A2 Key for Schools cheat sheet

The paper lasts 70 minutes and contains 7 parts; Parts 1–5 are reading tasks, Parts 6–7 are writing tasks, and all answers go on the answer sheet.

Part 1: six short texts (signs, notices, messages, emails) each followed by a three-option multiple-choice question; choose the option that matches the text's meaning.

Part 2: three short texts on one topic, then seven questions; each question matches to text A, B, or C, and some texts are used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions; questions follow the order of the text.

Part 4: a short text with six gaps, each answered by choosing one word from three options; the tested words are grammar words such as prepositions, pronouns, and verb forms.

Part 5: a short text with six open gaps; write exactly one word per gap, usually a grammar word or a word from a small closed set, not a content word.

Part 6: write a short email or message of about 25 words using three given notes; all three notes must be covered and the word limit respected.

Part 7: write a short story of about 35 words based on three given pictures; include what happens in each picture and link the events.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5: a correct word spelled wrongly scores zero, and answers written in capitals are accepted.

The paper lasts about 30 minutes and contains 5 parts with 25 questions in total; each recording is heard twice.

Part 1: five short dialogues or monologues, each with a three-picture multiple-choice question; the pictures differ in one detail such as time, place, or object.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase, and spelling of common words must be correct.

Part 3: five short dialogues, each with a three-option multiple-choice question about the reason, feeling, or opinion expressed.

Part 4: five short monologues or dialogues matched to eight options; five options are used and three are distractors.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, matching what is heard to a word or short phrase such as a name, day, or price.

Numbers, times, and prices are frequently tested; write digits where the answer is a number, and listen for corrections such as 'actually' or 'no, sorry'.

Distractors are common: a speaker may mention one option and then reject it, so the answer is the option finally confirmed.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks with the candidates and the other only listens and scores.

The test lasts 8–10 minutes and has two parts: Part 1 is an interview, Part 2 is a collaborative task followed by discussion questions.

Part 1: the examiner asks each candidate about daily life, school, hobbies, and past or future plans; answers of one or two full sentences are expected.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates look at a picture prompt and talk to each other about it for about 2 minutes, describing, suggesting, and asking each other questions.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks questions such as 'Do you like...?' or 'What do you think...?' to each candidate in turn; give a reason with each opinion.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication; marks are for communicating meaning, not for perfect accuracy.

Interactive communication is scored: ask your partner questions, respond to what they say, and avoid long silences or one-word answers.

Part 1 texts include signs, notices, text messages, and short emails; the question asks what the writer wants to say or where the text would be seen.

Part 4 and Part 5 gaps test the same grammar areas: articles, prepositions, pronouns, comparatives, and verb tenses.

Part 6 email structure: greeting, one or two sentences covering the notes, and a closing; the three notes are prompts, not sentences to copy.

Part 7 story structure: set the scene, describe the main action, and give an ending; use past simple and past continuous with linking words such as 'then' and 'after that'.

Marking of Parts 6 and 7 focuses on content coverage and clear communication; a short text that covers all notes scores better than a long text that misses one.

In multiple-choice reading parts, eliminate options that are true but not stated in the text; the correct option must be supported by the text.

Timing guide: spend about 30 minutes on Parts 1–5 and about 40 minutes on Parts 6–7, including checking spelling.

Before each recording starts, read the question and options so you know which detail to listen for.

Part 2 gaps are answered with words heard in the recording; the answer is usually a noun, a number, or a day, not a full sentence.

Part 4 matching: read all eight options first, then match as you listen; the order of the options does not follow the order of the recording.

Names and places in Part 5 are often spelled out letter by letter; write the letters as you hear them.

Watch for negation: 'I don't want the red one' rules out an option even though the word is heard.

The second listening is for checking, not for first-time answers; write an answer during the first listening and confirm it during the second.

Transfer answers to the answer sheet carefully; a misspelt word in a gap-fill answer is marked wrong.

Part 1 question types: 'Where do you live?', 'What do you do at the weekend?', 'Tell me about your last holiday'; answer in full sentences, not single words.

