I85PREP
⌘ K
Provimi i Shtetit - Fizioterapeut study materials
Provimi i Shtetit - Fizioterapeut study resources

Provimi i Shtetit - Fizioterapeut practice questions

One question at a time. Build your Provimi i Shtetit - Fizioterapeut understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle is the primary flexor of the elbow joint?

  1. Brachioradialis
  2. Anconeus
  3. Triceps brachii
  4. Brachialis Correct answer.

Explanation

The brachialis originates on the distal humerus and inserts on the ulnar tuberosity, making it a pure elbow flexor regardless of forearm position. The other elbow flexors (biceps brachii, brachioradialis) are influenced by forearm supination/pronation, but the brachialis remains the strongest and most consistent flexor.

Question 2Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which type of joint is the glenohumeral joint?

  1. Saddle joint
  2. Pivot joint
  3. Hinge joint
  4. Ball-and-socket joint Correct answer.

Explanation

The glenohumeral joint has a spherical humeral head articulating with the shallow glenoid cavity, permitting movement in three planes. This triaxial arrangement is the defining feature of a ball-and-socket (spheroidal) joint.

Question 3Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

During normal quiet inspiration at rest, which muscle is the principal driver of ventilation?

  1. Sternocleidomastoid
  2. External intercostals
  3. Rectus abdominis
  4. Diaphragm Correct answer.

Explanation

The diaphragm contracts and descends during quiet inspiration, generating most of the tidal volume. Accessory muscles are recruited only when ventilation demand rises.

Question 4Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which component of the sarcomere shortens during muscle contraction?

  1. A band
  2. H zone Correct answer.
  3. Z line
  4. M line

Explanation

According to the sliding filament theory, actin filaments slide over myosin, reducing the distance between Z lines and narrowing the H zone (the central region containing only myosin). The A band, corresponding to myosin length, remains constant.

Question 5Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which nerve innervates the deltoid muscle?

  1. Axillary nerve Correct answer.
  2. Suprascapular nerve
  3. Radial nerve
  4. Musculocutaneous nerve

Explanation

The axillary nerve (C5–C6) arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and supplies the deltoid and teres minor. Its close relation to the surgical neck of the humerus makes it vulnerable in shoulder injuries.

Question 6Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which structure is the primary stabilizer preventing anterior translation of the tibia on the femur?

  1. Anterior cruciate ligament Correct answer.
  2. Lateral collateral ligament
  3. Posterior cruciate ligament
  4. Medial collateral ligament

Explanation

The anterior cruciate ligament resists anterior tibial translation and limits tibial internal rotation. It is the most commonly injured knee ligament in pivoting sports.

Question 7Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle group is primarily responsible for ankle dorsiflexion?

  1. Tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus
  2. Gastrocnemius and soleus
  3. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus Correct answer.
  4. Peroneus longus and brevis

Explanation

Dorsiflexion is produced by the anterior compartment muscles, chiefly tibialis anterior, assisted by extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus. These muscles lift the dorsum of the foot toward the shin.

Question 8Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which type of muscle fiber is characterized by high oxidative capacity and resistance to fatigue?

  1. Type I Correct answer.
  2. Type IIx
  3. Type IIb
  4. Type IIa

Explanation

Type I (slow-twitch) fibers have abundant mitochondria and myoglobin, giving them high oxidative capacity and fatigue resistance. They are suited to sustained postural and endurance activity.

Question 9Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which plane of movement does shoulder abduction occur in?

  1. Oblique plane
  2. Frontal plane Correct answer.
  3. Sagittal plane
  4. Transverse plane

Explanation

Abduction moves a limb away from the midline in the frontal (coronal) plane around an anteroposterior axis. Flexion and extension occur in the sagittal plane, while rotation occurs in the transverse plane.

Question 10Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

A patient has weakness of wrist extension and numbness over the dorsum of the hand between the first and second metacarpals. Which nerve is most likely affected?

  1. Axillary nerve
  2. Median nerve
  3. Ulnar nerve
  4. Radial nerve Correct answer.

Explanation

Wrist drop and sensory loss in the first dorsal web space are classic for radial nerve palsy, often from a midshaft humeral fracture or prolonged compression. The radial nerve supplies the wrist extensors and the superficial radial sensory territory.

Question 11Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

What is the normal resting value of the ankle joint angle in standing?

  1. 20 degrees dorsiflexion
  2. 0 degrees (neutral) Correct answer.
  3. 30 degrees plantarflexion
  4. 10 degrees plantarflexion

Explanation

In relaxed standing, the ankle is typically at neutral (approximately 0 degrees), with the foot flat and the leg vertical over the talus. This neutral position allows balanced weight distribution across the foot.

