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CMA (AAMA) Certification Examination practice questions

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Question 1General

The suffix -itis in a medical term indicates which condition?

  1. Surgical removal
  2. Pain
  3. Inflammation Correct answer.
  4. Enlargement

Explanation

The suffix -itis denotes inflammation, as in arthritis or dermatitis. Surgical removal is indicated by -ectomy, enlargement by -megaly, and pain by -algia.

Question 2General

Under standard precautions, when should hand hygiene be performed after removing gloves?

  1. Only if gloves are visibly soiled
  2. Always, after glove removal Correct answer.
  3. Only when leaving the building
  4. Only before touching the patient

Explanation

Standard precautions require hand hygiene immediately after removing gloves because gloves may have small defects or become contaminated during removal. Hand hygiene is also performed before patient contact and after body fluid exposure.

Question 3General

Which organ secretes insulin?

  1. Liver
  2. Pancreas Correct answer.
  3. Adrenal gland
  4. Kidney

Explanation

Insulin is produced by beta cells in the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas. The liver stores glycogen but does not secrete insulin.

Question 4General

What is the normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult?

  1. 20 to 24 breaths per minute on average
  2. 6 to 10 breaths per minute
  3. 10 to 14 breaths per minute
  4. 12 to 20 breaths per minute Correct answer.

Explanation

A healthy adult typically breathes 12 to 20 times per minute at rest. Rates below 12 are bradypnea and above 20 are tachypnea.

Question 5General

In medical documentation, the SOAP format stands for:

  1. Subjective, Observation, Action, Progress
  2. Symptoms, Observation, Analysis, Procedure
  3. Summary, Objective, Assessment, Prescription
  4. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan Correct answer.

Explanation

SOAP is a common progress note format: subjective information, objective findings, assessment or diagnosis, and plan. The other sequences do not match the standard acronym.

Question 6General

The PASS acronym for using a fire extinguisher stands for:

  1. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep Correct answer.
  2. Prepare, Assess, Sound, Secure
  3. Push, Alert, Spray, Secure
  4. Point, Activate, Shake, Stop

Explanation

PASS stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep side to side. It is a memory aid for using a fire extinguisher safely.

Question 7General

Which action best demonstrates active listening when a patient describes symptoms?

  1. Interrupting to ask billing questions
  2. Paraphrasing the patient's concern Correct answer.
  3. Looking at the computer screen while typing
  4. Changing the subject to reduce anxiety

Explanation

Active listening involves giving full attention and reflecting back the patient's message to confirm understanding. Paraphrasing shows the patient that the medical assistant heard the concern.

Question 8General

Which route generally produces the most rapid onset of medication effect?

  1. Subcutaneous
  2. Intravenous Correct answer.
  3. Oral
  4. Intramuscular

Explanation

Intravenous administration places medication directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption and producing the fastest onset. Oral, subcutaneous, and intramuscular routes require absorption first.

Question 9General

A patient asks for a copy of their medical record. According to HIPAA, the medical assistant should:

  1. Require the patient to explain the need
  2. Follow the practice's policy for patient access Correct answer.
  3. Refuse because records belong to the physician
  4. Release the record only to the employer

Explanation

HIPAA gives patients a right to access their protected health information, subject to practice policy and limited legal exceptions. The practice should verify identity and process the request according to its access policy.

Question 10General

Which element is essential for informed consent?

  1. Discussion of risks and alternatives Correct answer.
  2. A verbal agreement only
  3. A witness who is a family member
  4. Payment of all fees before the procedure

Explanation

Valid informed consent requires that the patient receive an explanation of the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives and then voluntarily agrees. A family witness or prepayment is not a required element.

Question 11General

Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

  1. Sagittal plane
  2. Transverse plane
  3. Frontal plane Correct answer.
  4. Oblique plane

Explanation

The frontal, or coronal, plane divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) sections. The sagittal plane divides left and right, and the transverse plane divides upper and lower.

