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ARRT MRI practice questions

One question at a time. Build your ARRT MRI understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

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Question 1Patient Care

What is the primary reason hearing protection is provided to every patient undergoing an MRI?

  1. To block radiofrequency energy from reaching the patient's head
  2. To reduce exposure to loud acoustic noise produced by rapid gradient coil switching Correct answer.
  3. To lessen the chance of vertigo caused by the static field
  4. To prevent the static magnetic field from affecting the inner ear

Explanation

Gradient coils vibrate when current is switched rapidly, generating noise that can exceed 100 dB and risk temporary or permanent hearing loss. Earplugs or headphones attenuate this acoustic hazard. The static field and RF energy are addressed by other safety practices, not by hearing protection.

Question 2Patient Care

During the pre-MRI screening interview, the technologist should specifically ask the patient about which of the following?

  1. Any surgically implanted devices, clips, or retained metallic fragments Correct answer.
  2. Family history of diabetes mellitus
  3. Preferred sleeping position
  4. Foods eaten in the previous 24 hours

Explanation

Ferromagnetic implants, aneurysm clips, and metallic foreign bodies can move or heat in the magnetic field and represent the most serious screening hazard. A structured interview focused on implanted and embedded materials is required before every examination. The other items do not affect magnetic safety.

Question 3Patient Care

A patient reports feeling mildly anxious about lying inside the scanner bore. What is the most appropriate first intervention?

  1. Tell the patient that anxiety is not a valid reason for concern
  2. Cancel the examination and reschedule it with general anesthesia
  3. Proceed quickly without explanation to shorten the time inside the bore
  4. Explain each step, provide a call device, and offer comfort measures such as a mirror or prism glasses Correct answer.

Explanation

Most mild claustrophobia responds to education, a sense of control such as a squeeze ball or call bell, and comfort aids that reduce the feeling of enclosure. Sedation or anesthesia is reserved for cases that do not respond to these measures. Dismissing or rushing the patient typically worsens anxiety.

Question 4Patient Care

How should a patient be positioned for a routine MRI of the lumbar spine?

  1. Prone with both arms extended above the head
  2. Supine, head first, with the lumbar region centered over the spine coil Correct answer.
  3. Left lateral decubitus with the knees flexed
  4. Seated upright in a dedicated scanner chair

Explanation

Routine lumbar spine imaging is performed supine with the region of interest positioned at isocenter over the appropriate coil elements. This gives consistent anatomy, good coil filling, and patient comfort. Prone or decubitus positions are reserved for specific clinical needs.

Question 5Patient Care

What is the purpose of the emergency quench button located in the MRI control area?

  1. To rapidly vent the cryogen and collapse the magnetic field in a life-threatening emergency Correct answer.
  2. To silence the acoustic noise alarm triggered by gradient vibration
  3. To stop the patient table from advancing into the bore
  4. To switch off the radiofrequency amplifiers during a scan

Explanation

Quenching rapidly boils off the liquid cryogens, which destroys superconductivity and collapses the field. It is reserved for genuine life-threatening situations such as a person pinned by a ferromagnetic object. Routine scanning problems are handled with ordinary stop and shutdown controls.

Question 6Patient Care

Before beginning any MRI examination, the technologist's first action should be to:

  1. Insert earplugs into the patient's ears
  2. Program the power injector flow rate
  3. Confirm the patient has changed into a gown
  4. Verify the patient's identity with two identifiers and match them to the requisition Correct answer.

Explanation

Correct patient identification using two independent identifiers must always precede any procedure or medication. This prevents wrong-patient examinations and wrong-site imaging. Gowning, injector setup, and hearing protection come afterward.

Question 7Patient Care

Which item must be removed from a patient before entering the magnet room?

  1. A hair clip made of ferromagnetic metal Correct answer.
  2. Cotton socks
  3. A hospital identification band
  4. Plastic-framed eyeglasses

Explanation

Ferromagnetic objects become projectiles in the fringe field of the magnet and must be removed before entry. Non-ferromagnetic items such as cotton clothing, plastic frames, and identification bands may generally stay. Screening for ferromagnetic material is the key decision point.