Question 12Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

During the stance phase of gait, what percentage of the gait cycle does it typically occupy?

  1. 60% Correct answer.
  2. 40%
  3. 50%
  4. 80%

Explanation

In normal walking, stance phase occupies about 60% of the gait cycle and swing phase about 40%, with a period of double support. During running, stance becomes less than 50% and a flight phase appears.

Question 13Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle acts as the primary hip extensor during stair climbing?

  1. Sartorius
  2. Tensor fasciae latae
  3. Iliopsoas
  4. Gluteus maximus Correct answer.

Explanation

Gluteus maximus is the strongest hip extensor and is especially active during demanding tasks such as stair climbing and rising from sitting. The hamstrings assist hip extension but are not the primary driver.

Question 14Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which type of lever is represented by the calf raising the heel during push-off?

  1. First-class lever
  2. Fourth-class lever
  3. Third-class lever
  4. Second-class lever Correct answer.

Explanation

In plantarflexion during push-off, the talus acts as the fulcrum, body weight is the load, and the Achilles tendon supplies the effort between them, forming a second-class lever. Most limb movements are third-class levers, but this arrangement is a classic exception.

Question 15Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which structure forms the medial boundary of the anatomical snuffbox?

  1. Flexor carpi radialis tendon
  2. Extensor pollicis longus tendon Correct answer.
  3. Abductor pollicis longus tendon
  4. Extensor pollicis brevis tendon

Explanation

The anatomical snuffbox is bounded medially by the extensor pollicis longus tendon and laterally by the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons. The scaphoid and trapezium lie in its floor, making tenderness here clinically important.

Question 16Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

A patient cannot abduct the shoulder past 90 degrees and has pain in the lateral arm. Which muscle is most likely affected?

  1. Pectoralis major
  2. Latissimus dorsi
  3. Supraspinatus Correct answer.
  4. Teres major

Explanation

Supraspinatus initiates abduction in the first 15 degrees and, together with the deltoid, sustains abduction; its tendinopathy causes a painful arc and weakness. The axillary nerve supplies the deltoid, but the described pattern with a painful arc points to the rotator cuff.

Question 17Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle is the primary supinator of the forearm when the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees?

  1. Biceps brachii Correct answer.
  2. Pronator teres
  3. Flexor carpi ulnaris
  4. Brachioradialis

Explanation

The biceps brachii is a powerful supinator, especially with the elbow flexed, because its bicipital aponeurosis and radial tuberosity insertion give it a strong rotary moment. Supinator muscle assists in all positions.

Question 18Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which principle describes the relationship between muscle force, cross-sectional area, and joint angle?

  1. Starling's law
  2. Force-velocity relationship
  3. Length-tension relationship Correct answer.
  4. Henneman's size principle

Explanation

The length-tension relationship states that a muscle generates maximal active tension at an optimal sarcomere length where actin-myosin overlap is ideal. At shorter or longer lengths, active force declines due to reduced overlap or overstretching.

Question 19Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which of the following describes the normal carrying angle at the elbow?

  1. Cubitus varus
  2. Cubitus flexus
  3. Cubitus valgus Correct answer.
  4. Cubitus recurvatus

Explanation

With the elbow extended and the palm facing forward, the forearm deviates laterally, producing a slight valgus angulation known as the carrying angle. It allows the swinging arm to clear the hips during gait.

Question 20Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle is the main contributor to knee extension in the terminal 15 degrees of extension?

  1. Vastus medialis oblique Correct answer.
  2. Biceps femoris
  3. Semitendinosus
  4. Gastrocnemius

Explanation

The vastus medialis oblique is most active in the last 15 degrees of knee extension and helps maintain patellar tracking. Its weakness contributes to patellofemoral pain.

Question 21Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which spinal curvature is considered a normal primary curve?

  1. Sacral lordosis
  2. Thoracic kyphosis Correct answer.
  3. Cervical lordosis
  4. Lumbar lordosis

Explanation

Primary curves are present at birth and include thoracic kyphosis and sacral kyphosis. Cervical and lumbar lordoses are secondary curves that develop with head control and walking.

Question 22Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which joint movement is described as the sole of the foot turning toward the midline?

  1. Dorsiflexion
  2. Abduction
  3. Eversion
  4. Inversion Correct answer.

Explanation

Inversion tilts the sole of the foot medially, raising the lateral border. It is produced mainly by tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior and is essential for adapting to uneven terrain.

Question 23Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which structure is the primary stabilizer of the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?