Question 12General

A clean-catch midstream urine specimen is collected primarily to:

  1. Reduce external contamination Correct answer.
  2. Test for glucose only
  3. Measure total daily urine output
  4. Evaluate kidney stones directly

Explanation

A clean-catch midstream sample is collected after cleansing the genital area and discarding the first part of the stream, which reduces contamination from external flora. It is used for urine culture and urinalysis.

Question 13General

Which position is commonly used for administering an enema?

  1. Sims position Correct answer.
  2. Trendelenburg position
  3. Prone position
  4. Fowler position

Explanation

The Sims position, a left lateral side-lying position with the right knee flexed, allows gravity to assist flow into the rectum and colon during an enema. Fowler and Trendelenburg positions are used for other purposes.

Question 14General

Which technique best confirms that a patient understands new medication instructions?

  1. Asking the patient to sign a handout
  2. Patient explains instructions back Correct answer.
  3. Providing a longer printed list
  4. Speaking more loudly

Explanation

Teach-back asks the patient to explain the instructions in their own words, which reveals misunderstanding. Signing a handout or giving more print does not confirm comprehension.

Question 15General

A fixed amount a patient pays at the time of each visit is called a:

  1. Coinsurance
  2. Premium
  3. Deductible
  4. Copayment Correct answer.

Explanation

A copayment is a set dollar amount paid at the time of service, while a deductible is an amount paid before insurance begins covering costs. Coinsurance is a percentage shared after the deductible, and a premium is the monthly insurance cost.

Question 16General

In wave scheduling, patients are:

  1. Booked in groups at each hour Correct answer.
  2. Seen in order of arrival without appointments
  3. Scheduled only in the afternoon
  4. Given appointments at exact 15-minute intervals

Explanation

Wave scheduling books several patients at the beginning of an hour and then uses the remaining time to see them, which can absorb variability in visit length. It differs from stream scheduling, which uses precise intervals.

Question 17General

Which site is preferred for routine venipuncture?

  1. Dorsal foot vein
  2. Basilic vein at the wrist
  3. Radial artery
  4. Median cubital vein Correct answer.

Explanation

The median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa is large, well anchored, and least likely to injure underlying structures. Arteries and lower-extremity veins are avoided for routine venipuncture unless ordered.

Question 18General

What is the standard autoclave setting for sterilizing wrapped instruments?

  1. 100°C (212°F) at atmospheric pressure for 5 minutes
  2. 121°C (250°F) at 15 psi for 15 to 20 minutes Correct answer.
  3. 134°C (273°F) at 5 psi for 3 minutes
  4. 160°C (320°F) for 2 hours

Explanation

Standard gravity-displacement autoclaving uses saturated steam at about 121°C (250°F) and 15 psi for 15 to 20 minutes. The other settings would either not achieve sterilization or are not standard for wrapped instruments.

Question 19General

What is the recommended chest compression rate for adult CPR?

  1. 100 to 120 per minute Correct answer.
  2. 60 to 80 per minute
  3. 120 to 140 compressions per minute
  4. 80 to 100 per minute

Explanation

High-quality adult CPR uses compressions at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute with a depth of at least 2 inches. Rates outside this range reduce effectiveness.

Question 20General

Which set lists the rights of medication administration?

  1. Right patient, dose, route, time Correct answer.
  2. Right diagnosis, right cost, right pharmacy, right nurse
  3. Right room, right bed, right chart, right family
  4. Right consent, right insurance, right provider, right form

Explanation

The rights of medication administration include the right patient, medication, dose, route, time, and documentation, among others. The other sets list administrative or billing items rather than medication safety checks.

Question 21General

The minimum necessary standard requires that a medical assistant:

  1. Ask patients to waive privacy rights
  2. Disclose only what is needed Correct answer.
  3. Release all records for any request
  4. Post schedules in the waiting room

Explanation

The HIPAA minimum necessary rule limits use and disclosure of protected health information to the amount reasonably needed for the purpose. Releasing entire records or posting schedules can violate privacy.

Question 22General

Which chamber of the heart has the thickest muscular wall?

