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DC Master Esthetician - independent service foundations study materials
DC Master Esthetician - independent service foundations study resources

DC Master Esthetician - independent service foundations practice questions

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Question 1Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for producing new keratinocytes through mitosis?

  1. Stratum basale Correct answer.
  2. Stratum corneum
  3. Stratum lucidum
  4. Stratum granulosum

Explanation

The stratum basale (basal layer) is the deepest epidermal layer, where keratinocytes divide by mitosis and then migrate upward. Melanocytes and Merkel cells also reside here. Understanding this layer is essential when judging chemical peel depth.

Question 2Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

What is the function of melanin produced by melanocytes in the epidermis?

  1. To regulate body temperature through sweat
  2. To produce sebum for lubrication
  3. To protect skin cells from ultraviolet radiation damage Correct answer.
  4. To transmit sensory touch signals

Explanation

Melanin absorbs and scatters ultraviolet radiation, shielding keratinocyte DNA from photodamage. Melanocytes transfer melanosomes to surrounding keratinocytes, and melanin output partly determines a client's Fitzpatrick type and peel risk.

Question 3Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

The dermis contains two main layers. Which layer lies directly beneath the epidermis and contains dermal papillae?

  1. Reticular layer
  2. Subcutaneous layer
  3. Papillary layer Correct answer.
  4. Stratum spinosum

Explanation

The papillary layer is the upper dermal layer that interlocks with the epidermis via dermal papillae and contains capillary loops and touch receptors. The deeper, denser reticular layer holds most collagen and elastin.

Question 4Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which collagen-related change is most associated with intrinsic (chronological) skin aging?

  1. Increased collagen synthesis and thicker dermis
  2. Complete loss of melanocytes
  3. Decreased collagen production and reduced dermal thickness Correct answer.
  4. Permanent increase in sebaceous activity

Explanation

Intrinsic aging is marked by progressively reduced fibroblast activity, declining collagen and elastin production, and a thinner dermis, leading to fine lines and laxity. Extrinsic aging from UV exposure accelerates these changes and adds pigment irregularities.

Question 5Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which structure produces sebum that lubricates the skin and hair?

  1. Eccrine gland
  2. Apocrine gland
  3. Sebaceous gland Correct answer.
  4. Meissner corpuscle

Explanation

Sebaceous glands are connected to hair follicles and secrete sebum, an oily substance that lubricates skin and hair and contributes to the acid mantle. Overactive sebaceous glands contribute to oily skin and acne.

Question 6Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which protein gives the dermis its tensile strength and is the main target of collagen-stimulating treatments?

  1. Keratin
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Melanin
  4. Collagen Correct answer.

Explanation

Collagen, produced by dermal fibroblasts, is the primary structural protein providing tensile strength and firmness to skin. Many advanced treatments aim to stimulate fibroblasts to increase collagen and improve texture.

Question 7Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which acid is most commonly used as a superficial peeling agent and is naturally found in milk?

  1. Lactic acid Correct answer.
  2. Phenol
  3. Trichloroacetic acid
  4. Hydrochloric acid

Explanation

Lactic acid is an alpha hydroxy acid derived from milk that exfoliates and hydrates, making it a gentle option suitable for sensitive or drier skin. Its larger molecule penetrates more slowly than glycolic acid, giving a milder peel.

Question 8Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which structure in the dermis provides elasticity and allows skin to return to shape after stretching?

  1. Elastin fibers Correct answer.
  2. Keratohyalin granules
  3. Langerhans cells
  4. Corneocytes

Explanation

Elastin fibers in the dermis give skin its recoil and elasticity, allowing it to return to shape after being stretched. Degradation of elastin, largely from UV exposure, contributes to laxity and wrinkling.

Question 9Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Glycation, a contributor to extrinsic aging, occurs when:

  1. Sugars bind to collagen and elastin, stiffening them Correct answer.
  2. Melanocytes overproduce pigment
  3. Sebaceous glands enlarge
  4. Sweat glands stop functioning

Explanation

Glycation is a process in which sugar molecules bind to proteins like collagen and elastin, forming advanced glycation end products that stiffen and weaken these fibers, accelerating aging. Antioxidant and barrier-supportive care helps mitigate its visible effects.

Question 10Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which immune cells in the epidermis present antigens and are part of the skin's defense?