  1. Long plantar ligament
  2. Deltoid ligament
  3. Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament Correct answer.
  4. Bifurcate ligament

Explanation

The plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament supports the head of the talus and is the key static stabilizer of the medial longitudinal arch, assisted by tibialis posterior dynamically. Its laxity contributes to flatfoot.

Question 24Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which type of joint movement occurs at the atlantoaxial joint?

  1. Abduction and adduction
  2. Rotation Correct answer.
  3. Circumduction
  4. Flexion and extension

Explanation

The atlantoaxial joint is a pivot joint between the atlas and the dens of the axis, allowing rotation of the head. Most cervical rotation (roughly half) occurs here.

Question 25Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle is the primary mover for shoulder external rotation?

  1. Infraspinatus Correct answer.
  2. Subscapularis
  3. Pectoralis major
  4. Teres major

Explanation

Infraspinatus is the main external rotator of the shoulder, with teres minor assisting. These muscles are part of the rotator cuff and provide dynamic glenohumeral stability.

Question 26Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which muscle is the primary flexor of the elbow when the forearm is in the supinated position?

  1. Brachioradialis
  2. Biceps brachii Correct answer.
  3. Brachialis
  4. Pronator teres

Explanation

The biceps brachii is a strong elbow flexor and is most effective when the forearm is supinated because its tendon inserts on the radial tuberosity. Brachialis is a pure flexor regardless of forearm position, but it is not the primary flexor in supination. Brachioradialis is most effective in midposition, and pronator teres is primarily a pronator.

Question 27Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

Which structure passes through the carpal tunnel?

  1. Ulnar nerve
  2. Radial artery
  3. Median nerve Correct answer.
  4. Ulnar artery

Explanation

The carpal tunnel is bounded by the flexor retinaculum and the carpal bones, and it transmits the median nerve along with the flexor tendons. The ulnar nerve and ulnar artery pass superficial to the retinaculum through Guyon's canal. The radial artery crosses the anatomical snuffbox and does not enter the carpal tunnel.

Question 28Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

A patient has weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, with sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and lateral leg. Which nerve is most likely affected?

  1. Deep fibular nerve
  2. Common fibular nerve Correct answer.
  3. Tibial nerve
  4. Superficial fibular nerve

Explanation

The common fibular nerve supplies both the deep and superficial fibular nerves, so a lesion produces combined dorsiflexion weakness (deep fibular) and eversion weakness (superficial fibular) with sensory loss in their territories. The tibial nerve is a plantar flexor and invertor. The superficial fibular nerve alone would not cause dorsiflexion weakness, and the deep fibular nerve alone would not cause eversion weakness.

Question 29Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

During normal quiet standing, what is the primary role of the soleus muscle?

  1. Postural control to prevent forward sway Correct answer.
  2. Plantar flexion during push-off
  3. Dorsiflexion to clear the toes
  4. Inversion to stabilize the arch

Explanation

In quiet standing, the soleus acts as a postural muscle, generating a plantar flexion torque that counters forward body sway at the ankle. It is not primarily responsible for push-off during gait, which involves a more forceful contraction. Dorsiflexion is produced by the tibialis anterior, and inversion is produced by the tibialis posterior and others.

Question 30Anatomy, Physiology and Biomechanics

A patient stands with the right foot on a scale and lifts the left foot off the floor. The reading on the scale increases. Which biomechanical principle best explains this observation?

  1. The center of mass shifts toward the stance limb, increasing the vertical ground reaction force under that foot Correct answer.
  2. The base of support widens, reducing the need for muscular stabilization
  3. The moment arm of the body weight about the ankle decreases, reducing the required muscle force
  4. The line of gravity moves outside the base of support, requiring a stepping strategy

Explanation

When one limb is lifted, the body's center of mass moves laterally over the stance limb to maintain balance within the reduced base of support. This shift increases the vertical ground reaction force measured under the stance foot. The base of support actually narrows, the moment arm about the ankle changes but does not explain the increased force, and the line of gravity remains within the base of support if balance is maintained.

Question 31Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Which finding on joint examination is most characteristic of an acute inflamed joint in rheumatoid arthritis?

  1. Soft tissue swelling with morning stiffness lasting over an hour Correct answer.
  2. Warm, swollen joint with preserved range of motion
  3. Bony hard swelling with crepitus on movement
  4. Pain reproduced only at the end range of passive movement

Explanation

Rheumatoid arthritis produces synovial inflammation with soft tissue swelling and prolonged morning stiffness, typically more than one hour. Bony hard swelling and crepitus point to osteoarthritis rather than synovitis.

Question 32Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

A patient with osteoarthritis of the knee typically reports which pattern of symptoms?