  1. Left atrium
  2. Right atrium
  3. Left ventricle Correct answer.
  4. Right ventricle

Explanation

The left ventricle pumps blood into the systemic circulation and therefore has the thickest myocardium. The right ventricle pumps only to the lungs at lower pressure.

Question 23General

A normal resting pulse oximetry reading for a healthy adult is:

  1. 85% to 89%
  2. 100% to 105%
  3. 90% to 94%
  4. 95% to 100% Correct answer.

Explanation

Normal oxygen saturation is generally 95% to 100% at sea level. Values below 90% indicate hypoxemia and require prompt evaluation.

Question 24General

Which situation requires reporting to authorities despite patient confidentiality?

  1. A patient requests a copy of records
  2. A patient asks about costs
  3. Suspected child abuse Correct answer.
  4. A patient refuses a vaccination

Explanation

Health care professionals are mandated reporters of suspected child abuse or neglect, and confidentiality does not prevent required reporting. Record requests, vaccine refusal, and cost questions do not create mandatory reporting duties.

Question 25General

Which of the following is a CLIA-waived test?

  1. Blood culture
  2. Prothrombin time
  3. Complete blood count with differential
  4. Urine pregnancy test Correct answer.

Explanation

CLIA-waived tests are simple, low-risk tests such as urine pregnancy tests and rapid strep tests. CBC, blood culture, and prothrombin time are more complex and require higher-level laboratory certification.

Question 26General

The suffix -ectomy in a medical term indicates which of the following?

  1. Inflammation
  2. Surgical repair
  3. Incision into an organ
  4. Surgical removal Correct answer.

Explanation

The suffix -ectomy means surgical removal of a structure, as in appendectomy or hysterectomy. Other common suffixes include -otomy (incision into), -plasty (repair), and -itis (inflammation).

Question 27General

In which abdominal quadrant is the appendix located?

  1. Left upper quadrant
  2. Left lower quadrant
  3. Right upper quadrant
  4. Right lower quadrant Correct answer.

Explanation

The appendix arises from the cecum in the right lower quadrant. Pain from appendicitis classically localizes to the right lower quadrant at McBurney point.

Question 28General

When hands are visibly soiled, what is the minimum length of time the medical assistant should scrub with soap and water?

  1. 60 seconds
  2. 5 seconds
  3. 10 seconds
  4. 20 seconds Correct answer.

Explanation

Soap and water handwashing should last at least 20 seconds, covering all surfaces of the hands and wrists. Alcohol-based rubs are used when hands are not visibly soiled.

Question 29General

Which oral temperature reading falls within the normal range for a healthy adult?

  1. 102.0 °F (38.9 °C)
  2. 95.2 °F (35.1 °C)
  3. 98.6 °F (37.0 °C) Correct answer.
  4. 100.6 °F (38.1 °C)

Explanation

Normal adult oral temperature is approximately 97.6 °F to 99.6 °F (36.5 °C to 37.5 °C), with 98.6 °F (37.0 °C) as the classic reference value. Readings above or below that range suggest fever or hypothermia.

Question 30General

The abbreviation NPO on a patient's order indicates that the patient should be:

  1. Ambulated as tolerated
  2. Weighed before each meal
  3. Given nothing by mouth Correct answer.
  4. Given only clear liquids by mouth

Explanation

NPO comes from the Latin nil per os, meaning nothing by mouth. It is ordered before surgery, certain laboratory tests, and procedures requiring an empty stomach.

Question 31General

Which of the following is a subjective finding obtained during the medical history?

  1. The patient's report of a headache Correct answer.
  2. An audible wheeze on auscultation
  3. A blood pressure of 148/92 mm Hg
  4. An oral temperature of 101.2 °F

Explanation

Subjective data are what the patient reports and cannot be measured or verified by the medical assistant, such as pain or headache. Objective data are observable or measurable findings.

Question 32General

During a routine visit, an adult patient slumps forward and does not respond when the medical assistant shouts the patient's name. What should the medical assistant do first?