  1. Langerhans cells Correct answer.
  2. Fibroblasts
  3. Adipocytes
  4. Corneocytes

Explanation

Langerhans cells are antigen-presenting immune cells located mainly in the stratum spinosum that detect pathogens and help initiate immune responses. Aggressive or repeated treatments can transiently impair this immune surveillance.

Question 11Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which structure carries nerve impulses for sensation and is found throughout the dermis?

  1. Sensory nerve endings Correct answer.
  2. Keratin filaments
  3. Melanosomes
  4. Sebaceous lobules only

Explanation

The dermis is richly supplied with sensory nerve endings and receptors that detect touch, pressure, temperature, and pain, which is why peel depth and device intensity affect client comfort. Knowing dermal innervation guides safe treatment intensity.

Question 12Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Hyperkeratosis refers to:

  1. A loss of skin pigment
  2. A thickening of the stratum corneum from excess keratin Correct answer.
  3. An overgrowth of blood vessels
  4. A bacterial skin infection

Explanation

Hyperkeratosis is an abnormal thickening of the outer stratum corneum due to excess keratin, which can contribute to rough texture and follicular plugging. Controlled exfoliation is often used to improve hyperkeratotic skin.

Question 13Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which cell type in the dermis is chiefly responsible for synthesizing collagen and elastin?

  1. Fibroblast Correct answer.
  2. Keratinocyte
  3. Melanocyte
  4. Merkel cell

Explanation

Fibroblasts are the principal dermal cells that produce collagen, elastin, and ground substance, maintaining the skin's structure and resilience. Many advanced treatments aim to stimulate fibroblast activity to improve firmness.

Question 14Skin, body, hair-removal, enhancement, and introductory nail services

Which skin structure is most directly responsible for thermoregulation through evaporative cooling?

  1. Eccrine sweat glands Correct answer.
  2. Sebaceous glands
  3. Melanocytes
  4. Arrector pili muscles

Explanation

Eccrine sweat glands secrete a watery sweat onto the skin surface, and its evaporation cools the body, providing thermoregulation. This is distinct from sebaceous secretion or pigment functions.

Question 15Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

A glycolic acid peel is classified as which type of chemical exfoliant?

  1. Alpha hydroxy acid (AHA) Correct answer.
  2. Beta hydroxy acid (BHA)
  3. Polyhydroxy acid blend only
  4. Enzymatic exfoliant

Explanation

Glycolic acid is an alpha hydroxy acid (AHA) derived from sugar cane and has the smallest molecular size of the AHAs, allowing deep penetration. It is water soluble and works primarily on the skin surface to loosen corneocyte bonds.

Question 16Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

Microdermabrasion using aluminum oxide crystals primarily exfoliates which skin structure?

  1. The stratum corneum Correct answer.
  2. The reticular dermis
  3. The subcutaneous fat layer
  4. The arrector pili muscle

Explanation

Microdermabrasion is a superficial mechanical exfoliation that removes the outermost stratum corneum, stimulating cell turnover and improving texture. It does not penetrate to living dermal tissue when performed within esthetic scope.

Question 17Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

Selective photothermolysis in laser treatment depends on matching the laser wavelength to which target property?

  1. The chromophore's absorption spectrum Correct answer.
  2. The client's blood pressure
  3. The room's ambient temperature
  4. The thickness of the epidermis only

Explanation

Selective photothermolysis works by choosing a wavelength preferentially absorbed by the target chromophore (such as melanin or hemoglobin) and a pulse duration shorter than the target's thermal relaxation time. This concentrates damage in the target while sparing surrounding tissue.

Question 18Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

After a superficial chemical peel, which post-procedure instruction is most important for the client?

  1. Exfoliate aggressively the next morning
  2. Resume retinoids and acids immediately
  3. Apply broad-spectrum SPF and avoid sun exposure Correct answer.
  4. Pick at any flaking skin to speed peeling

Explanation

Freshly peeled skin is photosensitive and prone to hyperpigmentation, so diligent broad-spectrum sun protection and sun avoidance are the most critical aftercare instructions. Active exfoliants are paused until the barrier recovers.