Part 2 picture task: describe what you see, say what the people are doing, and ask your partner 'What about you?' or 'Do you think...?' to keep the interaction going.

Useful functions for the collaborative task: suggesting ('Shall we talk about...?'), agreeing ('Good idea'), disagreeing politely ('Maybe, but...'), and asking for opinion.

Phase 2 questions often ask for preferences and reasons; the pattern 'I prefer X because...' answers both parts.

Pronunciation is scored on being understood, not on accent; speak clearly and at a natural speed rather than fast.

If you do not understand, ask the examiner to repeat the question; this is allowed and does not lose marks.

Do not dominate the collaborative task: give your partner time to speak and respond to their ideas.

Part 2 matching strategy: read the seven questions first, then scan each text for the key words in the question; the same text can answer two questions.

Part 3 questions are in text order, so the answer to question 2 appears after the answer to question 1 in the text.

In Part 5, read the whole sentence before and after the gap; the missing word is decided by the grammar of the whole clause, not just the words next to the gap.

Common Part 5 answers include 'the', 'a', 'to', 'in', 'of', 'and', 'but', 'he', 'they', 'is', 'was', and 'not'.

Word limits are strict: Part 6 about 25 words and Part 7 about 35 words; going far over the limit risks losing marks for relevance.

Write the answer to every question; there is no penalty for a wrong answer in the multiple-choice parts, so never leave a blank.

Part 1 pictures often differ by one detail: a time on a clock, a number of objects, or a means of transport; identify the difference before listening.

Part 3 questions ask about feelings and reasons ('Why is the girl worried?'); listen for adjectives and 'because' clauses.

Part 5 answers are often prices, times, dates, or names; write numbers as digits and dates in the form heard.

If a speaker self-corrects ('at six... no, half past six'), the corrected information is the answer.

In Part 4, options describe jobs, hobbies, or places; the correct option matches what the speaker actually does, not what they mention in passing.

Leave no blank answers: an unanswered gap scores zero, while a reasonable guess may score.

The examiner's script is fixed, so the questions in Part 1 are predictable; prepare full-sentence answers about home, school, free time, and holidays.

In the picture task, describe the scene first (place, people, weather), then move to actions and opinions.

Interactive communication marks come from turn-taking: ask at least two questions to your partner during the collaborative task.

Grammar range for a good mark includes present simple, present continuous, past simple, 'going to' for plans, and comparatives.

Vocabulary topics that recur: food, travel, school subjects, sports, weather, and daily routines.

Speak to your partner, not to the examiner, during the collaborative task; the examiner only listens at that stage.

Part 1 sign texts often use imperatives and short forms ('No entry', 'Keep this door closed'); the question asks for the meaning, not the exact words.

Part 4 options are all grammatically possible in isolation; the correct one fits the grammar of the surrounding sentence, so read the whole sentence.

Part 6 notes are usually three prompts such as 'say sorry', 'say why', 'suggest a time'; each note needs one clear sentence.

Part 7 pictures show a sequence; use time markers ('One day', 'Then', 'In the end') to show the order of events.

Check subject–verb agreement and plural endings in written answers; these are common errors that affect the mark.

In Parts 6 and 7, write on the lines provided and keep handwriting legible; unclear spelling is marked wrong.

Each recording is played twice with a pause before and after; use the pause before to read ahead to the next question.

Part 2 and Part 5 answers must be spelled correctly; common words such as 'Friday', 'library', and 'station' are frequent answers.

Numbers over 20 and prices such as '£4.50' are tested; write the number, not the word, when the answer is numerical.

Listen for the speaker's final decision: 'I'll take the blue one' after discussing red and green gives the answer.

Part 4 has eight options for five questions; three options are never used, so do not force a match.

If you miss an answer, move on immediately to the next question; the recording does not stop.

Part 1 lasts about 3–4 minutes and covers both candidates; each candidate answers several questions in turn.

The collaborative task lasts about 2 minutes; both candidates must speak, and the examiner may prompt if one is silent.