Question 8Patient Care

Which statement best describes the technologist's responsibility regarding consent before a gadolinium-enhanced MRI?

  1. Consent is unnecessary because gadolinium is not classified as a drug
  2. Consent is obtained from the patient only after the injection is complete
  3. Consent may be obtained by any relative over the telephone
  4. The technologist confirms the patient has been informed and has documented consent per institutional policy Correct answer.

Explanation

Contrast administration requires informed consent obtained under the facility's policy, and the technologist verifies that this has occurred before injecting. The patient must understand benefits, risks, and alternatives. Consent is never obtained retrospectively or from an unauthorized person.

Question 9Patient Care

A patient develops hives and itching shortly after gadolinium injection but has stable vital signs and no airway symptoms. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Stop the injection, monitor the patient, and notify the radiologist for antihistamine treatment Correct answer.
  2. Discharge the patient immediately without documentation
  3. Administer intramuscular epinephrine immediately
  4. Continue the examination and ignore the symptoms

Explanation

A mild cutaneous reaction without respiratory or hemodynamic involvement is managed by stopping further contrast, observing the patient, and giving antihistamines as directed by the radiologist. Epinephrine is reserved for anaphylaxis with airway or circulatory compromise. All reactions must be documented.

Question 10Patient Care

Which patient is at highest risk of developing nephrogenic systemic fibrosis after receiving a gadolinium-based agent?

  1. A 40-year-old with a seasonal pollen allergy
  2. A 25-year-old with well-controlled asthma
  3. A 30-year-old with normal renal function
  4. A 65-year-old on chronic hemodialysis with an eGFR of 12 mL/min/1.73 m² Correct answer.

Explanation

Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis is associated with severe renal impairment, particularly chronic dialysis patients and those with very low eGFR. Screening renal function and choosing an appropriate agent are essential in this group. Normal renal function and atopic conditions do not confer this risk.

Question 11Patient Care

A patient who is 22 weeks pregnant requires MRI for suspected appendicitis. Which statement reflects current practice?

  1. Gadolinium should be given routinely to improve diagnostic confidence
  2. MRI is absolutely contraindicated at every stage of pregnancy
  3. MRI should be postponed until after delivery regardless of clinical need
  4. MRI without gadolinium may be performed when the result will change clinical management Correct answer.

Explanation

Non-contrast MRI is generally considered acceptable in pregnancy when the diagnostic information is needed and cannot be obtained another way. Gadolinium is avoided unless clearly necessary because it crosses the placenta. Blanket prohibition or automatic deferral is not consistent with current guidance.

Question 12Patient Care

Why must ECG leads and pulse oximeter cables be positioned carefully during an MRI?

  1. They block the radiofrequency signal used for imaging
  2. Conductive loops can concentrate radiofrequency energy and cause skin burns Correct answer.
  3. They increase the static field strength at the patient's skin
  4. They can demagnetize the scanner's shim coils

Explanation

Cables that touch the patient and form a loop can act as an antenna and concentrate induced currents, producing serious burns. Leads should be kept straight, separated from the skin where possible, and routed per manufacturer guidance. The other options misstate the physical interaction.

Question 13Patient Care

Which change would most effectively reduce whole-body specific absorption rate during a fast spin-echo sequence?

  1. Increasing the number of slices acquired per repetition time
  2. Imaging with the body coil instead of a local receive coil
  3. Increasing the number of signal averages
  4. Reducing the flip angle and lengthening the repetition time Correct answer.

Explanation

Deposited RF power scales strongly with flip angle, and average SAR decreases when the same energy is spread over a longer repetition time. Reducing averages or slice count also lowers power, but the option lists increases. Transmitting with the large body coil deposits more power than a small local coil.

Question 14Patient Care

During a contrast-enhanced MRI, the technologist notices swelling and pain at the IV site. What should be done first?