  1. Look up the patient's emergency contact number
  2. Move the patient to the floor and begin chest compressions
  3. Call for help, activate EMS, and check for breathing and a pulse Correct answer.
  4. Deliver two rescue breaths

Explanation

An unresponsive adult requires immediate activation of the emergency response system while the rescuer assesses breathing and circulation. The emergency action plan is followed in the order: check responsiveness, call for help, then provide care.

Question 33General

Under Standard Precautions, the medical assistant must wear gloves when:

  1. Handing a tissue to a coughing patient
  2. Contact with blood or other body fluids is likely Correct answer.
  3. Measuring a blood pressure
  4. Weighing an adult patient

Explanation

Standard Precautions require gloves whenever contact with blood, body fluids, nonintact skin, or mucous membranes is anticipated. Gloves are not required for routine contact with intact skin or environmental surfaces.

Question 34General

A medical assistant performs hand hygiene before and after every patient contact. This practice breaks which link in the chain of infection?

  1. Portal of entry
  2. Infectious agent
  3. Mode of transmission Correct answer.
  4. Susceptible host

Explanation

Contaminated hands act as vehicles that carry organisms from one person or surface to another, so hand hygiene interrupts the mode of transmission. Removing the organism from the hands prevents it from reaching a portal of entry.

Question 35General

An office books two patients into the same 9:00 a.m. slot to offset the effect of no-shows and late arrivals. This scheduling method is called:

  1. Stream scheduling
  2. Wave scheduling
  3. Double booking Correct answer.
  4. Open access scheduling

Explanation

Double booking places two patients in one time slot so that one can be seen if the other cancels or arrives late. It is used to keep the provider productive but can create long waits if both patients arrive on time.

Question 36General

The percentage of each covered charge that the patient pays after the deductible has been met is the:

  1. Deductible
  2. Coinsurance Correct answer.
  3. Premium
  4. Copayment

Explanation

Coinsurance is the patient's share of covered charges expressed as a percentage, such as 20 percent of an allowed amount. The insurer pays the remaining percentage.

Question 37General

Which code set is used to report the patient's diagnoses on an insurance claim?

  1. Revenue codes
  2. CPT
  3. ICD-10-CM Correct answer.
  4. HCPCS Level II

Explanation

ICD-10-CM contains the diagnosis codes that establish medical necessity for the services billed. CPT and HCPCS codes describe the procedures and supplies instead.

Question 38General

A tube with a light blue stopper containing sodium citrate is used to collect blood for which test?

  1. Prothrombin time Correct answer.
  2. Fasting glucose
  3. Blood culture
  4. Complete blood count

Explanation

Light blue tubes contain sodium citrate, which binds calcium and preserves clotting factors for coagulation studies such as prothrombin time and INR. The tube must be filled to the marked volume for the correct blood-to-additive ratio.

Question 39General

A jagged, spiky artifact on an ECG tracing caused by the patient shivering or tensing muscles is called:

  1. 60-cycle interference
  2. Interrupted baseline
  3. Somatic tremor Correct answer.
  4. Wandering baseline

Explanation

Somatic tremor is muscle movement artifact that produces irregular spikes on the tracing. Keeping the patient warm, relaxed, and still helps eliminate it.

Question 40General

A tuberculin skin test is administered by which route?

  1. Subcutaneous
  2. Intradermal Correct answer.
  3. Intramuscular
  4. Intravenous

Explanation

Tuberculin testing requires an intradermal injection that raises a small wheal in the inner forearm. The reaction is read by measuring induration 48 to 72 hours later.

Question 41General

A medical assistant writes an incorrect value in a paper medical record. The proper way to correct the entry is to:

  1. Draw a single line through it, write the correction, and initial and date it Correct answer.
  2. Erase the entry and write the correct value
  3. Cover the entry with correction fluid
  4. Remove the page and rewrite the entire record

Explanation

Corrections must leave the original entry legible so the record remains an accurate, tamper-evident account. A single line, the corrected information, and the initials and date of the person making the change accomplish this.

