CSMLS MLT Exam study materials
CSMLS MLT Exam study resources

CSMLS MLT Exam cheat sheet

CSMLS MLT Exam · Keep the key ideas within reach.

Quick reference

Clinical Chemistry

  • Reference interval for fasting plasma glucose is roughly 3.9-5.5 mmol/L (70-99 mg/dL); diabetes diagnostic threshold on fasting plasma glucose is 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) confirmed on a second occasion.

  • Sodium is the major extracellular cation (~135-145 mmol/L); potassium is the major intracellular cation with plasma reference ~3.5-5.0 mmol/L; hemolysis falsely raises potassium.

  • Anion gap = Na - (Cl + HCO3), reference ~8-16 mmol/L; elevated gap suggests unmeasured anions such as ketones, lactate, uremic acids, or toxins.

  • Enzymatic creatinine (Jaffe or enzymatic method) plus urea reflects glomerular filtration; urea is affected by protein intake and hydration, creatinine less so.

  • Cardiac troponin I or T is the preferred biomarker for myocardial injury; rise and fall pattern plus clinical context defines acute myocardial infarction.

  • Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in cholestasis and bone disease; GGT elevation with ALP supports a hepatobiliary rather than bone source.

  • Hepatic aminotransferases (ALT, AST) mark hepatocellular injury; ALT is more liver-specific than AST, which also arises from muscle and red cells.

  • Plasma osmolality calculated = 2(Na) + glucose + urea (all in mmol/L); a measured-to-calculated gap >10 mmol/L suggests an unmeasured osmole such as ethanol or methanol.

  • Lipemia, icterus, and hemolysis interfere with many spectrophotometric assays; automated serum indices flag these interferences before result release.

Quick reference

Hematology

  • Normal adult hemoglobin: men ~130-175 g/L, women ~120-155 g/L; MCV 80-100 fL, MCH 27-33 pg, MCHC 320-360 g/L.

  • Reticulocyte count corrected for anemia = reticulocyte % x (patient Hct / normal Hct); an elevated corrected count indicates a hyperproliferative marrow response.

  • Iron deficiency anemia is microcytic with low ferritin and high TIBC; anemia of chronic disease is normocytic with low TIBC and normal-to-high ferritin.

  • Megaloblastic anemia shows macrocytosis and hypersegmented neutrophils; B12 deficiency can also cause neurologic signs, folate deficiency typically does not.

  • Platelet reference interval ~150-400 x 10^9/L; pseudothrombocytopenia from EDTA-dependent platelet clumping is excluded by examining a citrate or smear sample.

  • D-dimer has high sensitivity but low specificity for venous thromboembolism; a negative result in a low-probability patient helps exclude the diagnosis.

  • PT/INR monitors warfarin (extrinsic pathway); aPTT monitors unfractionated heparin (intrinsic pathway); both are prolonged in disseminated intravascular coagulation.

  • Sickle cell screening uses a solubility or hemoglobin S detection method; confirmation and variant identification require hemoglobin electrophoresis or HPLC.

  • A left shift with toxic granulation and Dohle bodies suggests acute bacterial infection or severe inflammation rather than a benign reactive change.

Quick reference

Microbiology

  • Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus; in chains suggest Streptococcus; in pairs suggest Enterococcus or Streptococcus pneumoniae.

  • Catalase-positive, coagulase-positive gram-positive cocci identify Staphylococcus aureus; coagulase-negative staphylococci are typical skin flora but can be significant with indwelling devices.

  • Beta-hemolysis on blood agar with bacitracin sensitivity suggests Streptococcus pyogenes (group A); bacitracin resistance suggests group B streptococcus.

  • Oxidase-positive, non-fermenting gram-negative rods include Pseudomonas aeruginosa; oxidase-negative enteric rods are typical Enterobacterales.

  • MacConkey agar selects gram-negative bacteria and differentiates lactose fermenters (pink) from non-fermenters (colorless).

  • Minimum inhibitory concentration is the lowest antimicrobial concentration that inhibits visible growth; broth microdilution and gradient strips report MICs directly.

  • Blood cultures should be collected before antimicrobial therapy, typically two to three sets from separate sites; each set includes an aerobic and anaerobic bottle.

