY STAR certification

Explanation

Portfolio Manager's 1-to-100 score compares a building's energy performance with similar buildings nationwide, and 50 represents median performance. A score of 75 or higher is generally required for ENERGY STAR certification.

Question 4Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

Which rating system focuses primarily on human health and well-being in buildings?

  1. WELL Building Standard Correct answer.
  2. BREEAM
  3. Green Globes
  4. ENERGY STAR

Explanation

The WELL Building Standard organizes requirements around health and wellness topics such as air, water, light, thermal comfort, and occupant experience. The other programs focus mainly on environmental performance, energy performance, or broader sustainability.

Question 5Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

The commercial provisions of the International Energy Conservation Code allow compliance through which alternative?

  1. The LEED energy and atmosphere credits
  2. The WELL ventilation requirements
  3. The ASHRAE 90.1 standard Correct answer.
  4. The ENERGY STAR certification process

Explanation

The IECC commercial provisions permit a project to comply with ASHRAE 90.1 as an alternative to the IECC commercial requirements, alongside the code's prescriptive and performance paths. ENERGY STAR, LEED, and WELL are voluntary programs and are not code compliance alternatives.

Question 6Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

Low-emitting materials credits in green building rating systems are intended to limit which pollutant class indoors?

  1. Airborne particulate matter produced by combustion
  2. Ozone-depleting refrigerants released to the atmosphere
  3. Volatile organic compounds emitted by finishes Correct answer.
  4. Radon gas migrating from surrounding soil

Explanation

Low-emitting materials requirements target volatile organic compounds and other emissions from products such as adhesives, sealants, paints, coatings, and flooring. These provisions address indoor source control rather than refrigerant management, combustion particles, or soil gas.

Question 7Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

A designer wants to use the ASHRAE 62.1 Indoor Air Quality Procedure instead of the Ventilation Rate Procedure. What must the design demonstrate?

  1. That calculated ventilation rates exceed table values by 30%
  2. That smoking will be prohibited throughout the building
  3. That known contaminants are controlled to acceptable concentrations Correct answer.
  4. That the design uses only outdoor-air economizers

Explanation

The Indoor Air Quality Procedure is performance-based: the designer identifies contaminants of concern, sets acceptable concentration limits, and shows that the design controls them. The Ventilation Rate Procedure instead prescribes minimum outdoor-air rates from tables.

Question 8Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

Which factor most directly determines the economizer capacity threshold in ASHRAE 90.1?

  1. The roof insulation R-value and window U-factor
  2. The building's total floor area and occupancy classification
  3. The project's lighting power allowance and plug loads
  4. The climate zone and cooling system type Correct answer.

Explanation

ASHRAE 90.1 sets economizer requirements using cooling capacity thresholds that vary by climate zone and system type, with specific exceptions. Floor area, lighting power, and envelope values do not set those economizer thresholds.

Question 9Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

Which activity is required as a LEED prerequisite for fundamental commissioning of building energy systems?

  1. Achieve an ENERGY STAR score of 90
  2. Conduct a life-cycle cost analysis for the HVAC system
  3. Install renewable energy systems sized for 10% of load
  4. Engage a commissioning authority to verify systems Correct answer.

Explanation

The LEED fundamental commissioning prerequisite requires an owner's project requirements, a basis of design, a commissioning plan, a commissioning authority, and verification activities. High ENERGY STAR scores, renewable energy systems, and life-cycle cost analyses relate to separate credits or broader design practices.

Question 10Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

A city ordinance requires commercial buildings over 50,000 ft² to benchmark energy use annually. Which action best satisfies the core requirement?

  1. Complete an ASHRAE Level II energy audit annually
  2. Report whole-building energy use through ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager Correct answer.
  3. Obtain LEED Operations and Maintenance certification
  4. Install tenant submeters and publish monthly consumption

Explanation

Benchmarking ordinances generally require annual measurement and disclosure of whole-building energy use, commonly through ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager. Energy audits, submetering, and green building certification may support energy management but are not the core annual reporting requirement.

Question 11Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

ASHRAE Standard 100 addresses which aspect of the built environment?

  1. Energy efficiency in existing buildings Correct answer.
  2. Commissioning of new HVAC systems
  3. Ventilation requirements for acceptable indoor air quality
  4. Thermal comfort conditions for occupied spaces

Explanation

ASHRAE Standard 100 provides requirements for energy efficiency in existing buildings, including operations, maintenance, and retrofit considerations. Ventilation, thermal comfort, and commissioning are covered by other ASHRAE standards.

Question 12Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

A landlord pays utilities while tenants control energy use. Which green lease provision best addresses this split incentive?