  1. Stop the injection, assess the site, then elevate the extremity and apply a cold compress per protocol Correct answer.
  2. Remove the IV and send the patient home immediately
  3. Continue the injection at a reduced flow rate
  4. Flush the line with a large volume of saline to dilute the contrast

Explanation

Swelling and pain suggest extravasation, so the injection must stop immediately to limit the volume of contrast in the tissues. Standard management includes site assessment, limb elevation, cold compress, documentation, and physician notification. Continuing or flushing under pressure worsens tissue injury.

Question 15Patient Care

Which IV catheter size is generally preferred for a power-injected gadolinium bolus delivered at 3 mL/s?

  1. 24-gauge in the hand
  2. 20-gauge or larger in an antecubital vein Correct answer.
  3. 22-gauge in the foot
  4. 18-gauge in a small wrist vein

Explanation

Higher flow rates require adequate lumen size and a robust vein, and a 20-gauge or larger catheter in an antecubital vein is the usual choice. Small gauges or peripheral sites increase the risk of extravasation and pressure alarms. Site quality matters as much as gauge.

Question 16Patient Care

What is essential when monitoring a sedated pediatric patient during an MRI examination?

  1. Leaving the patient unobserved between sequences to reduce disturbance
  2. Continuous observation with pulse oximetry, capnography, and ECG monitored from outside the magnet room Correct answer.
  3. Turning off the intercom to reduce ambient noise
  4. Discontinuing pulse oximetry because it degrades image quality

Explanation

Sedated children require the same level of physiologic monitoring as any sedated patient, with MRI-compatible equipment and continuous visualization. MRI-compatible oximetry and capnography do not meaningfully degrade images when properly applied. Unmonitored time is the principal avoidable risk.

Question 17Patient Care

A patient reports having an older cardiac pacemaker that is not labeled MRI-conditional. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Scan only the head so that the device stays outside the field of view
  2. Place a magnet over the device to deactivate it and proceed with the scan
  3. Do not scan until the device is evaluated and the examination is cleared by the responsible physician with manufacturer guidance Correct answer.
  4. Scan anyway using a fast spin-echo sequence to limit exposure

Explanation

Non-conditional pacemakers carry risks of lead heating, induced currents, and unpredictable reprogramming in the magnetic field. Scanning requires documented device evaluation, a risk-benefit decision, and often device interrogation before and after. Field of view does not protect a device in the chest from the static and gradient fields.

Question 18Patient Care

If a fire breaks out in the magnet room, what is the correct sequence of actions?

  1. Quench the magnet before removing the patient
  2. Evacuate the patient, activate the alarm, and use a non-ferromagnetic extinguisher from outside the magnet room Correct answer.
  3. Use a water extinguisher on the scanner while remaining in the room
  4. Close the door and wait for the fire department without moving the patient

Explanation

Life safety comes first: remove the patient from the room, activate the alarm, and fight only a small fire with equipment that is safe near the magnet. Ferromagnetic extinguisher cylinders can become projectiles. Quenching does not extinguish a fire and delays evacuation.

Question 19Patient Care

Which approach best improves cooperation for a brain MRI in a 4-year-old child without sedation?

  1. Exclude the parent from the room to reduce distraction
  2. Increase the table speed to shorten the examination
  3. Use a practice session or mock scanner, allow a parent at the console, and offer comfort items Correct answer.
  4. Tell the child the scanner is a tunnel that must be entered without moving

Explanation

Preparation through play therapy, familiarization with the scanner, parental presence, and comfort objects reduces anxiety and motion in young children. Honest, age-appropriate explanation is more effective than frightening descriptions. Sedation is considered only if these measures fail.

Question 20Patient Care

A breastfeeding mother asks whether she must discard her milk after receiving gadolinium contrast. What is the appropriate response?