  • Clostridioides difficile testing is best on unformed stool; nucleic acid amplification detects toxin genes and does not distinguish colonization from active disease.

  • Mycobacterium species require acid-fast staining and prolonged culture; auramine-rhodamine fluorescence is a common screening stain.

Quick reference

Transfusion Science (Immunohematology)

  • ABO typing requires both forward (cell) and reverse (serum) grouping; discrepancies require resolution before transfusion.

  • Group O red cells carry no A or B antigen; group AB plasma lacks anti-A and anti-B and is the universal plasma donor.

  • Rh immune globulin prevents anti-D alloimmunization in D-negative mothers; the dose is guided by the fetomaternal hemorrhage volume.

  • The indirect antiglobulin test detects unexpected antibodies in serum; the direct antiglobulin test detects antibody or complement on red cells in vivo.

  • Antibody screen positive results require identification with a panel; clinically significant antibodies include those to Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, and MNS systems.

  • Crossmatch incompatibility may reflect an antibody against donor antigens; the antibody identification and selection of antigen-negative units is required.

  • Red cells may be stored at 1-6 degrees Celsius for up to 42 days depending on the preservative solution; platelets are stored at 20-24 degrees with agitation.

  • Transfusion reaction workup includes repeat ABO testing, DAT, visual inspection of pre- and post-transfusion samples, and culture when bacterial contamination is suspected.

  • Febrile nonhemolytic reactions are the most common transfusion reaction; acute hemolytic reactions typically present with fever, chills, flank pain, and hemoglobinuria.

Quick reference

Histotechnology

  • Formalin fixation at 10% neutral buffered formalin cross-links proteins; overfixation can mask antigens and impair immunohistochemistry.

  • Tissue processing dehydrates through graded alcohols, clears with xylene, and infiltrates with paraffin; incomplete clearing leaves cloudy blocks.

  • Hematoxylin stains nuclei blue-purple (basophilic); eosin stains cytoplasm and collagen pink (eosinophilic).

  • The periodic acid-Schiff stain highlights glycogen and mucin; diastase digestion distinguishes glycogen (removed) from mucin (retained).

  • Masson trichrome stains collagen blue-green and muscle red; useful for assessing fibrosis.

  • Prussian blue demonstrates hemosiderin iron; the Perls reaction turns iron deposits blue.

  • Frozen sections are used for intraoperative consultation; they preserve lipids and antigens but have less morphologic detail than paraffin sections.

  • Antigen retrieval (heat or enzyme) is often required before immunohistochemical staining of formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded tissue.

  • Decalcification of bone uses acid or chelating agents; strong acids can damage nucleic acids and some antigens.

Quick reference

Clinical Immunology and Serology

  • IgM antibodies appear early in infection and are pentameric; IgG appears later, is monomeric, crosses the placenta, and dominates the secondary response.

  • The classic complement pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes; the alternative pathway is antibody-independent and activated by microbial surfaces.

  • Antinuclear antibody testing by immunofluorescence is a screening test for systemic lupus erythematosus; a positive result requires clinical correlation.

  • Anti-double-stranded DNA and anti-Smith antibodies are specific for systemic lupus erythematosus; anti-dsDNA titers may track disease activity.

  • Rheumatoid factor is an antibody against the Fc portion of IgG; it is sensitive but not specific for rheumatoid arthritis.

  • Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies are more specific than rheumatoid factor for rheumatoid arthritis.

  • Enzyme immunoassay and chemiluminescence are common screening formats; confirmation of reactive results uses a different method such as immunoblot or nucleic acid testing.

  • A positive syphilis screening test requires a treponemal confirmatory test; reverse algorithms start with a treponemal assay and reflex to a nontreponemal test.

  • Allergy testing by specific IgE measures sensitization; a positive result does not by itself establish clinical allergy.

Quick reference

Laboratory Safety and Quality Management

  • Standard precautions treat all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious; gloves, gown, and eye protection are used according to task risk.

  • Chemical hazard communication requires safety data sheets, labeling, and training; formaldehyde and xylene require ventilation and exposure monitoring.

  • Biological spills are managed by containment, absorbent application, disinfection with an appropriate agent, and proper disposal.