Question 19Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

Salicylic acid is especially useful for oily, acne-prone skin because it is:

  1. Water soluble and surface acting
  2. An enzyme that digests keratin
  3. Lipophilic and able to penetrate sebum-filled follicles Correct answer.
  4. A physical scrub abrasive

Explanation

Salicylic acid is a lipophilic (oil-soluble) beta hydroxy acid, so it penetrates sebum-rich follicles to exfoliate inside the pore, making it valuable for comedonal and acne-prone skin. It also has mild anti-inflammatory properties.

Question 20Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

Which laser or light parameter describes how long the energy is delivered to the target tissue?

  1. Wavelength
  2. Spot size
  3. Pulse duration Correct answer.
  4. Fluence

Explanation

Pulse duration is the length of time the laser energy is delivered and should be matched to the thermal relaxation time of the target for selective photothermolysis. Wavelength sets target selectivity, fluence is energy per unit area, and spot size affects penetration depth.

Question 21Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

Why must the same area not be passed repeatedly during a single microdermabrasion session?

  1. It wastes crystals
  2. It has no effect on the skin
  3. It improves results dramatically
  4. Excessive passes can cause petechiae, abrasions, and barrier damage Correct answer.

Explanation

Repeated passes over the same area concentrate mechanical trauma and can produce petechiae, abrasions, and a compromised barrier, increasing the risk of hyperpigmentation and infection. Treatment should be limited to controlled, even passes.

Question 22Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

Which skin disorder is a chronic vascular condition marked by facial redness, flushing, and visible capillaries?

  1. Psoriasis
  2. Tinea
  3. Vitiligo
  4. Rosacea Correct answer.

Explanation

Rosacea is a chronic inflammatory and vascular condition causing persistent central facial redness, flushing, telangiectasia, and sometimes papulopustular lesions. Advanced services should avoid aggressive heat and harsh exfoliation that can trigger flares.

Question 23Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

What is the primary purpose of applying a neutralizing solution after some chemical peels?

  1. To add fragrance to the treatment
  2. To replace sunscreen
  3. To deepen the peel further
  4. To raise the skin's pH and stop the acid's exfoliating action Correct answer.

Explanation

A neutralizer such as a sodium bicarbonate solution raises the pH at the skin surface, halting the acid's activity and limiting depth and irritation. Not all acids self-neutralize, so following manufacturer protocol is essential.

Question 24Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

Which structure anchors the epidermis to the dermis and is important to treatment depth decisions?

  1. The basement membrane (dermal-epidermal junction) Correct answer.
  2. The arrector pili muscle
  3. The eccrine duct
  4. The subcutaneous septa

Explanation

The basement membrane, or dermal-epidermal junction, anchors the epidermis to the dermis and serves as a key boundary. Superficial peels stay above it, while medium and deep procedures cross it and carry greater risk.

Question 25Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

Which light-based modality uses a broad spectrum of non-coherent light rather than a single wavelength?

  1. Intense pulsed light (IPL) Correct answer.
  2. Nd:YAG laser
  3. Diode laser
  4. Alexandrite laser

Explanation

Intense pulsed light (IPL) emits a broad band of non-coherent, polychromatic light, which is filtered to target chromophores such as melanin and hemoglobin for photorejuvenation or hair reduction. True lasers emit a single coherent wavelength.

Question 26Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

In a specified laser/IPL training scenario, whose eyes require the appropriate wavelength/system-compatible protection while the equipment is operating?

  1. Only the client
  2. Only the practitioner
  3. Both the client and everyone in the treatment room Correct answer.
  4. No one if the device is low power

Explanation

Wavelength-appropriate eye protection must be worn by the client, the operator, and anyone present in the treatment room because scattered or reflected laser or IPL energy can cause permanent retinal or corneal damage. Door signage and controlled access are also standard.

Question 27Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

What is the primary role of a humectant such as hyaluronic acid in post-peel skincare?

  1. To exfoliate the skin further
  2. To act as a chemical sunscreen
  3. To bleach pigment
  4. To attract and bind water, supporting hydration of compromised skin Correct answer.

Explanation

Humectants like hyaluronic acid and glycerin attract and bind water in the skin, helping rehydrate and soothe a compromised post-peel barrier. They are often paired with occlusives to lock moisture in during recovery.

Question 28Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

The 'thermal relaxation time' of a target in laser physics refers to:

  1. How long the client should rest after treatment
  2. The time it takes a heated target to lose about half its heat Correct answer.
  3. The cooldown of the laser machine
  4. The room temperature setting

Explanation

Thermal relaxation time is the time required for a heated target structure to dissipate roughly half of its absorbed heat. Choosing a pulse duration shorter than this time confines damage to the target, the core of selective photothermolysis.