Phase 2 questions are directed at individual candidates and ask for opinions about the topic of the picture; give a reason with each answer.

Use fillers such as 'Well', 'Let me think', and 'I'm not sure' to keep speaking while you think; silence loses marks.

Vocabulary is scored on range and appropriacy; use topic words rather than general words such as 'good' or 'nice'.

Grammar is scored on simple forms used correctly; a correct simple sentence scores better than a broken complex one.

Part 1 texts are short and self-contained; the correct option restates the meaning, so do not choose an option just because it repeats a word from the text.

Part 2 texts are labelled A, B, and C; write the letter on the answer sheet, and one text may be the answer for more than one question.

Part 3: read the questions before the text to know which information to look for, then read the text in detail.

Part 5 has exactly six gaps and one word per gap; two-word answers are marked wrong even if the meaning is right.

Part 6 must be an email or message, not a story; include a greeting and a closing to fit the task type.

Part 7 must be a story, not a description; it needs a sequence of events, not just a picture description.

Part 1 questions are often 'What time...?', 'Where...?', or 'Which...?'; the answer is one of three pictures, so identify the category before listening.

Part 3 tests the speaker's attitude: 'excited', 'bored', 'worried', 'surprised'; listen for tone words and reasons.

Part 4 speakers describe what they do, when, and where; match the option that fits all the details, not just one.

Part 5 dialogue often involves booking or arranging; answers include days, times, names, and prices.

The recording is heard twice, so a missed answer can be caught on the second listening; keep your place on the answer sheet.

Write answers in the gaps as you listen; waiting until the end risks losing details.

The examiner asks both candidates the same type of question in turn; listen to your partner's answer so you do not repeat it.

In the collaborative task, use the picture to suggest topics: 'Shall we talk about the food?' and respond to your partner's suggestions.

Phase 2 answers should be two or three sentences: opinion, reason, and an example or detail.

Common phase 2 questions: 'Do you like...?', 'Would you like to...?', 'What do you think about...?'; answer with 'Yes, because...' or 'No, I prefer...'.

Pronunciation: word stress matters, e.g. 'hoTEL', 'BEAUtiful'; unclear stress can make a word hard to understand.

Do not read from notes; the test is a conversation, and reading aloud lowers the interactive communication mark.

The pass boundary is around 70% of the total marks across all three papers; Reading and Writing is weighted equally with Listening and Speaking.

Each correct answer in Parts 1–5 scores one mark; Parts 6 and 7 are marked against content and language criteria.

In Parts 6 and 7, content marks are lost if a note or picture is not covered, even when the language is accurate.

Language marks in writing consider grammar, vocabulary, and spelling; short simple sentences with errors score lower than accurate simple sentences.

Answers must be written in the spaces on the answer sheet; answers in the question booklet are not marked.

Use the time at the end to check spelling and grammar in the writing parts, where errors are most costly.

The paper has 25 questions and lasts about 30 minutes including transfer time; each part has five questions.

Part 1 and Part 3 are multiple choice with three options; Parts 2 and 5 are gap-fill; Part 4 is matching.

Spelling of gap-fill answers must be correct; a word that is recognisable but misspelt scores zero.

Answers to gap-fill questions are usually one or two words; do not write full sentences.

The recording is not paused between questions except for the built-in pauses; write as you listen.

Check that the answer fits the grammar of the gap: a gap after 'on' needs a day or date, not a time.

The test has two examiners: one interacts and one assesses; the assessing examiner does not speak, so do not wait for them to ask questions.

Part 1 topics include name, age, school, family, hobbies, and last holiday; prepare short answers for each.

Part 2 phase 1 is a discussion between candidates, not a monologue; both must contribute for about 2 minutes.

Phase 2 questions test the ability to give and justify opinions; 'because' clauses are essential for a good mark.

Interactive communication includes initiating, responding, and developing the conversation; asking your partner a question counts.

If your partner is silent, ask them a direct question; this improves both candidates' interaction marks.

Part 1 question stems ask 'What does the writer want to say?' or 'Where would you see this text?'; the answer is the option that matches the purpose.

