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Question 1Healthcare Technology Management Operations

What is the primary purpose of a computerized maintenance management system (CMMS) in a healthcare technology management department?

  1. Tracking work orders and equipment history Correct answer.
  2. Ordering pharmacy medication stock
  3. Managing patient billing and insurance claims
  4. Scheduling operating room surgical cases

Explanation

A CMMS is the system of record for maintenance work orders, equipment history, and asset data, supporting planning, documentation, and regulatory compliance. It is not used for patient billing, surgical scheduling, or pharmacy stock.

Question 2Healthcare Technology Management Operations

When setting the initial preventive maintenance interval for a newly purchased device, the HTM department should base it primarily on:

  1. the manufacturer's recommendations Correct answer.
  2. the preference of the unit's nurse manager
  3. the average age of the department's fleet
  4. the number of units purchased

Explanation

Manufacturer recommendations define the initial PM interval and procedure because they reflect the device's design, failure modes, and validated maintenance requirements. Local factors may adjust intervals later under a documented risk-based program.

Question 3Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which data element is essential on every medical equipment inventory record?

  1. The name of the vendor's sales representative
  2. The patient's medical record number
  3. A unique equipment identification number Correct answer.
  4. The hospital's annual marketing budget

Explanation

A unique equipment identification number links every work order, PM, and safety event to a specific asset, which is essential for traceability and recall management. Patient identifiers, sales contacts, and marketing data do not belong on the equipment record.

Question 4Healthcare Technology Management Operations

After completing a repair on a patient monitor, the technician should:

  1. discard the work order once the device has been returned to the nursing unit
  2. document findings and corrective actions, then close the work order Correct answer.
  3. wait until the next scheduled inspection to document the repair in the CMMS
  4. notify the manufacturer's sales representative before recording any details

Explanation

Work order documentation must capture the reported problem, findings, parts used, and corrective action so the equipment history is complete and defensible. The work order is closed only after this record is entered in the CMMS.

Question 5Healthcare Technology Management Operations

When the FDA announces a Class I recall for a device model used in the facility, what should the HTM department do first?

  1. Return every recalled device to the manufacturer without notifying clinicians
  2. Wait for the manufacturer's representative to visit the facility
  3. Post the recall notice on the department bulletin board
  4. Identify affected units and assess patient risk Correct answer.

Explanation

The first priority is to locate affected units, assess whether they are in clinical use, and remove or restrict them as needed to protect patients. Clinicians and risk management are then informed, and the recall is tracked to closure.

Question 6Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Electrical leakage current testing on patient-connected equipment is performed mainly to:

  1. calibrate the device's pressure transducer
  2. measure the battery's recharge time
  3. confirm leakage current is within safe limits Correct answer.
  4. verify the device's wireless signal strength

Explanation

Leakage current testing verifies that current that could flow through a patient or caregiver remains below safe limits under normal and single-fault conditions. It is a patient safety test, not a performance or calibration check.

Question 7Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which organization's standards require a hospital to maintain a documented medical equipment management plan?

  1. The Environmental Protection Agency
  2. The Federal Communications Commission
  3. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration
  4. The Joint Commission Correct answer.

Explanation

The Joint Commission's accreditation standards require a documented medical equipment management plan covering inventory, maintenance, and safety. The FDA regulates device manufacturers, while the EPA and FCC address environmental and radio-frequency matters.

Question 8Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which spare parts inventory practice best balances availability against cost?

  1. Stock critical, high-use parts based on failure history Correct answer.
  2. Order parts only after a device fails
  3. Eliminate all spare parts inventory
  4. Stock every part listed in every service manual for every device

Explanation

A risk-based inventory stocks parts that are critical to care and likely to be needed, using failure history and supplier lead times to set quantities. This avoids both crippling stockouts and excessive carrying costs.

Question 9Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A department's mean time to repair (MTTR) rose from 6 hours to 12 hours in one quarter while work order volume stayed constant. What is the best interpretation?