  1. Continuous night pain unrelieved by rest
  2. Pain that worsens with activity and eases with rest Correct answer.
  3. Symmetrical small joint swelling with fever
  4. Severe morning stiffness lasting two hours

Explanation

Osteoarthritis is a mechanical degenerative process, so pain is activity-related and improves with rest. Inflammatory features such as prolonged morning stiffness and systemic symptoms belong to other arthropathies.

Question 33Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

A patient reports sudden onset of low back pain radiating down the posterior thigh and calf with numbness on the lateral foot. Which structure is most likely involved?

  1. Obturator nerve
  2. L5 or S1 nerve root Correct answer.
  3. Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
  4. Femoral nerve

Explanation

Radicular pain radiating below the knee with dermatomal sensory loss follows a lumbosacral nerve root, most commonly L5 or S1 in disc herniation. The distribution along the posterior leg and lateral foot fits these roots.

Question 34Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Which clinical feature most strongly suggests that low back pain is due to a serious spinal pathology (red flag)?

  1. Pain relieved by lying supine
  2. Bilateral paraspinal muscle tenderness
  3. History of night pain with unexplained weight loss Correct answer.
  4. Pain that increases with prolonged standing

Explanation

Night pain with unexplained weight loss is a recognised red flag for malignancy or infection of the spine. Red flags warrant urgent medical referral rather than routine physiotherapy.

Question 35Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

A patient two days after a total hip replacement develops sudden calf pain, swelling, and warmth. What is the most appropriate physiotherapy action?

  1. Begin aggressive deep massage of the calf
  2. Start weight-bearing exercise to promote circulation
  3. Withhold treatment and refer urgently for medical assessment Correct answer.
  4. Apply heat and proceed with resisted exercise

Explanation

The findings suggest deep vein thrombosis, a potentially life-threatening complication after joint replacement. Physiotherapy must be withheld and urgent medical assessment arranged, since massage or exercise could dislodge a thrombus.

Question 36Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with stable chronic heart failure during exercise-based rehabilitation?

  1. Isometric resistance held to fatigue for the lower limbs
  2. Maximal-effort interval training without supervision
  3. Bed rest until ejection fraction normalises
  4. Supervised moderate-intensity aerobic exercise with monitoring of symptoms Correct answer.

Explanation

Supervised moderate-intensity aerobic training improves functional capacity in stable chronic heart failure. Exercise must be symptom-guided and monitored because of the risk of decompensation.

Question 37Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Which symptom pattern is typical of stable angina pectoris?

  1. Sharp pain worse on inspiration
  2. Continuous pain at rest lasting several hours
  3. Pain reproduced by palpation of the chest wall
  4. Chest tightness provoked by exertion and relieved by rest Correct answer.

Explanation

Stable angina produces exertional chest tightness that resolves with rest or nitrates because myocardial oxygen demand transiently exceeds supply. Pain lasting hours or occurring at rest suggests acute coronary syndrome.

Question 38Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught breathing techniques. Which approach is most appropriate?

  1. Breath-holding during all activities
  2. Pursed-lip breathing with a prolonged expiratory phase Correct answer.
  3. Supine breathing with the head flat
  4. Rapid shallow thoracic breathing

Explanation

Pursed-lip breathing prolongs expiration and helps prevent dynamic airway collapse in COPD, reducing breathlessness. Slow controlled expiration improves gas trapping.

Question 39Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Which finding suggests an acute exacerbation rather than stable disease in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

  1. Use of accessory muscles at rest on a stable day
  2. Increased sputum purulence with worsening breathlessness Correct answer.
  3. Barrel-shaped chest on inspection
  4. Chronic productive cough unchanged for years

Explanation

An exacerbation is defined by acute worsening of dyspnoea and sputum volume or purulence beyond the patient's baseline. Chronic cough, barrel chest, and accessory muscle use may all reflect stable disease.

Question 40Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

A patient with type 2 diabetes reports numbness and burning in both feet. Which complication does this suggest?

  1. Autonomic neuropathy
  2. Diabetic nephropathy
  3. Peripheral arterial disease
  4. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy Correct answer.

Explanation

Symmetric distal numbness and burning in a stocking distribution is the classic presentation of diabetic peripheral neuropathy. It increases the risk of foot ulceration and requires foot care education.

Question 41Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Why must a physiotherapist inspect the feet of a patient with diabetes before prescribing exercise?

  1. To assess joint hypermobility
  2. To detect skin lesions and loss of protective sensation Correct answer.
  3. To check for leg length discrepancy
  4. To measure lower limb muscle strength

Explanation

Reduced protective sensation allows unnoticed trauma that can progress to ulceration and infection. Foot inspection before exercise identifies lesions and areas at risk so they can be protected.