Part 2 questions ask about details such as price, time, or activity; scan the three texts for the exact detail, not the general topic.

Part 3 questions test detail, inference, and the writer's opinion; the answer is supported by a specific sentence in the text.

Part 4 tests grammar words in context; read the sentence before and after the gap to decide the word class needed.

Part 5 answers are single words; if two words seem possible, choose the one that fits the grammar of the sentence.

In Parts 6 and 7, write in complete sentences; fragments and lists do not communicate the message clearly.

Part 1 pictures may show the same object in different quantities or colours; listen for the exact detail, not the general topic.

Part 2 gap-fill answers are often nouns such as 'garden', 'museum', 'bicycle'; listen for the word that completes the phrase.

Part 3 questions ask 'How does the girl feel?' or 'Why does the boy say...?'; the answer is the emotion or reason, not the event.

Part 4 matching options may be jobs, sports, or places; the speaker may mention two options, so listen for the one they choose.

Part 5 dialogue often includes a correction: the first number or time heard may be changed later.

Transfer answers to the answer sheet during the 6 minutes given at the end of the paper.

Part 1 lasts about 3–4 minutes; the examiner asks about daily life, and candidates answer in turn.

The collaborative task has two phases: phase 1 is candidate-to-candidate discussion of a picture, phase 2 is examiner-led questions.

Phase 2 questions often ask 'Would you like to...?' or 'Do you prefer A or B?'; answer and give a reason.

Use a range of tenses: present simple for routines, past simple for last holiday, 'going to' for plans.

Interactive communication is scored on responding to your partner and keeping the conversation going, not on accuracy alone.

Speak clearly and do not cover your mouth; the assessing examiner must hear you to score pronunciation.

Part 1 has six questions; each text is short and the three options differ in meaning, so read all three before choosing.

Part 2 has seven questions and three texts; write the letter of the text that answers each question.

Part 3 has five questions with four options each; the questions follow the order of the text.

Part 4 has six gaps with three options each; the options are the same word class, so the grammar of the sentence decides.

Part 5 has six gaps with one word each; the answer is a grammar word or a very common word, not a content word from the text.

Part 6 requires about 25 words; Part 7 requires about 35 words; both are marked for content and language.

The paper has five parts and 25 questions; each recording is heard twice.

Part 1: three-picture multiple choice; the pictures differ in one detail, so identify the difference before listening.

Part 2: gap-fill with five gaps; write a word, number, or short phrase, and spell it correctly.

Part 3: three-option multiple choice on reasons and feelings; listen for 'because' and emotion words.

Part 4: matching five questions to eight options; three options are not used.

Part 5: gap-fill with five gaps in a longer dialogue; answers are often names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in Parts 2 and 5; write clearly.

The test lasts 8–10 minutes and has two parts; it is taken with another candidate and two examiners.

Part 1: the examiner asks each candidate questions about themselves, their school, and their free time.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes, describing and giving opinions.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons for opinions.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Answer in full sentences and ask your partner questions to keep the interaction going.

Part 1 texts include signs, notices, messages, and emails; the question asks for the meaning or the place where the text would appear.

Part 2 questions are matched to three texts; one text may answer more than one question.

Part 3 is a longer text with five four-option questions; the questions follow the order of the text.

Part 4 is a text with six gaps and three options per gap; the tested words are grammar words.

Part 5 is a text with six gaps and one word per gap; the answer is a single word.

Part 6 is an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes; Part 7 is a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

The paper lasts about 30 minutes and has 25 questions in five parts; each recording is heard twice.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

The paper lasts 70 minutes and has seven parts; Parts 1–5 are reading and Parts 6–7 are writing.

Part 1: six short texts with three-option multiple-choice questions on meaning.

Part 2: three texts and seven matching questions; a text may be used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions in text order.

Part 4: six gaps with three options each, testing grammar words.

Part 5: six open gaps with one word each, usually a grammar word.

Part 6: an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes; Part 7: a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

The paper lasts about 30 minutes and has five parts with 25 questions; each recording is heard twice.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

Part 1: six short texts with three-option multiple-choice questions on meaning.