  1. She must switch the infant to formula for one week
  2. She must pump and discard all milk for 48 hours
  3. She may continue breastfeeding because the amount of agent excreted into milk is very small Correct answer.
  4. She must stop breastfeeding permanently

Explanation

The fraction of a gadolinium dose that reaches breast milk is extremely low and poorly absorbed by the infant's gut, so current guidance supports continued breastfeeding. Temporary interruption is optional rather than required. Cessation of breastfeeding is never indicated.

Question 21Patient Care

Peripheral nerve stimulation is most likely to occur under which conditions?

  1. Long repetition times combined with short echo times
  2. Use of a surface coil instead of a body coil for reception
  3. Rapid gradient switching with high dB/dt while the patient's limbs rest close to the gradient coils Correct answer.
  4. High receiver bandwidth settings on the console

Explanation

Rapidly changing magnetic fields induce electric fields in tissue, and nerves depolarize when the rate of change exceeds threshold. Higher slew rates and proximity of tissue to the gradient coils raise the risk. Repetition time, echo time, coil choice, and bandwidth do not directly drive nerve stimulation.

Question 22Patient Care

Why are macrocyclic gadolinium chelates often favored when concerns about gadolinium deposition exist?

  1. They contain no gadolinium ion at all
  2. They eliminate the need to screen renal function
  3. Their rigid ring structure resists dissociation and releases less free gadolinium Correct answer.
  4. They are cleared more slowly, which improves enhancement

Explanation

In macrocyclic agents the gadolinium is caged in a preorganized ring that is thermodynamically and kinetically more stable, so less free metal is released over time. Linear agents are more prone to dissociation. All gadolinium agents still require renal function screening.

Question 23Patient Care

Which factor most increases the acoustic noise produced during an MRI sequence?

  1. Increasing the receiver bandwidth
  2. Faster gradient switching with higher amplitude and shorter rise times Correct answer.
  3. Increasing the number of signal averages
  4. Using a larger field of view

Explanation

Noise arises from Lorentz forces on the gradient coil conductors, and the resulting vibration scales with gradient amplitude and how abruptly the current changes. Higher amplitude and shorter rise times mean greater acceleration of the coil structure. The other parameters alter acquisition time or sampling, not the vibratory force.

Question 24Patient Care

A patient with a documented moderate allergic reaction to a gadolinium agent needs a contrast-enhanced study. Which management approach is most appropriate?

  1. Double the dose to overcome the reaction
  2. Give the same agent at the usual dose without any preparation
  3. Consult the radiologist about premedication and consider a different agent with monitoring in place Correct answer.
  4. Cancel contrast permanently for this patient

Explanation

Prior moderate reactions warrant a risk-benefit discussion, a premedication regimen when appropriate, and consideration of an alternative agent, with readiness to treat a reaction. The decision is made by the radiologist after reviewing the documented history. Simply repeating the same exposure or abandoning contrast entirely are not the only options.

Question 25Patient Care

During a contrast-enhanced MRI, a patient becomes hypotensive with stridor and diffuse urticaria. What is the immediate priority?

  1. Give oral diphenhydramine and continue the examination
  2. Call for emergency assistance, stop the injection, and give intramuscular epinephrine per protocol Correct answer.
  3. Quench the magnet before providing any treatment
  4. Lower the patient's head and observe until symptoms resolve

Explanation

Stridor with hypotension after contrast indicates anaphylaxis, and intramuscular epinephrine is the first-line treatment that must not be delayed. Emergency help is summoned and the injection is stopped immediately. Antihistamines alone do not reverse airway or circulatory compromise.

Question 26Patient Care

In the ACR four-zone MR safety model, the boundary between Zone II and Zone III is best described as:

  1. the patient changing area
  2. the door of the magnet room itself
  3. the main entrance to the imaging department's waiting lobby
  4. a restricted access point staffed by MR personnel Correct answer.

Explanation

Zone III is a restricted area where ferromagnetic objects can pose a hazard, and its entry point must be controlled by MR personnel. Zone IV is the magnet room itself, so the magnet room door marks the Zone III-to-IV boundary rather than the Zone II-to-III boundary.