Question 42Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Which clinical sign is most consistent with an upper motor neuron lesion after stroke?

  1. Fasciculations in the affected limb
  2. Spasticity with hyperreflexia Correct answer.
  3. Hypotonia with absent tendon reflexes
  4. Distal sensory loss in a glove distribution

Explanation

Upper motor neuron lesions produce increased tone and exaggerated reflexes because cortical inhibition of the spinal reflex arc is lost. Flaccidity and absent reflexes indicate lower motor neuron damage.

Question 43Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

A patient has a right middle cerebral artery stroke. Which deficit is most likely?

  1. Truncal ataxia without limb weakness
  2. Left-sided hemiparesis and neglect Correct answer.
  3. Bilateral lower limb weakness
  4. Isolated cranial nerve palsy

Explanation

The middle cerebral artery supplies the lateral cortex, so a right-sided lesion causes contralateral left hemiparesis and often neglect. The face and arm are typically more affected than the leg.

Question 44Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

During early mobilisation after stroke, which safety measure is most important when the patient has hemianopia?

  1. Exercising only the unaffected side
  2. Guiding the patient to scan toward the affected visual field Correct answer.
  3. Restricting the patient to bed rest
  4. Increasing walking speed to build confidence

Explanation

Hemianopia causes the patient to miss obstacles on the affected side, increasing fall risk and collisions. Systematic visual scanning training compensates for the field loss during mobility.

Question 45Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Which feature distinguishes Parkinson's disease rigidity from spasticity?

  1. Rigidity is velocity-independent and affects both agonist and antagonist Correct answer.
  2. Rigidity appears only during voluntary contraction
  3. Rigidity is velocity-dependent and worsens with fast movement
  4. Rigidity is associated with hyperreflexia

Explanation

Parkinsonian rigidity is constant throughout passive movement and affects both muscle groups equally, producing a lead-pipe or cogwheel quality. Spasticity, by contrast, is velocity-dependent and predominates in antigravity muscles.

Question 46Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

A patient with Parkinson's disease freezes while walking through a doorway. Which strategy is most likely to help?

  1. Leaning backward while walking
  2. Using a rhythmic auditory cue to step Correct answer.
  3. Walking faster to overcome the block
  4. Lifting the toes while looking upward

Explanation

Freezing is an impairment of internal movement generation that can be overcome by external rhythmic cues. Auditory or visual cues provide a bypass for the defective basal ganglia loop.

Question 47Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Which finding in a patient with a complete spinal cord injury at T6 indicates autonomic dysreflexia?

  1. Sudden hypertension with headache and sweating above the lesion Correct answer.
  2. Progressive flaccid paralysis
  3. Bradycardia with hypothermia
  4. Gradual hypotension with pallor

Explanation

Autonomic dysreflexia occurs with lesions above T6 and presents with paroxysmal hypertension, pounding headache, and sweating or flushing above the lesion level. It is a medical emergency triggered by noxious stimuli such as bladder distension.

Question 48Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

A patient with a T4 complete spinal cord injury is being taught pressure relief. Which technique is most appropriate?

  1. Weight shifts or pressure lifts every 15 to 30 minutes Correct answer.
  2. Sleeping prone to offload the sacrum
  3. Static sitting for two hours without shifting
  4. Using a soft mattress without turning

Explanation

Regular pressure relief every 15 to 30 minutes while sitting prevents ischaemic damage to skin over the ischial tuberosities. The frequency reflects the loss of normal sensation and protective movement below the lesion.

Question 49Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Which symptom is most typical of an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis?

  1. Transient blurring of vision lasting seconds after exercise
  2. New or worsening neurological deficit lasting more than 24 hours Correct answer.
  3. Progressive joint stiffness over years
  4. Fever with productive cough

Explanation

An MS relapse is defined by new or worsening neurological symptoms lasting at least 24 hours in the absence of fever or infection. Transient heat-related worsening is a pseudoexacerbation, not a true relapse.

Question 50Pathology and Clinical Medicine Relevant to Physiotherapy

Why should exercise in multiple sclerosis be scheduled with attention to heat sensitivity?

  1. Heat permanently destroys myelin
  2. Rising body temperature can temporarily worsen conduction and symptoms Correct answer.
  3. Heat increases the risk of fractures
  4. Heat prevents muscle hypertrophy

Explanation

In demyelinated nerves, elevated temperature slows conduction and can transiently worsen symptoms, known as Uhthoff's phenomenon. Cooling strategies and timing exercise to avoid heat help maintain function.