  1. The equipment failure rate has doubled over the same period
  2. The preventive maintenance completion rate has improved over the quarter
  3. Repairs are taking longer; investigate parts, staffing, and vendors Correct answer.
  4. The average age of the equipment has decreased over the quarter

Explanation

MTTR measures the average time to restore equipment after failure; a doubling with stable volume points to repair-process delays such as parts shortages, staffing gaps, or slow vendor response. Failure rate is a separate measure and would be reflected in MTBF or work order volume.

Question 10Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Under an alternative equipment maintenance (AEM) program, a hospital may extend PM intervals for a device class only after:

  1. documenting a risk-based rationale and approving it under policy Correct answer.
  2. the manufacturer agrees to waive all warranty terms
  3. the chief financial officer approves the projected savings
  4. the devices have been in service for at least ten years

Explanation

An AEM program allows intervals to differ from manufacturer recommendations only when the hospital documents a risk-based rationale, approves it through policy, and still meets CMS and accrediting requirements. Savings alone or vendor warranty waivers are insufficient.

Question 11Healthcare Technology Management Operations

For a high-acuity device with frequent failures and costly components, which service agreement transfers the most financial risk to the vendor?

  1. Per-call invoicing with no minimum charge
  2. Parts-only contract with in-house labor
  3. Time-and-materials billing for each repair
  4. Full-service contract covering parts and labor Correct answer.

Explanation

A full-service contract bundles parts and labor, so the vendor absorbs the cost of frequent failures and expensive components. Time-and-materials and parts-only arrangements leave more of that financial exposure with the hospital.

Question 12Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A network-connected infusion pump receives a manufacturer security patch. Before deployment, the HTM department should:

  1. install the patch on all pumps immediately
  2. decline all patches to protect validated software
  3. defer the patch until the next accreditation survey
  4. test the patch, then schedule rollout with a rollback plan Correct answer.

Explanation

Security patches should be validated before wide deployment because they can affect device operation and clinical workflows; coordination with IT and clinical users and a rollback plan reduce risk. Immediate untested installation or blanket refusal both create avoidable hazards.

Question 13Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A patient is harmed when an infusion pump delivers an unintended dose. Which reporting obligation applies to the facility?

  1. Report only if the pump is still under warranty
  2. Report through MedWatch to the FDA and to the manufacturer Correct answer.
  3. No report is needed because a clinician operated the pump
  4. Report only to the hospital's risk management insurer

Explanation

Device-related deaths and serious injuries must be reported to FDA MedWatch and to the manufacturer; the facility also follows its internal risk-management process. Warranty status and clinician involvement do not remove the reporting obligation.

Question 14Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A sentinel event involving a medical device has occurred. Which approach best identifies underlying system failures?

  1. Discipline the operator and close the case
  2. Convene a multidisciplinary root cause analysis Correct answer.
  3. File the incident report without further review
  4. Replace the device and resume normal use

Explanation

A multidisciplinary root cause analysis examines equipment design, process, environment, training, and human factors to find system-level causes and prevent recurrence. Blame, replacement without analysis, or filing without review will not identify contributing factors.

Question 15Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Before disposing of a networked imaging workstation, the HTM department must confirm that:

  1. the asset tag has been removed from the housing
  2. patient data and credentials have been securely erased Correct answer.
  3. the monitor has been disinfected with an approved hospital wipe
  4. the device is donated to a clinic without any modification or data review

Explanation

Networked devices can retain patient data, credentials, and network configurations, so secure erasure and documentation are required before disposal or transfer. Physical cleaning or asset-tag removal does not address data privacy.

Question 16Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Life support equipment connected to the emergency power system should be tested to verify:

  1. that it is disconnected from the building ground
  2. that it runs on internal battery only
  3. that alarms sound only at the nurses' station
  4. that it operates on emergency power during generator tests Correct answer.

Explanation

Life support equipment must be verified to function on emergency power during generator tests so that patients remain supported during utility outages. This is separate from internal battery testing and grounding checks.

Question 17Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which record best documents that a technician is competent to service a newly acquired MRI system?

  1. Years of employment in the department alone
  2. A self-declaration signed by the technician
  3. A verbal assurance from the vendor's sales representative
  4. Vendor training records and supervised hands-on checks Correct answer.

Explanation

Competency is documented through manufacturer-approved training plus supervised hands-on verification of the specific model. Self-declarations, tenure alone, or verbal assurances do not demonstrate technical competence.