  1. A gross lease that includes all utility costs
  2. A rent escalation tied to the consumer price index
  3. A clause barring tenants from adding equipment
  4. Submetering tenants and billing them for actual energy use Correct answer.

Explanation

A split incentive occurs when one party pays for energy while another party controls its use. Submetering and billing tenants for actual consumption align the cost with the decision-maker and encourage efficiency.

Question 13Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

A building performance standard such as New York City Local Law 97 primarily regulates what?

  1. Mandatory ENERGY STAR certification for homes
  2. Maximum ventilation rates for each occupant
  3. Carbon emissions from covered large buildings Correct answer.
  4. Minimum recycled content in construction materials

Explanation

Local Law 97 sets annual carbon emission intensity limits for covered large buildings and imposes penalties for exceedance. It is a performance-based emissions standard rather than a ventilation, materials, or residential certification requirement.

Question 14Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

A project team wants to reduce embodied carbon. Which strategy most directly targets embodied carbon rather than operational carbon?

  1. Installing occupancy sensors for lighting control
  2. Adding roof insulation to reduce heating loads
  3. Upgrading to a higher-efficiency chiller
  4. Specifying low-carbon concrete and recycled steel Correct answer.

Explanation

Embodied carbon is associated with material extraction, manufacturing, transport, installation, and disposal, so specifying low-carbon concrete and recycled steel directly reduces it. Insulation, lighting controls, and chiller efficiency primarily reduce operational carbon from building energy use.

Question 15Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

ASHRAE Standard 189.1 is best described as which type of document?

  1. A code-intended standard for high-performance green buildings Correct answer.
  2. A guideline for commissioning existing buildings
  3. A rating system that awards points for green features
  4. A test method for measuring building envelope leakage

Explanation

ASHRAE 189.1 provides minimum requirements for high-performance green buildings and is written in code-intended language for adoption by jurisdictions. It is not a point-based rating system, an envelope leakage test method, or an existing-building commissioning guideline.

Question 16Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

A building claims net-zero energy on an annual basis. What does this generally mean?

  1. It consumes no energy at all during operation
  2. It operates entirely off the utility grid
  3. It offsets annual consumption with renewable production Correct answer.
  4. It burns no fossil fuel on site

Explanation

Net-zero energy generally means that annual renewable energy production or procurement equals annual building energy consumption, often on a site-energy basis. It does not require zero energy use, elimination of all on-site fossil fuels, or complete disconnection from the utility grid.

Question 17Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

Under ASHRAE 90.1 Appendix G, why may the baseline building be rotated during simulation?

  1. To satisfy the economizer requirements
  2. To shorten the simulation run time
  3. To make the baseline independent of the proposed orientation Correct answer.
  4. To improve the proposed building's solar orientation

Explanation

Appendix G simulates the baseline at multiple rotations, typically 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees, and averages the results so that the proposed design does not receive credit merely from a favorable orientation. Rotation does not improve the proposed design or satisfy economizer provisions.

Question 18Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

Which statement best distinguishes ASHRAE 90.1 Section 11 from Appendix G?

  1. Section 11 is voluntary; Appendix G is mandatory.
  2. Section 11 compares energy cost to a budget; Appendix G rates against a baseline. Correct answer.
  3. Section 11 is a prescriptive envelope table; Appendix G is a lighting table.
  4. Section 11 applies only to residential; Appendix G only to commercial.

Explanation

Section 11 uses the Energy Cost Budget Method, comparing the proposed design's annual energy cost with a budget building. Appendix G provides the Performance Rating Method, which compares proposed performance with a baseline and is commonly used for beyond-code and rating system evaluations.

Question 19Codes & Standards, and Green Buildings

A demand response program asks a building to reduce electric load during grid peak events. Which control sequence best supports this while maintaining occupied comfort?

  1. Increasing outdoor air intake to flush the building
  2. Operating chillers at full load throughout the event
  3. Pre-cooling before the event, then shedding noncritical loads Correct answer.
  4. Disabling ventilation and shutting down all HVAC fans

Explanation

Demand response reduces or shifts peak electric demand, and pre-cooling stores cooling in the building mass so chiller and other loads can be curtailed during the event. Maintaining ventilation and comfort avoids indoor air quality or occupant complaints that a full shutdown would cause.

Question 20Energy Fundamentals

One kilowatt-hour is equivalent to approximately how many British thermal units?

  1. 10,000 Btu
  2. 341 Btu
  3. 3,412 Btu Correct answer.
  4. 1,000 Btu

Explanation

One kilowatt-hour equals 1 kW multiplied by 1 hour, and 1 kW equals 3,412 Btu/h, so the product is 3,412 Btu. This conversion is widely used to compare electricity with thermal fuels.

