AOBOS Orthopedics flashcards
AOBOS Orthopedics · Build recall with a focused review session.
32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- TART criteria
- TART stands for tissue texture change, asymmetry, restriction of motion, and tenderness; these four findings document somatic dysfunction on osteopathic examination.
- Fryette type II mechanics
- In Fryette type II non-neutral mechanics, a single vertebral segment sidebends and rotates to the same side; this pattern occurs in acute, non-neutral dysfunction.
- RANKL OPG ratio
- The RANKL/OPG ratio controls osteoclast differentiation; a high ratio favors bone resorption, while a low ratio favors osteoblast-mediated bone formation and reduced resorption.
- Delta compartment pressure
- Delta pressure equals diastolic blood pressure minus compartment pressure; a value below 30 mmHg suggests compartment syndrome and supports urgent fasciotomy when clinical findings are consistent.
- Gustilo-Anderson type IIIB
- A Gustilo-Anderson IIIB open fracture has extensive soft-tissue loss with inadequate bone coverage, requiring a local or free flap for soft-tissue reconstruction.
- Garden III femoral neck
- A Garden III femoral neck fracture is complete and partially displaced, with disrupted trabecular alignment; avascular necrosis risk is higher than in nondisplaced fractures.
- Weber C ankle fracture
- A Weber C ankle fracture occurs above the syndesmosis and implies syndesmotic disruption; it requires assessment of mortise stability and often syndesmotic fixation.
- Gartland type III
- A Gartland type III supracondylar humerus fracture is completely displaced with no cortical contact; it usually requires closed reduction and percutaneous pinning.
- Cup inclination target
- In total hip arthroplasty, acetabular cup inclination is typically targeted near 40 degrees, with a common acceptable range of 30 to 50 degrees to reduce dislocation and wear.
- Particle disease osteolysis
- Periprosthetic osteolysis is caused by wear particles activating macrophages, which release cytokines and activate osteoclasts, producing progressive bone loss around implants.
- Paprosky grade III
- Paprosky grade III acetabular defects show severe bone loss with component migration; reconstruction may require trabecular metal augments, cages, or structural grafts.
- Unicompartmental knee indication
- Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty is suitable for isolated medial compartment arthritis with a correctable deformity, intact cruciate ligaments, and preserved lateral compartment.
- Lachman test
- The Lachman test assesses anterior cruciate ligament integrity by applying anterior tibial translation with the knee flexed about 20 to 30 degrees; it is the most sensitive ACL test.
- Bankart lesion
- A Bankart lesion is an anteroinferior glenoid labral tear associated with anterior shoulder dislocation; it contributes to recurrent instability and is seen on MRI or arthroscopy.
- Outerbridge grade IV
- Outerbridge grade IV cartilage injury shows exposed subchondral bone with full-thickness cartilage loss; grade III shows deep fissures without exposed bone.
- Cam alpha angle
- A cam femoroacetabular impingement deformity is identified by an elevated alpha angle on imaging; the aspherical femoral head-neck junction causes labral and chondral damage.
- TLICS score
- The Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity score sums morphology, posterior ligamentous complex integrity, and neurologic status; scores above 4 generally favor operative treatment.
- Meyerding grade III
- Meyerding grade III spondylolisthesis indicates 51 to 75 percent anterior translation of one vertebra over the next; grade V is complete displacement or spondyloptosis.
- Cauda equina red flags
- Cauda equina syndrome warning signs include saddle anesthesia, bowel or bladder dysfunction, bilateral sciatica, and progressive motor weakness; urgent MRI is required.
- ASIA grade A
- ASIA grade A is a complete spinal cord injury with no sensory or motor function preserved in the sacral segments S4-S5; grades B through E are incomplete or normal.
- Carpal tunnel syndrome
- Carpal tunnel syndrome is median nerve compression at the wrist, causing nocturnal numbness, thenar weakness, and a positive Phalen or Tinel test; nerve conduction studies confirm.
- Scaphoid avascular necrosis
- Proximal pole scaphoid fractures have a retrograde blood supply, so avascular necrosis risk is highest proximally; MRI can detect occult fracture and ischemia.
- Dupuytren tabletop test
- The tabletop test is positive when a Dupuytren contracture prevents the hand from laying flat on a table; it indicates functional impairment and supports surgical referral.
- Bennett fracture
- A Bennett fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the thumb metacarpal base with a small volar fragment; the shaft is pulled proximally by the abductor pollicis longus.
- Thompson test
- The Thompson test assesses Achilles tendon rupture by squeezing the calf; absent plantarflexion indicates a complete rupture and supports urgent orthopedic evaluation.
- Lisfranc diastasis
- Lisfranc injury shows widening between the first and second metatarsal bases; weight-bearing radiographs or CT help detect subtle tarsometatarsal instability.
- Charcot rocker-bottom
- Charcot neuroarthropathy can cause midfoot collapse and a rocker-bottom foot in diabetes; warmth, redness, and swelling may mimic infection.
- Morton neuroma
- Morton neuroma is a symptomatic interdigital nerve thickening, most often in the third webspace, causing forefoot pain and a positive Mulder click.
- SCFE frog-leg view
- Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is best seen on a frog-leg lateral radiograph as posterior and medial displacement of the femoral head; obesity is a risk factor.
- Ortolani maneuver
- The Ortolani maneuver reduces a dislocated infant hip and detects developmental dysplasia; a palpable clunk indicates relocation of the femoral head.
- Osteosarcoma sunburst
- Osteosarcoma often arises in the metaphysis of the distal femur or proximal tibia and shows a sunburst periosteal reaction; lung metastases are common.
- Ewing translocation
- Ewing sarcoma is associated with the t(11;22) translocation producing EWSR1-FLI1; it typically affects the diaphysis and shows onion-skin periosteal reaction.