Question 18Healthcare Technology Management Operations

When building the annual capital equipment request, the HTM manager should rank replacements by:

  1. alphabetical order of the requesting department names and cost center numbers
  2. clinical need, condition, failure history, and obsolescence Correct answer.
  3. the personal preference of the chief executive officer
  4. device age alone

Explanation

Capital replacement priorities are set by clinical need, device condition and failure history, parts obsolescence, and regulatory or safety requirements. Alphabetical order, executive preference, or age alone are not defensible criteria.

Question 19Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which action best supports compliance with clinical alarm management standards?

  1. Setting every alarm limit to the widest available range
  2. Defining default alarm settings and monitoring for alarm fatigue Correct answer.
  3. Silencing audible alarms throughout intensive care units
  4. Letting each clinician set arbitrary limits without documentation

Explanation

Alarm management standards require defined default settings, control over who may change them, and monitoring for alarm fatigue. Widening limits or silencing alarms can suppress clinically important alerts.

Question 20Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which practice gives the HTM department the best oversight of an imaging service contract?

  1. Allowing the vendor to set its own performance targets
  2. Paying vendor invoices without detailed review
  3. Renewing the contract automatically each year
  4. Reviewing vendor uptime and response times against contract terms Correct answer.

Explanation

Effective contract oversight compares vendor performance-uptime, response time, first-time fix rate-with contractual commitments and addresses shortfalls. Invoice review alone, automatic renewal, or vendor-set targets give the hospital little leverage.

Question 21Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A device class has a mean time between failures of 8,000 hours and a mean time to repair of 4 hours. What is its inherent availability?

  1. 99.95% Correct answer.
  2. 99.99%
  3. 99.50%
  4. 95.00%

Explanation

Inherent availability is MTBF divided by (MTBF + MTTR). With 8,000 hours and 4 hours, the result is 8,000/8,004 = 0.9995, or 99.95%.

Question 22Healthcare Technology Management Operations

An in-house CT service program would cost $180,000 per year in salaries and training plus $40,000 in parts and tools. The current full-service contract costs $260,000 per year. What does the cost comparison show?

  1. In-house service costs $220,000, which is $40,000 less than the contract Correct answer.
  2. The contract is $80,000 cheaper than in-house service
  3. In-house service costs $220,000, which is $40,000 more than the contract per year
  4. The two options cost the same amount

Explanation

In-house cost is $180,000 + $40,000 = $220,000 per year, compared with $260,000 for the contract, a savings of $40,000. The comparison addresses cost only; capability, staffing, and risk must also be considered.

Question 23Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A recall is classified by the FDA as Class II. What does this classification indicate?

  1. The device has caused death or serious injury in confirmed cases
  2. The device is unlikely to cause any adverse health consequence
  3. Use may cause temporary or reversible harm; serious harm is remote Correct answer.
  4. Only promotional labeling requires correction

Explanation

Class II recalls involve products that may cause temporary or medically reversible harm, or where the probability of serious harm is remote. Class I involves reasonable probability of serious harm or death, and Class III is unlikely to cause harm.

Question 24Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which measure is a leading indicator of medical equipment safety performance?

  1. Total medical equipment repair spending last year
  2. The percentage of scheduled PMs completed on time this month Correct answer.
  3. The number of patient injuries attributed to devices last year
  4. The number of sentinel events reported last year

Explanation

Leading indicators measure proactive activities that predict future safety performance, such as on-time PM completion. Injury counts, sentinel events, and repair spending are lagging indicators of outcomes already experienced.

Question 25Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A manufacturer announces end of service and parts support for a ventilator model that still has about five years of expected clinical life. What should the HTM manager do first?

  1. Continue using the devices with no changes and revisit the issue in five years
  2. Assess risk and plan service options, parts sourcing, and replacement timing Correct answer.
  3. Donate the devices to another facility without disclosing the support status
  4. Remove all units from service immediately and rent replacements at any cost

Explanation

End of support creates risks of unavailable parts, lost security updates, and unserviceable failures, so the manager should assess risk and develop a plan covering alternative service, parts, and replacement timing. Immediate removal, no action, or undisclosed donation all create avoidable patient and organizational risk.