Question 27Patient Care

During an accidental helium quench, the most immediate life-threatening hazard inside the magnet room is:

  1. oxygen displacement by expanding helium gas Correct answer.
  2. release of infectious aerosols
  3. exposure to scattered ionizing radiation from the scanner
  4. a sudden rise in the ambient room temperature

Explanation

A quench vaporizes cryogen rapidly, and the expanding gas displaces oxygen in the room, creating an asphyxiation risk. Staff should evacuate the room and follow the facility's quench emergency plan.

Question 28Patient Care

Which combination provides the most effective acoustic protection for a patient during a loud sequence?

  1. fitted earplugs plus headphones Correct answer.
  2. a single pair of foam earplugs alone
  3. a blanket placed over the ears
  4. cotton balls alone

Explanation

Hearing protection is rated by noise reduction, and combining properly fitted earplugs with headphones gives greater attenuation than either alone. Headphones also allow the technologist to communicate with the patient.

Question 29Patient Care

The primary purpose of a ferromagnetic detection system at the entrance to Zone III is to:

  1. alert staff to ferromagnetic items screening may miss Correct answer.
  2. verify that the patient has removed all clothing
  3. measure patient weight before scanning
  4. record the patient's heart rate on entry

Explanation

Ferromagnetic detection systems are an adjunct to the spoken and written safety screening, flagging objects that the interview may not have identified. They do not replace a thorough patient history and physical screening.

Question 30Patient Care

A patient who requires supplemental oxygen needs to enter the magnet room. Which action is correct?

  1. Bring the standard steel cylinder and have a family member hold it
  2. Discontinue oxygen for the duration of the scan
  3. Substitute a steel cylinder labeled 'empty'
  4. Use an MR-conditional cylinder secured against movement Correct answer.

Explanation

Standard steel oxygen cylinders are strongly attracted and can become projectiles, so an MR-conditional cylinder must be used and secured. Oxygen delivery must be planned before the patient enters Zone IV.

Question 31Patient Care

A patient with an insulin pump arrives for a lumbar spine MRI. The most appropriate action is to:

  1. wrap the pump in a towel to shield it from the magnetic field
  2. leave the pump in place but program a temporary basal rate
  3. remove the pump; reconnect after the patient leaves Zone IV Correct answer.
  4. place the pump on the patient's opposite side from the coil

Explanation

Insulin pumps are generally not MR-safe and may malfunction or be damaged by the magnetic field, so they are removed before entry into Zone IV. Removal requires coordination with the patient's diabetes management plan and glucose monitoring.

Question 32Patient Care

Between patients, the minimum appropriate practice for reusable RF coils is to:

  1. spray them with the same disinfectant used on the floor
  2. clean and disinfect per the manufacturer's instructions Correct answer.
  3. wipe them with a dry paper towel only
  4. expose them to UV light for one minute

Explanation

Reusable coils are patient-contact items and must be cleaned and disinfected using the manufacturer's validated instructions and the facility's infection-control policy. Using incompatible agents can damage coil housing and electronics.

Question 33Patient Care

A patient becomes unresponsive in the magnet room during scanning. The correct first priority is to:

  1. remove the patient from Zone IV, then begin resuscitation Correct answer.
  2. begin chest compressions inside the magnet bore
  3. complete the sequence so images are not lost
  4. call a code and wait for the code team to enter Zone IV

Explanation

Resuscitation inside the magnet room exposes the patient and responders to the static field and is unsafe, so the patient is moved to a designated safe area before resuscitation begins. The facility's emergency plan should specify this sequence in advance.

Question 34Patient Care

A patient who grinds metal without eye protection reports no known implants. The technologist should:

  1. place a wet cloth over the eyes during scanning
  2. ask about prior ocular metal exposure and image if indicated Correct answer.
  3. cancel the exam permanently
  4. proceed, because metal workers cannot have retained fragments

Explanation

Occupational metal exposure raises concern for a retained intraocular foreign body, which could move or heat in the magnetic field. If history is positive or uncertain, screening radiographs or CT are obtained before MRI.

