B2 First for Schools study materials
B2 First for Schools study resources

B2 First for Schools cheat sheet

B2 First for Schools · Keep the key ideas within reach.

Quick reference

Reading and Use of English

  • The paper lasts 75 minutes and contains 7 parts; Parts 1-4 are Use of English (52 marks), Parts 5-7 are Reading (42 marks).

  • Part 1 (Multiple-choice cloze): 8 gaps, 4 options each; test collocation, fixed phrases, phrasal verbs, and grammatical patterns rather than single-word meaning alone.

  • Part 2 (Open cloze): 8 gaps, one word per gap; typical answers are articles, prepositions, pronouns, auxiliaries, comparatives, and linkers such as 'although' or 'unless'.

  • Part 3 (Word formation): 8 gaps; the stem word must be changed in form (prefix and/or suffix), and spelling of the derived word must be exact to score.

  • Part 4 (Key word transformation): 6 items, 2 marks each; the second sentence must mean the same as the first and contain 2-5 words including the given key word, which must not be altered.

  • Part 5 (Multiple choice): 6 questions on a long text; questions follow text order, and correct options paraphrase the text rather than repeat its wording.

  • Part 6 (Gapped text): 6 sentences removed from a text; cohesion signals such as pronouns, definite articles, time linkers, and lexical chains identify the correct gap.

  • Part 7 (Multiple matching): 10 questions matched to 4-6 short texts or sections; each section may be used more than once, and questions do not follow text order.

Quick reference

Writing

  • The paper lasts 80 minutes and has 2 parts; Part 1 is compulsory and Part 2 offers a choice of three tasks, with each answer worth 20 marks (40 total).

  • Part 1 is always an email (often informal, to a friend or English-speaking contact) based on notes; all content points in the notes must be addressed for full content marks.

  • Part 2 task types are article, email/letter, essay, review, and story; candidates choose one, and the rubric names the reader and purpose to target.

  • Assessment uses four criteria, each worth 5 marks per task: Content, Communicative Achievement, Organisation, and Language.

  • Word count is 140-190 words per task; significantly shorter answers risk losing content marks, while longer answers are not penalised directly but increase error risk.

  • Register must match the task: informal email uses contractions and direct address; essay and article use neutral-to-formal tone with clear paragraphing.

  • Organisation marks depend on visible paragraphing, a clear opening and closing where the genre requires them, and linking devices used accurately rather than densely.

  • A story should establish setting, characters, and a complication, and it is assessed on narrative coherence and range of language, not on length of plot.

Quick reference

Listening

  • The paper lasts about 40 minutes, contains 4 parts and 30 questions, and each recording is heard twice.

  • Part 1: 8 short unrelated recordings, each with one three-option multiple-choice question testing gist, detail, function, or speaker attitude.

  • Part 2: a monologue of about 3 minutes with 10 gaps; answers are usually one to three words and must be spelled correctly, with no extra words added.

  • Part 3: 5 short related monologues matched to 5 of 8 options; each option is used once, and distractors paraphrase ideas from the wrong speaker.

  • Part 4: 7 three-option multiple-choice questions on one longer interview or conversation, following the order of the recording.

  • Distractors frequently repeat a word from the recording while the correct answer paraphrases it; matching exact words is a known trap.

  • Numbers, times, and prices are often corrected mid-recording (for example, a stated time replaced by a later one), so the final version is the answer.

Quick reference

Speaking

  • The test lasts about 14 minutes and is taken with one or two other candidates by two examiners; one examiner conducts, the other assesses.

  • Part 1 (Interview): about 2 minutes of personal questions on daily life, studies, hobbies, and plans; answers should extend beyond one sentence.

  • Part 2 (Long turn): each candidate compares two photographs for about 1 minute, then answers a short question about the other candidate's photos for about 30 seconds.

  • Part 3 (Collaborative task): about 3 minutes with the partner, discussing a mind-map of options and then reaching a decision together.

  • Part 4 (Discussion): about 4 minutes of questions developing the Part 3 topic, requiring opinions, reasons, and comparison of ideas.

  • Assessment criteria are Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse Management, Pronunciation, and Interactive Communication, each scored on a 0-5 scale.

  • Interactive Communication is scored on initiating, responding, and maintaining the exchange, so asking the partner questions and reacting to their points matters.