Part 2: three texts and seven matching questions; a text may be used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions in text order.

Part 4: six gaps with three options each, testing grammar words.

Part 5: six open gaps with one word each, usually a grammar word.

Part 6: an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes.

Part 7: a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

Each recording is heard twice; write answers during the first listening and check during the second.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.

Part 1: six short texts with three-option multiple-choice questions on meaning.

Part 2: three texts and seven matching questions; a text may be used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions in text order.

Part 4: six gaps with three options each, testing grammar words.

Part 5: six open gaps with one word each, usually a grammar word.

Part 6: an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes; Part 7: a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

Each recording is heard twice; write answers during the first listening and check during the second.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.

Part 1: six short texts with three-option multiple-choice questions on meaning.

Part 2: three texts and seven matching questions; a text may be used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions in text order.

Part 4: six gaps with three options each, testing grammar words.

Part 5: six open gaps with one word each, usually a grammar word.

Part 6: an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes; Part 7: a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

Each recording is heard twice; write answers during the first listening and check during the second.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.

Part 1: six short texts with three-option multiple-choice questions on meaning.

Part 2: three texts and seven matching questions; a text may be used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions in text order.

Part 4: six gaps with three options each, testing grammar words.

Part 5: six open gaps with one word each, usually a grammar word.

Part 6: an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes; Part 7: a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

Each recording is heard twice; write answers during the first listening and check during the second.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.

Part 1: six short texts with three-option multiple-choice questions on meaning.

Part 2: three texts and seven matching questions; a text may be used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions in text order.

Part 4: six gaps with three options each, testing grammar words.

Part 5: six open gaps with one word each, usually a grammar word.

Part 6: an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes; Part 7: a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

Each recording is heard twice; write answers during the first listening and check during the second.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.

Part 1: six short texts with three-option multiple-choice questions on meaning.

Part 2: three texts and seven matching questions; a text may be used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions in text order.

Part 4: six gaps with three options each, testing grammar words.

Part 5: six open gaps with one word each, usually a grammar word.

Part 6: an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes; Part 7: a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

Each recording is heard twice; write answers during the first listening and check during the second.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.

Part 1: six short texts with three-option multiple-choice questions on meaning.

Part 2: three texts and seven matching questions; a text may be used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions in text order.

Part 4: six gaps with three options each, testing grammar words.

Part 5: six open gaps with one word each, usually a grammar word.

Part 6: an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes; Part 7: a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

Each recording is heard twice; write answers during the first listening and check during the second.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.

Part 1: six short texts with three-option multiple-choice questions on meaning.

Part 2: three texts and seven matching questions; a text may be used more than once.

Part 3: one longer text with five four-option multiple-choice questions in text order.

Part 4: six gaps with three options each, testing grammar words.

Part 5: six open gaps with one word each, usually a grammar word.

Part 6: an email or message of about 25 words covering three notes; Part 7: a story of about 35 words based on three pictures.

Spelling must be exact in Parts 1–5; a misspelt word scores zero.

Part 1: five three-picture multiple-choice questions on short dialogues or monologues.

Part 2: one longer recording with five gaps to fill; write a word, number, or short phrase.

Part 3: five three-option multiple-choice questions on short dialogues, testing reasons and feelings.

Part 4: five questions matched to eight options; five options are used and three are not.

Part 5: one longer dialogue with five gaps to complete, often with names, days, times, or prices.

Spelling and number accuracy decide the mark in gap-fill parts.

Each recording is heard twice; write answers during the first listening and check during the second.

Part 1: an interview of about 3–4 minutes covering daily life, school, hobbies, and plans.

Part 2 phase 1: candidates discuss a picture together for about 2 minutes.

Part 2 phase 2: the examiner asks each candidate questions about the picture topic; give reasons.

Assessment covers grammar and vocabulary, pronunciation, and interactive communication.

Ask your partner questions and respond to their ideas; silence and one-word answers lose marks.

The test is taken with two candidates and two examiners; one examiner speaks and one only listens and scores.