Question 35Patient Care

A patient has an intracranial aneurysm clip. The safest determination of eligibility for MRI is based on:

  1. written proof the clip is safe at the planned field strength Correct answer.
  2. the absence of symptoms since surgery
  3. the patient's recollection that the clip was 'titanium'
  4. the shape of the clip on a prior CT

Explanation

Only documentation identifying the specific clip as MR-safe or MR-conditional at the planned field strength is acceptable. When the clip cannot be identified, the examination is not performed until the information is verified.

Question 36Patient Care

During scanning, a patient with a large dark tattoo reports a warm, prickly sensation at the tattoo. The technologist should:

  1. apply an ice pack directly to the tattoo during scanning
  2. stop the scan and assess the site Correct answer.
  3. increase the receiver bandwidth and continue
  4. reassure the patient and continue

Explanation

Tattoo inks may contain metallic pigments that can concentrate radiofrequency energy and cause heating. Scanning is stopped so the site can be examined, and continuation is decided after assessment and possible sequence modification.

Question 37Patient Care

A patient wearing a transdermal patch with a metallic backing is scheduled for MRI. The technologist should:

  1. tape the patch down firmly and scan
  2. ignore the patch because transdermal drugs are not metallic
  3. remove the patch per prescribing instructions Correct answer.
  4. place a second patch on the opposite side before scanning

Explanation

Some transdermal patches contain metallic foil or components that can heat and cause burns during scanning. The patch is removed before the examination, with the patient's prescriber or care team guiding replacement.

Question 38Patient Care

To reduce the risk of RF-induced burns from a conductive loop, the patient should be positioned with:

  1. the legs crossed at the ankles
  2. the hands clasped together over the abdomen
  3. the arms and legs kept apart Correct answer.
  4. the arms crossed over the chest

Explanation

When conductive body surfaces touch, they can form a closed loop that concentrates radiofrequency current and produces a burn. Keeping the arms and legs separated avoids these loops and is a routine positioning precaution.

Question 39Patient Care

An anxious adult with severe claustrophobia needs a brain MRI. Which strategy is most likely to allow completion without sedation?

  1. coils placed tightly around the face
  2. a longer sequence with increased noise
  3. feet-first positioning with a mirror Correct answer.
  4. head-first supine positioning with eyes closed

Explanation

Feet-first positioning reduces the sensation of enclosure, and a mirror lets the patient see out of the bore, which decreases anxiety. Support persons, reassurance, and a call device further improve tolerance.

Question 40Patient Care

A deaf patient who uses American Sign Language arrives for an MRI. The best approach to obtain informed consent and safety screening is to:

  1. write all questions on paper and proceed without an interpreter
  2. arrange a qualified sign language interpreter Correct answer.
  3. rely on lip reading
  4. ask a family member to interpret

Explanation

Effective communication for consent and safety screening requires a qualified interpreter, in person or by video, so the patient fully understands the questions. Family members may lack medical vocabulary and may not convey sensitive information accurately.

Question 41Patient Care

To help a healthy 3-month-old complete a brain MRI without sedation, the technologist should:

  1. schedule around feed and nap times with swaddling Correct answer.
  2. keep the infant awake for 6 hours before the exam
  3. place the infant prone on the table without monitoring
  4. use earplugs only and no other comfort measures

Explanation

Infants often settle after a feed and during a normal nap period, and swaddling with a monitored immobilizer improves cooperation. Physiologic monitoring and hearing protection are maintained throughout.

Question 42Patient Care

A patient with unsteady gait needs to move from a wheelchair to the MRI table. The technologist should:

  1. lift the patient alone to save time
  2. ask the patient to use the table as support and climb up independently
  3. allow the patient to walk unaided
  4. use a gait belt and appropriate assistance or lift equipment Correct answer.

Explanation

Patients with impaired balance require a fall-risk assessment and assisted transfer with a gait belt or mechanical lift as needed. Preventing a fall protects both the patient and staff.