Question 21Energy Fundamentals

Which statement best describes a kilowatt?

  1. The cumulative electricity used by a facility in a year
  2. The heat needed to raise one pound of water by one degree Fahrenheit
  3. The rate at which energy is consumed or produced Correct answer.
  4. The total energy consumed over a billing period

Explanation

A kilowatt is a rate of energy flow equal to 1,000 joules per second. Kilowatt-hours, not kilowatts, measure accumulated energy over time.

Question 22Energy Fundamentals

A natural gas therm is defined as how many Btu?

  1. 1,000,000 Btu
  2. 10,000 Btu
  3. 1,000 Btu
  4. 100,000 Btu Correct answer.

Explanation

A therm is defined as 100,000 Btu, approximately the energy in 100 cubic feet of natural gas. Gas utilities commonly use therms for billing.

Question 23Energy Fundamentals

One mechanical horsepower is closest to which electrical power value?

  1. 2,000 W
  2. 746 W Correct answer.
  3. 500 W
  4. 1,000 W

Explanation

One mechanical horsepower equals 550 ft·lb/s, which converts to 746 W. The same value is used to convert motor nameplate horsepower to electrical kilowatts.

Question 24Energy Fundamentals

How is load factor defined for an electrical facility?

  1. Total energy divided by peak demand
  2. Peak demand divided by average demand
  3. Average demand divided by peak demand Correct answer.
  4. Connected load divided by average demand

Explanation

Load factor is average demand divided by peak demand over the same period. A high load factor indicates steady use of capacity, while a low value indicates peaky operation.

Question 25Energy Fundamentals

Which metric best expresses a building's energy intensity?

  1. Peak electrical demand in kW
  2. Annual utility cost per account
  3. kBtu per square foot per year Correct answer.
  4. Total annual energy in kBtu

Explanation

Energy intensity normalizes energy use by a meaningful activity measure; for buildings, floor area and annual time are common. This allows comparison of buildings of different sizes.

Question 26Energy Fundamentals

A 10 hp motor operates at full rated load for 8 hours per day. Using 0.746 kW/hp, what is its daily energy use?

  1. 80.0 kWh
  2. 59.7 kWh Correct answer.
  3. 74.6 kWh
  4. 7.46 kWh

Explanation

Convert horsepower to kW: 10 hp × 0.746 kW/hp = 7.46 kW. Multiply by 8 hours: 7.46 kW × 8 h = 59.7 kWh.

Question 27Energy Fundamentals

A facility has a monthly peak demand of 250 kW and a demand charge of $12/kW. What is the demand charge for that month?

  1. $3,600
  2. $2,400
  3. $1,200
  4. $3,000 Correct answer.

Explanation

Demand charge equals billed peak demand multiplied by the demand rate: 250 kW × $12/kW = $3,000. Demand charges recover the cost of capacity needed for peaks.

Question 28Energy Fundamentals

A boiler consumes 1,000 therms of natural gas and delivers 70,000,000 Btu of useful heat. What is its thermal efficiency?

  1. 30%
  2. 70% Correct answer.
  3. 143%
  4. 7%

Explanation

Fuel input is 1,000 therms × 100,000 Btu/therm = 100,000,000 Btu. Efficiency is useful output divided by input: 70,000,000 ÷ 100,000,000 = 0.70, or 70%.

Question 29Energy Fundamentals

A 5,000 ft² office has 60 lighting fixtures, each with two 32 W lamps. What is the installed lighting power density?

  1. 0.77 W/ft² Correct answer.
  2. 1.54 W/ft²
  3. 1.20 W/ft²
  4. 0.38 W/ft²

Explanation

Connected lighting load is 60 fixtures × 2 lamps × 32 W = 3,840 W. Divide by 5,000 ft² to get 0.768 W/ft², about 0.77 W/ft².

Question 30Energy Fundamentals

A load draws 400 kW at a power factor of 0.80. What is the apparent power?

  1. 625 kVA
  2. 500 kVA Correct answer.
  3. 400 kVA
  4. 320 kVA

Explanation

Apparent power in kVA equals real power divided by power factor: 400 kW ÷ 0.80 = 500 kVA. The difference between kVA and kW is reactive power.

Question 31Energy Fundamentals

A building has a 65°F heating balance point and an average outdoor temperature of 40°F over 30 days. How many heating degree-days occur?

  1. 300 degree-days
  2. 25 degree-days
  3. 1,200 degree-days
  4. 750 degree-days Correct answer.