Question 26Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A hospital's calibration program requires that instruments used to verify patient monitor performance be traceable. What does traceability require of a test instrument?

  1. An unbroken chain of comparisons to a recognized national standard Correct answer.
  2. Agreement with the readings of another hospital's test instrument
  3. A certificate issued by the device manufacturer at the time of sale
  4. Annual review and sign-off by the hospital risk management committee

Explanation

Traceability means the instrument's readings can be linked through an unbroken chain of documented comparisons to a national or international measurement standard, typically maintained by the metrology laboratory or calibration vendor. Each link in that chain carries an uncertainty statement and a calibration date, so the accuracy of the hospital's measurements can be defended.

Question 27Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which set of asset record data is most important for matching a newly issued manufacturer recall to the devices a hospital actually owns?

  1. Department cost center and assigned room number
  2. Manufacturer, model, and serial number Correct answer.
  3. Purchase order number and invoice date
  4. Original purchase price and warranty expiration date

Explanation

Recalls are issued against specific manufacturers, models, and often defined serial number ranges, so those three fields are the ones that must be recorded accurately and kept current in the computerized maintenance management system. With them, the department can identify every affected unit, isolate it, and document closure quickly.

Question 28Healthcare Technology Management Operations

After completing a repair on a physiologic monitor, a technician should return it to clinical use only after:

  1. performance verification and applicable safety tests are completed and documented Correct answer.
  2. the charge nurse signs a form accepting the device back into the unit
  3. the repair is described in the work order and the part is charged to the department
  4. a new preventive maintenance sticker is applied to the monitor housing

Explanation

A repair is not complete until the device has been shown to function to specification and has passed the safety tests required for its risk category, with the results recorded in the maintenance record. This verification step is what protects the next patient from a device that was reassembled correctly but not fully restored.

Question 29Healthcare Technology Management Operations

During a quarter, 1,200 PM procedures came due in a department. Of these, 1,140 were completed inside the allowed window, 30 were completed after the window, and 30 were not completed. Using the usual definition of the measure, what is the PM completion rate?

  1. 100%
  2. 97.5%
  3. 95.0% Correct answer.
  4. 92.5%

Explanation

PM completion rate compares procedures finished within the scheduled window to the number that came due, so 1,140 divided by 1,200 equals 95.0%. Work finished late still counts as work performed, but it is reported separately as past-due compliance rather than as on-time completion.

Question 30Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A technician starts a shift with four open work orders. Which should be addressed first?

  1. A stretcher in a corridor with a wheel that pulls to one side
  2. An infusion pump in the equipment room whose scheduled PM is three days overdue
  3. A patient monitor in storage whose battery will not hold a charge
  4. A ventilator in active ICU use with an intermittent power-failure alarm Correct answer.

Explanation

Work orders are triaged by risk to patients first, then by clinical urgency and operational impact. A life-support device in active use that is showing a power-failure alarm presents an immediate hazard to a patient, so it takes precedence over overdue scheduled work and over devices that are not in use.

Question 31Healthcare Technology Management Operations

A technician is dispatched to repair a bed occupied by a patient under contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile infection. What is the appropriate first step?

  1. Postpone the repair until the patient has been discharged from the unit and the room is empty
  2. Ask the patient to move to a chair in the hallway while the repair is performed
  3. Wipe the bed rails with an alcohol wipe and begin the repair immediately
  4. Coordinate cleaning and disinfection with nursing, then wear PPE per policy Correct answer.

Explanation

Equipment serviced in an isolation room must be decontaminated, and the technician must use personal protective equipment matched to the precaution category. Coordination with nursing and infection prevention ensures the required cleaning agent and contact time are used and that the repair does not spread pathogens to the technician, the shop, or other patients.

Question 32Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which task is appropriately assigned to the clinical user rather than to HTM staff?

  1. Daily pre-use defibrillator function checks at shift start Correct answer.
  2. Electrical safety testing performed after a device repair
  3. Annual performance verification of an ultrasound probe
  4. Calibration of a physiologic monitor's pressure channel

Explanation

Pre-use checks confirm that a device is ready for the next patient and are performed by the clinician who will use it, with results recorded per unit policy. Verification, calibration, and post-repair safety testing require test equipment, procedures, and documented competence, which place them within the HTM scope of service.