Question 43Patient Care

A patient with type 2 diabetes taking metformin has an eGFR of 75 and is scheduled for a gadolinium-enhanced MRI. Current guidance is to:

  1. switch to an iodinated agent instead
  2. cancel the study
  3. continue metformin without interruption Correct answer.
  4. withhold metformin for 48 hours before and after contrast

Explanation

Metformin-related concerns arise mainly when gadolinium precipitates acute kidney injury with lactic acidosis, so routine interruption is not required when renal function is normal. Patients with reduced eGFR need individualized review.

Question 44Patient Care

A patient with sickle cell disease is scheduled for a lengthy MRI. Which precaution is most appropriate?

  1. keep the patient NPO for 12 hours before scanning
  2. cool the room to 16 degrees Celsius
  3. hydration, warmth, and avoidance of hypoxia Correct answer.
  4. withhold all pain medication

Explanation

Dehydration, cold, and hypoxia can precipitate sickling and a painful crisis, so these are avoided during a long examination. The care team should be involved in planning and monitoring.

Question 45Patient Care

Before scanning a patient who weighs 190 kg, the technologist should first:

  1. ask the patient to stand during the scan
  2. reduce the SAR by turning off all monitoring
  3. use a standard coil regardless of fit
  4. verify the table weight limit and bariatric equipment Correct answer.

Explanation

Patient tables have weight limits, and exceeding them risks equipment damage and patient injury. Bariatric transfer equipment and appropriately sized coils should be arranged before the patient is moved.

Question 46Patient Care

A patient has an MR-conditional cardiac device. Which condition must be verified before scanning?

  1. the device battery has been fully charged before arrival
  2. the patient has never previously undergone an MRI examination
  3. the device has been implanted for at least twelve months without complication
  4. device, leads, field strength, and SAR limits match the labeled conditions Correct answer.

Explanation

MR-conditional status applies only within the specific conditions stated in the labeling, including device and lead model, field strength, and SAR limits. Scanning outside those conditions is treated as unsafe unless the facility has an approved protocol.

Question 47Patient Care

A patient with an implanted spinal cord stimulator is scheduled for MRI. The correct approach is to:

  1. place a magnet over the generator during scanning
  2. scan without precautions because stimulators are nonferromagnetic
  3. turn it off and leave the programming remote in the patient's hand
  4. confirm MR-conditional status and turn it off as directed Correct answer.

Explanation

Spinal cord stimulators can concentrate radiofrequency energy at the leads, so scanning requires documented MR-conditional status and deactivation per the manufacturer. The programming remote is a ferromagnetic object that must stay outside Zone IV.

Question 48Patient Care

The magnet room's quench button should be:

  1. inside the magnet room, within reach of the patient table
  2. outside the magnet room at a marked, accessible location Correct answer.
  3. kept in a locked cabinet to prevent accidental activation
  4. installed only on the control console keyboard outside the room

Explanation

The quench control is intentionally placed outside Zone IV so staff can activate it without entering a room filling with cryogenic gas. Its location and operation are covered in staff orientation and emergency drills.

Question 49Patient Care

A patient reports an external fixator of unknown composition. The technologist should:

  1. scan at a lower field strength to be safe
  2. scan immediately because external hardware is always nonferromagnetic
  3. verify the device's MR status before scanning Correct answer.
  4. wrap the fixator in a towel and proceed

Explanation

Any implanted or external device of unknown MR status is treated as unsafe until its labeling is confirmed. The examination proceeds only after documentation shows the device is MR-safe or MR-conditional for the planned conditions.

Question 50Patient Care

A patient requests a warm blanket during a long scan. The safest approach is to:

  1. use a standard electric heating pad under the patient
  2. use an MR-safe blanket, not electric heating pads Correct answer.
  3. place a metallic space blanket over the patient
  4. use a hot water bottle with a metal cap

Explanation

Electric heating pads and metallic items can couple with radiofrequency energy and cause burns, so only MR-safe linens and blankets are used in Zone IV. Warming should be provided without introducing conductive or ferromagnetic materials.