Explanation

Heating degree-days equal the balance-point temperature minus average outdoor temperature, summed over the period. Here (65 − 40) = 25°F per day × 30 days = 750 degree-days.

Question 32Energy Fundamentals

A water pump moves 500 gpm against 100 ft of head with 70% pump efficiency. Using 3,960 as the conversion constant, what is the brake horsepower?

  1. 8.8 hp
  2. 18.0 hp Correct answer.
  3. 12.6 hp
  4. 25.3 hp

Explanation

Brake horsepower equals flow in gpm times head in feet divided by 3,960 and by pump efficiency. For water: (500 × 100) ÷ (3,960 × 0.70) = 18.0 hp.

Question 33Energy Fundamentals

A 50 kW load runs 2,000 hours per year at an energy price of $0.10/kWh. What is the annual energy cost?

  1. $10,000 Correct answer.
  2. $5,000
  3. $20,000
  4. $100,000

Explanation

Annual energy is 50 kW × 2,000 h = 100,000 kWh. At $0.10/kWh, cost is 100,000 × $0.10 = $10,000.

Question 34Energy Fundamentals

A facility uses 4,380,000 kWh per year with a peak demand of 1,000 kW. What is its annual load factor?

  1. 40%
  2. 25%
  3. 50% Correct answer.
  4. 75%

Explanation

Average demand is annual energy divided by 8,760 hours: 4,380,000 ÷ 8,760 = 500 kW. Load factor is 500 ÷ 1,000 = 0.50, or 50%.

Question 35Energy Fundamentals

Two 50 kW motors operate 4,000 hours per year. Motor A has 90% efficiency and Motor B has 95% efficiency. At $0.08/kWh, what is the annual energy-cost saving from using Motor B?

  1. $702
  2. $468
  3. $234
  4. $936 Correct answer.

Explanation

Input power is output divided by efficiency: Motor A uses 50 ÷ 0.90 = 55.56 kW, and Motor B uses 50 ÷ 0.95 = 52.63 kW. The 2.92 kW difference over 4,000 hours saves about 11,700 kWh, or $936 per year.

Question 36Energy Fundamentals

A chiller is rated at 0.60 kW/ton. Using 12,000 Btu/h per ton and 3,412 Btu/h per kW, what is its coefficient of performance?

  1. 5.86 Correct answer.
  2. 1.76
  3. 3.52
  4. 7.03

Explanation

COP equals cooling output in Btu/h divided by input in Btu/h. One ton is 12,000 Btu/h and 0.60 kW is 2,047 Btu/h, so COP = 12,000 ÷ 2,047 = 5.86.

Question 37Energy Fundamentals

A tariff applies a demand ratchet of 80% of the highest winter demand from November through March. The highest winter demand is 500 kW, and the June billed demand would otherwise be 280 kW. What demand is billed in June?

  1. 400 kW Correct answer.
  2. 500 kW
  3. 224 kW
  4. 280 kW

Explanation

The ratchet sets billed demand at 80% of the highest winter demand: 0.80 × 500 kW = 400 kW. Because June demand of 280 kW is below the ratchet, the facility is billed for 400 kW.

Question 38Energy Fundamentals

A 1,000 ft² wall has an R-value of 13. If indoor air is 70°F and outdoor air is 30°F, what is the steady-state heat loss through the wall?

  1. 5,200 Btu/h
  2. 3,100 Btu/h Correct answer.
  3. 2,000 Btu/h
  4. 1,300 Btu/h

Explanation

Steady-state heat flow through a wall is Q = A × ΔT ÷ R. Here 1,000 ft² × (70 − 30)°F ÷ 13 = 3,077 Btu/h, about 3,100 Btu/h.

Question 39Utility Rate Structures

Which rate component is designed to recover the utility's fixed capacity costs and is billed on the customer's peak use?

  1. Demand charge Correct answer.
  2. Energy charge
  3. Fuel adjustment clause
  4. Late payment fee

Explanation

Demand charges are based on billing demand, typically the customer's highest measured kW during the billing period. They recover capacity-related fixed costs that do not vary with each kWh consumed. Energy charges, by contrast, recover variable costs such as fuel.

Question 40Utility Rate Structures

Which expression defines load factor?

  1. Peak demand divided by total energy
  2. Total energy divided by peak demand
  3. Average demand divided by peak demand Correct answer.
  4. Peak demand divided by average demand

Explanation

Load factor measures how evenly a customer or system uses electricity over a period. It is average demand divided by peak demand, often expressed as a percentage. A high load factor indicates relatively steady use.

Question 41Utility Rate Structures

A tariff charges $0.10/kWh for the first 10,000 kWh and $0.08/kWh for all additional kWh. What rate structure is this?