Question 33Healthcare Technology Management Operations

An HTM director wants to compare technician workload between two hospitals that differ in size and device mix. Which measure is most appropriate?

  1. Total number of devices listed in each hospital's inventory
  2. Number of work orders closed per technician
  3. Total maintenance budget per staffed bed
  4. Weighted equipment inventory by device complexity per technician FTE Correct answer.

Explanation

Complexity-weighted inventory converts a mixed device population into a common workload unit, so a hospital with many simple devices can be compared fairly with one that has fewer but far more demanding systems. Dividing that workload by technician full-time equivalents produces a staffing ratio that can be benchmarked across facilities.

Question 34Healthcare Technology Management Operations

Which finding from a PM program most strongly suggests that the PM interval for a device class is set too long?

  1. A PM completion rate above 95% for the device class
  2. A decreasing average cost per completed work order
  3. A rising number of unscheduled repairs occurring between scheduled PMs Correct answer.
  4. A high first-time fix rate on corrective repairs

Explanation

When failures cluster between scheduled services, the interval is allowing the device to run too long before inspection and renewal, and the maintenance strategy should be reviewed against failure history. Completion rate, repair cost, and first-time fix rate describe execution or efficiency rather than whether the interval itself is properly matched to the failure mode.

Question 35Financial and Asset Management

Which lodging performance metric is calculated by dividing total rooms revenue by the number of available rooms?

  1. Occupancy rate
  2. GOPPAR
  3. ADR
  4. RevPAR Correct answer.

Explanation

RevPAR (revenue per available room) equals total rooms revenue divided by rooms available, and it can also be computed as ADR multiplied by occupancy. It reflects both pricing and room utilization in a single measure.

Question 36Financial and Asset Management

In lodging financial reporting, what does the abbreviation USALI refer to?

  1. A union agreement covering hotel service staff
  2. A brand-mandated reservation fee schedule
  3. A standardized chart of accounts for the lodging industry Correct answer.
  4. A tax treaty for international hotel investors

Explanation

USALI stands for the Uniform System of Accounts for the Lodging Industry, which provides a standardized financial reporting format. It allows owners, operators, and lenders to compare hotel operating results on a consistent basis.

Question 37Financial and Asset Management

Which item is deducted in arriving at gross operating profit (GOP) in a USALI income statement?

  1. Property taxes and insurance
  2. Income taxes
  3. Departmental and undistributed operating expenses Correct answer.
  4. Interest expense

Explanation

GOP is calculated after subtracting departmental expenses and undistributed operating expenses from total revenue. Fixed charges such as property taxes, insurance, and rent, as well as interest and income taxes, are deducted below GOP.

Question 38Financial and Asset Management

A hotel is expected to generate annual net operating income of $1,000,000 and is valued at $12,500,000. What is the implied capitalization rate?

  1. 8.0% Correct answer.
  2. 6.0%
  3. 12.5%
  4. 10.0%

Explanation

The capitalization rate equals net operating income divided by property value. Dividing $1,000,000 by $12,500,000 gives 0.08, or 8.0%.

Question 39Financial and Asset Management

Which hotel valuation approach estimates value by discounting expected future net cash flows?

  1. Replacement cost approach
  2. Sales comparison approach
  3. Cost approach
  4. Income approach Correct answer.

Explanation

The income approach converts expected future income into a present value using a discount rate, often through a discounted cash flow model. It is the most common approach for income-producing hospitality assets.

Question 40Financial and Asset Management

A hotel has net operating income of $900,000 and annual debt service of $600,000. What is its debt service coverage ratio?

  1. 3.00
  2. 0.67
  3. 1.50 Correct answer.
  4. 2.50

Explanation

The debt service coverage ratio equals net operating income divided by annual debt service. $900,000 divided by $600,000 equals 1.50, meaning NOI covers debt service one and a half times.

Question 41Financial and Asset Management

Which expenditure is typically funded by the FF&E reserve in a hotel management agreement?