  • In Part 2 the long-turn candidate should compare and speculate ('looks as if', 'might be') rather than simply describe what is visible.

Quick reference

Reading and Use of English

  • The paper lasts 75 minutes and contains 7 parts; Parts 1-4 are Use of English (52 marks), Parts 5-7 are Reading (42 marks).

  • Part 1 (Multiple-choice cloze): 8 gaps, 4 options each; test collocation, fixed phrases, phrasal verbs, and grammatical patterns rather than single-word meaning alone.

  • Part 2 (Open cloze): 8 gaps, one word per gap; typical answers are articles, prepositions, pronouns, auxiliaries, comparatives, and linkers such as 'although' or 'unless'.

  • Part 3 (Word formation): 8 gaps; the stem word must be changed in form (prefix and/or suffix), and spelling of the derived word must be exact to score.

  • Part 4 (Key word transformation): 6 items, 2 marks each; the second sentence must mean the same as the first and contain 2-5 words including the given key word, which must not be altered.

  • Part 5 (Multiple choice): 6 questions on a long text; questions follow text order, and correct options paraphrase the text rather than repeat its wording.

  • Part 6 (Gapped text): 6 sentences removed from a text; cohesion signals such as pronouns, definite articles, time linkers, and lexical chains identify the correct gap.

  • Part 7 (Multiple matching): 10 questions matched to 4-6 short texts or sections; each section may be used more than once, and questions do not follow text order.

Quick reference

Writing

  • The paper lasts 80 minutes and has 2 parts; Part 1 is compulsory and Part 2 offers a choice of three tasks, with each answer worth 20 marks (40 total).

  • Part 1 is always an email (often informal, to a friend or English-speaking contact) based on notes; all content points in the notes must be addressed for full content marks.

  • Part 2 task types are article, email/letter, essay, review, and story; candidates choose one, and the rubric names the reader and purpose to target.

  • Assessment uses four criteria, each worth 5 marks per task: Content, Communicative Achievement, Organisation, and Language.

  • Word count is 140-190 words per task; significantly shorter answers risk losing content marks, while longer answers are not penalised directly but increase error risk.

  • Register must match the task: informal email uses contractions and direct address; essay and article use neutral-to-formal tone with clear paragraphing.

  • Organisation marks depend on visible paragraphing, a clear opening and closing where the genre requires them, and linking devices used accurately rather than densely.

  • A story should establish setting, characters, and a complication, and it is assessed on narrative coherence and range of language, not on length of plot.

Quick reference

Listening

  • The paper lasts about 40 minutes, contains 4 parts and 30 questions, and each recording is heard twice.

  • Part 1: 8 short unrelated recordings, each with one three-option multiple-choice question testing gist, detail, function, or speaker attitude.

  • Part 2: a monologue of about 3 minutes with 10 gaps; answers are usually one to three words and must be spelled correctly, with no extra words added.

  • Part 3: 5 short related monologues matched to 5 of 8 options; each option is used once, and distractors paraphrase ideas from the wrong speaker.

  • Part 4: 7 three-option multiple-choice questions on one longer interview or conversation, following the order of the recording.

  • Distractors frequently repeat a word from the recording while the correct answer paraphrases it; matching exact words is a known trap.

  • Numbers, times, and prices are often corrected mid-recording (for example, a stated time replaced by a later one), so the final version is the answer.

Quick reference

Speaking

  • The test lasts about 14 minutes and is taken with one or two other candidates by two examiners; one examiner conducts, the other assesses.

  • Part 1 (Interview): about 2 minutes of personal questions on daily life, studies, hobbies, and plans; answers should extend beyond one sentence.

  • Part 2 (Long turn): each candidate compares two photographs for about 1 minute, then answers a short question about the other candidate's photos for about 30 seconds.

  • Part 3 (Collaborative task): about 3 minutes with the partner, discussing a mind-map of options and then reaching a decision together.

  • Part 4 (Discussion): about 4 minutes of questions developing the Part 3 topic, requiring opinions, reasons, and comparison of ideas.

  • Assessment criteria are Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse Management, Pronunciation, and Interactive Communication, each scored on a 0-5 scale.

  • Interactive Communication is scored on initiating, responding, and maintaining the exchange, so asking the partner questions and reacting to their points matters.

  • In Part 2 the long-turn candidate should compare and speculate ('looks as if', 'might be') rather than simply describe what is visible.