  1. Time-of-use rate
  2. Flat rate
  3. Inverted block rate
  4. Declining block rate Correct answer.

Explanation

A declining block rate charges a lower unit price as consumption moves into higher blocks. It is often used to reflect lower average costs for large volume. The described tariff falls from $0.10 to $0.08 per kWh.

Question 42Utility Rate Structures

Which statement best describes a demand ratchet in an electric tariff?

  1. A billing floor tied to a past peak Correct answer.
  2. A separate charge for reactive power use
  3. A credit applied for off-peak energy consumption
  4. A cap placed on the monthly energy charge

Explanation

A demand ratchet sets a minimum billing demand based on a percentage of a prior peak, often over 11 or 12 months. It protects the utility's fixed-cost recovery when current demand falls. The customer pays for capacity even if present usage is lower.

Question 43Utility Rate Structures

What is the main purpose of a time-of-use rate?

  1. Guarantee the customer a fixed monthly bill
  2. Reduce the customer's total annual energy consumption
  3. Eliminate demand charges
  4. Move load away from peak hours Correct answer.

Explanation

Time-of-use rates set different prices for energy in defined peak and off-peak periods. They signal customers to shift flexible load to lower-cost hours. Total consumption may fall, but the primary design intent is load shifting.

Question 44Utility Rate Structures

A customer is billed a demand charge of $12 per kW on 500 kW of billing demand. What is the monthly demand charge?

  1. $6,000 Correct answer.
  2. $5,400
  3. $4,500
  4. $3,000

Explanation

Multiply the billing demand by the demand charge rate: 500 kW × $12/kW = $6,000. Billing demand may be actual or ratcheted, but here the stated value is used. Energy charges are separate.

Question 45Utility Rate Structures

A tariff has an 85% ratchet. Current billing demand is 400 kW, and the highest demand in the prior 11 months was 600 kW. What is the billed demand?

  1. 400 kW
  2. 510 kW Correct answer.
  3. 540 kW
  4. 600 kW

Explanation

The ratchet floor is 85% × 600 kW = 510 kW. Billed demand is the greater of current demand and the ratchet floor, so 510 kW applies. The current 400 kW does not override the floor.

Question 46Utility Rate Structures

A customer has a 900 kW load at a power factor of 0.90. The utility bills demand on kVA at $10 per kVA. What is the monthly demand charge?

  1. $11,111
  2. $8,100
  3. $10,000 Correct answer.
  4. $9,000

Explanation

Billed kVA equals kW divided by power factor: 900 ÷ 0.90 = 1,000 kVA. At $10/kVA, the demand charge is $10,000. Billing on kVA penalizes low power factor because it increases apparent power.

Question 47Utility Rate Structures

What is the function of a fuel adjustment clause in an electric tariff?

  1. Provides a rebate for off-peak energy use
  2. Passes through fuel cost changes Correct answer.
  3. Recovers the utility's fixed transmission investment
  4. Sets a permanent cap on the customer's bill

Explanation

A fuel adjustment clause allows specified fuel and purchased-power costs to be passed through to customers outside a general rate case. It reconciles actual costs with those embedded in base rates. The clause is intended to reduce regulatory lag, not to cap bills.

Question 48Utility Rate Structures

Which best describes an interruptible electric rate?

  1. A discount for accepting curtailment Correct answer.
  2. A fixed rate that ignores the customer's usage
  3. A premium rate charged for guaranteed capacity
  4. A rate that applies only to reactive power

Explanation

Interruptible rates offer a lower price in return for the utility's right to curtail service or load during specified conditions. The customer accepts reduced reliability or operational flexibility. The utility gains a demand-side resource.

Question 49Utility Rate Structures

A customer installs on-site generation but keeps utility service for outages. Which charge is designed to recover the utility's cost of providing that backup?

  1. Standby charge Correct answer.
  2. Fuel adjustment clause
  3. Late payment fee
  4. Energy charge

Explanation

Standby charges recover the cost of maintaining utility capacity and delivery facilities for a customer with self-generation. They compensate the utility for readiness to serve when the generator is unavailable. Ordinary energy charges apply only to energy actually delivered.

Question 50Utility Rate Structures

Annual energy use is 1,200,000 kWh and peak demand is 300 kW. What is the load factor?

  1. 38.0%
  2. 22.8%
  3. 62.5%
  4. 45.7% Correct answer.

Explanation

Load factor equals annual energy divided by the product of peak demand and annual hours. Using 8,760 hours: 1,200,000 ÷ (300 × 8,760) = 0.4566, or about 45.7%. Higher load factor means more stable use of capacity.