Question 42General

A patient's blood pressure falls from 128/78 mm Hg while lying down to 100/60 mm Hg on standing, and the patient reports dizziness. This finding is documented as:

  1. Essential hypertension
  2. Orthostatic hypotension Correct answer.
  3. Hypovolemic shock
  4. White coat hypertension

Explanation

A drop in systolic pressure of at least 20 mm Hg or diastolic of at least 10 mm Hg when moving from lying to standing, accompanied by symptoms, defines orthostatic hypotension. The medical assistant should have the patient sit or lie down and notify the provider.

Question 43General

The primary purpose of a superbill (encounter form) is to:

  1. Capture the diagnoses and services provided so a claim can be generated Correct answer.
  2. Document reminder calls for upcoming appointments
  3. Record the patient's insurance eligibility status
  4. Serve as the patient's receipt for a copayment

Explanation

The superbill records the encounter's diagnoses, procedures, and charges, which the billing staff use to create a clean claim. Accurate coding on the form supports proper reimbursement and reduces denials.

Question 44General

Which blood collection tube is used for a complete blood count because it contains EDTA?

  1. Lavender-stoppered tube Correct answer.
  2. Gray-stoppered tube
  3. Green-stoppered tube
  4. Red-stoppered tube

Explanation

Lavender tubes contain the anticoagulant EDTA, which preserves cell morphology for hematology testing such as a complete blood count. Tubes should be inverted gently to mix the additive without hemolyzing the sample.

Question 45General

The name of a drug that is assigned by the manufacturer and protected by trademark is called the:

  1. Generic name
  2. Chemical name
  3. Official name
  4. Brand (trade) name Correct answer.

Explanation

The brand or trade name is owned by the manufacturer and is usually capitalized, such as Tylenol. The generic name is the nonproprietary name, acetaminophen, and the chemical name describes molecular structure.

Question 46General

The Bowie-Dick test is used to:

  1. Verify air removal and steam penetration in a pre-vacuum sterilizer Correct answer.
  2. Establish the shelf life of a sterilized package
  3. Measure the concentration of a high-level disinfectant
  4. Confirm that an ultrasonic cleaner is cavitating

Explanation

The Bowie-Dick test is a chemical indicator test run with an empty chamber on a pre-vacuum steam sterilizer to show that air has been removed and steam penetrates the load. It is a performance check for the sterilizer, not proof that a specific load is sterile.

Question 47General

Which document allows a competent adult to name another person to make health care decisions if the adult later becomes unable to do so?

  1. Informed consent form
  2. Do-not-resuscitate order
  3. Durable power of attorney for health care Correct answer.
  4. Living will

Explanation

A durable power of attorney for health care designates a health care agent who can make decisions when the patient loses decision-making capacity. A living will states the patient's wishes but does not appoint a decision maker.

Question 48General

A patient whose blood pressure readings are consistently 128/78 mm Hg is classified as having:

  1. Stage 2 hypertension
  2. Elevated blood pressure Correct answer.
  3. Normal blood pressure
  4. Stage 1 hypertension

Explanation

A systolic pressure of 120 to 129 mm Hg with a diastolic pressure below 80 mm Hg is classified as elevated blood pressure. Normal is below 120/80, and hypertension begins at 130/80 mm Hg.

Question 49General

A urine specimen for a pre-employment drug screen is sealed and labeled in the patient's presence, and every transfer of the specimen is documented. This procedure is known as:

  1. Quality control
  2. Specimen rejection criteria
  3. Chain of custody Correct answer.
  4. Therapeutic drug monitoring

Explanation

Chain of custody is the documented, unbroken record of who collected, handled, and transported a specimen. It preserves the legal integrity of forensic and employment-related test results.

Question 50General

The legal boundaries of what a medical assistant may and may not do are established primarily by:

  1. State law, including the medical practice act Correct answer.
  2. The employing physician's personal preference
  3. The AAMA Code of Ethics
  4. The accrediting body of the medical assisting program

Explanation

Each state's medical practice act and related statutes or regulations define which tasks may be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel such as medical assistants. Employer policy can be more restrictive but cannot expand beyond state law.