  • Westgard multirule QC uses 1-2s as a warning rule and 1-3s, 2-2s, R-4s, and 4-1s as rejection rules.

  • A shift in QC values indicates a systematic error such as a calibration or reagent problem; a trend suggests gradual deterioration of reagent or instrument.

  • Levey-Jennings charts plot QC results over time with mean and standard deviation limits; random error increases scatter, systematic error shifts the mean.

  • External quality assessment (proficiency testing) compares performance with peer laboratories and is required for accreditation.

  • Root cause analysis and corrective and preventive action follow an incident; documentation must show investigation and monitoring of effectiveness.

  • Delta checks flag results that differ unexpectedly from a patient's previous result and require review before release.

Quick reference

Specimen Collection, Handling, and Pre-analytical Processes

  • Order of draw for venipuncture: blood culture, sodium citrate (coagulation), serum tube with or without clot activator, heparin tube, EDTA tube, fluoride-oxalate tube.

  • Sodium citrate tubes must be filled to the marked volume; underfilling alters the blood-to-anticoagulant ratio and prolongs clotting times.

  • EDTA tubes are used for hematology and bind calcium; heparin tubes are used for chemistry and do not bind calcium.

  • Hemolysis from traumatic venipuncture falsely raises potassium, LDH, and AST and interferes with many assays.

  • Prolonged tourniquet application causes hemoconcentration and falsely raises protein, potassium, and cell counts.

  • Blood cultures should be drawn before antibiotics and incubated promptly; delayed incubation reduces recovery of fastidious organisms.

  • Urine for culture should be midstream, collected in a sterile container, and transported promptly or refrigerated.

  • Timed collections such as 24-hour urine require proper preservative and complete collection; incomplete collection invalidates results.

  • Specimen labeling must occur at the bedside with two patient identifiers; unlabeled or mislabeled specimens are rejected.

Quick reference

Laboratory Mathematics, Instrumentation, and Quality Control

  • Coefficient of variation (CV) = (standard deviation / mean) x 100; it expresses precision as a percentage.

  • Standard deviation from a set of values = square root of the sum of squared deviations divided by (n - 1).

  • Mean = sum of values divided by number of values; the median is the middle value when values are ordered.

  • Dilution calculation: concentration of original = measured concentration x dilution factor; for a 1:10 dilution the factor is 10.

  • Serial dilution: each step multiplies the dilution factor; three consecutive 1:10 dilutions give a 1:1000 final dilution.

  • Beer-Lambert law states absorbance is proportional to concentration and path length; deviations occur at high absorbance or with stray light.

  • Spectrophotometers measure absorbance; nephelometers measure scattered light and are used for immunoglobulins and specific proteins.

  • Ion-selective electrodes measure electrolyte activity; indirect methods dilute the sample and can be affected by hyperproteinemia or hyperlipidemia.

  • Calibration establishes the relationship between signal and concentration; it differs from QC, which verifies ongoing performance.

Quick reference

Urinalysis and Body Fluid Analysis

  • Urine specific gravity by reagent strip reflects ionic concentration; the refractometer measures refractive index and is less affected by glucose or protein.

  • Urine pH reference is roughly 4.5-8.0; alkaline urine can result from urease-producing organisms or prolonged storage.

  • A positive urine leukocyte esterase suggests pyuria; a positive nitrite test suggests nitrate-reducing bacteria such as Enterobacterales.

  • Hematuria with dysmorphic red cells and red cell casts suggests glomerular bleeding rather than lower urinary tract bleeding.

  • Hyaline casts are nonspecific; red cell casts indicate glomerulonephritis and white cell casts suggest pyelonephritis.

  • Pleural fluid is classified as transudate or exudate using Light criteria; exudates typically have elevated protein or lactate dehydrogenase relative to serum.

  • Cerebrospinal fluid should be transported promptly and examined for cell count, glucose, protein, and Gram stain; bacterial meningitis shows neutrophilic pleocytosis and low glucose.

  • Synovial fluid with needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals suggests gout; rhomboid positively birefringent crystals suggest pseudogout.

  • Urine reagent strip protein is most sensitive to albumin; Bence Jones proteins may be missed and require alternative testing.