  1. Replacement of guestroom furniture Correct answer.
  2. Base management fees
  3. Property tax payments
  4. Daily housekeeping supplies

Explanation

The FF&E reserve is a sinking fund set aside from revenue to replace furniture, fixtures, and equipment as they wear out. Operating supplies, property taxes, and management fees are funded through the operating budget, not the reserve.

Question 42Financial and Asset Management

Which metric expresses rooms sold as a percentage of rooms available?

  1. Average daily rate (ADR)
  2. Revenue per available room (RevPAR)
  3. Total revenue per available room (TRevPAR)
  4. Occupancy percentage Correct answer.

Explanation

Occupancy percentage equals rooms sold divided by rooms available for the period. ADR measures average room rate, RevPAR combines rate and occupancy, and TRevPAR includes total revenue.

Question 43Financial and Asset Management

A 200-room hotel sells 150 rooms at an average daily rate of $180. What is its RevPAR?

  1. $120
  2. $135 Correct answer.
  3. $180
  4. $150

Explanation

Occupancy is 150 divided by 200, or 75%. RevPAR equals ADR multiplied by occupancy: $180 × 0.75 = $135. It can also be calculated as rooms revenue ($27,000) divided by available rooms (200).

Question 44Financial and Asset Management

A hotel's revenue increases by $500,000 and its gross operating profit increases by $200,000. What is the flow-through percentage?

  1. 20%
  2. 60%
  3. 250%
  4. 40% Correct answer.

Explanation

Flow-through measures the percentage of incremental revenue that reaches the profit line. Dividing the GOP increase of $200,000 by the revenue increase of $500,000 gives 40%.

Question 45Financial and Asset Management

Which ratio best measures a hotel's ability to meet its short-term obligations?

  1. Debt service coverage ratio
  2. Current ratio Correct answer.
  3. Operating profit margin
  4. Fixed asset turnover

Explanation

The current ratio compares current assets with current liabilities and indicates short-term liquidity. Debt service coverage measures debt repayment capacity, while the other ratios measure profitability or asset efficiency.

Question 46Financial and Asset Management

When evaluating a capital project using net present value (NPV), a hotel owner should generally accept the project if:

  1. NPV is less than the discount rate
  2. NPV is negative but the payback period is short
  3. NPV is greater than zero Correct answer.
  4. NPV equals the initial investment

Explanation

A positive NPV means the project's discounted cash inflows exceed its initial outlay, so it is expected to increase owner value. NPV should be calculated using the project's appropriate risk-adjusted discount rate.

Question 47Financial and Asset Management

In a hotel management contract, an incentive management fee is typically calculated as:

  1. A percentage of GOP above a stated owner's priority return Correct answer.
  2. A fixed percentage of gross rooms revenue payable before expenses
  3. A percentage of occupancy achieved above the competitive set average
  4. A percentage of total departmental expenses incurred by the hotel

Explanation

Incentive fees align the operator's compensation with owner outcomes by sharing profits above a hurdle, often a priority return to the owner. Base fees are usually a percentage of revenue, while incentive fees are tied to profitability.

Question 48Financial and Asset Management

Which of the following is classified as an undistributed operating expense in a USALI income statement?

  1. Spa department supplies
  2. Rooms department payroll
  3. Administrative and general expenses Correct answer.
  4. Food and beverage cost of sales

Explanation

Undistributed operating expenses support the whole hotel rather than a single revenue department; examples include administrative and general, sales and marketing, and property operations and maintenance. Departmental expenses are charged directly to the revenue department that incurs them.

Question 49Financial and Asset Management

A hotel is valued at $20 million and has 250 rooms. What is the value per key?

  1. $80,000 Correct answer.
  2. $75,000
  3. $60,000
  4. $50,000

Explanation

Value per key equals total property value divided by the number of guest rooms. $20,000,000 divided by 250 rooms equals $80,000 per key.

Question 50Financial and Asset Management

Which capital budgeting method ignores the time value of money?

  1. Discounted payback period
  2. Internal rate of return
  3. Net present value
  4. Payback period Correct answer.

Explanation

The simple payback period counts the years until cumulative cash inflows recover the initial investment without discounting those cash flows. NPV, IRR, and discounted payback all incorporate the time value of money.