Question 29Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

What is the function of the stratum corneum in relation to advanced treatments?

  1. It produces melanin
  2. It is the barrier that treatments must penetrate or carefully exfoliate Correct answer.
  3. It contains the dermal blood supply
  4. It generates nerve impulses

Explanation

The stratum corneum is the protective outermost barrier of dead corneocytes that limits water loss and pathogen entry, and it is the layer most advanced exfoliating treatments act upon. Respecting its barrier role guides safe treatment intensity and recovery.

Question 30Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

Which factor most determines how deeply a chemical peel penetrates?

  1. The color of the towels used
  2. The acid type, concentration, pH, and number of coats or contact time Correct answer.
  3. The client's hair color
  4. The time of day

Explanation

Peel depth is governed by the acid identity, its concentration and pH, the vehicle, and the contact time or number of coats applied, along with skin pretreatment. Controlling these variables lets the practitioner target a safe, intended depth.

Question 31Advanced esthetic concepts, physical mechanisms and risk interpretation

During iontophoresis, the practitioner must confirm which two things before selecting the active electrode?

  1. The product's charge and the desired polarity for delivery Correct answer.
  2. The room's wall color and the time
  3. The client's favorite scent and music
  4. The towel thread count and lighting

Explanation

Effective iontophoresis depends on matching the active electrode to the ionic charge of the product so that like charges repel and drive the active ingredient into the skin. Using the wrong polarity fails to deliver the active and wastes the treatment.

Question 32Cosmetic formulation functions, labels and compatibility

A formulation includes glycerin for its humectant function. What does that function describe?

  1. Helping attract and retain water in the formulation or skin-care context Correct answer.
  2. Abrading away dead cells through solid particles
  3. Loosening dead-cell attachment through enzymatic exfoliation
  4. Producing an occlusive film without any water-attracting function

Explanation

Humectants contribute to water attraction and retention. Their function is different from mechanical exfoliation, infection-control processing, or a guarantee against individual adverse reactions.

Question 33Cosmetic formulation functions, labels and compatibility

A moisturizer includes an occlusive component. What is its relevant cosmetic role?

  1. Loosening superficial-cell attachment through exfoliation
  2. Helping reduce water loss from the skin surface Correct answer.
  3. Replacing the need to evaluate product tolerance
  4. Increasing water loss to create a deeper cleansing effect

Explanation

Occlusive ingredients can reduce outward water loss by forming an appropriate surface barrier. This does not make every formulation suitable for every client.

Question 34Cosmetic formulation functions, labels and compatibility

A client asks why an emollient is used in a dry-skin product. Which explanation is appropriate?

  1. Degreasing away surface lipids as the defining function
  2. Neutralizing the pH of every other product in the routine
  3. Providing the same action as a coarse scrub
  4. It helps soften and smooth the skin surface Correct answer.

Explanation

Emollients are used for softening and smoothing effects. That cosmetic function should not be confused with abrasive removal, sterilization, or medical diagnostic claims.

Question 35Cosmetic formulation functions, labels and compatibility

A client with fragrance sensitivity sees the word unscented on a product. What should still be checked?

  1. Only the ingredient's list position without identifying what it is
  2. An assumption that the word guarantees absence of all fragrance-related ingredients
  3. The assumption that every botanical fragrance is non-sensitizing
  4. The actual ingredient information and suitability for the client's history Correct answer.

Explanation

Marketing language is not a complete ingredient or tolerance assessment. Review the actual formulation and client history rather than rely on an absolute claim from one word.

Question 36Cosmetic formulation functions, labels and compatibility

What is the primary reason a water-containing cosmetic may include a suitable preservative system?

  1. To limit microbial growth under its intended conditions of use Correct answer.
  2. To make an otherwise contaminated dispensing method acceptable
  3. To keep texture and potency unchanged under every temperature condition
  4. To guarantee that the product remains safe after any contamination event

Explanation

Preservation helps control microbial growth within a formulation's intended use. It does not remove the need for clean dispensing, proper storage, and appropriate handling of contamination.

Question 37Cosmetic formulation functions, labels and compatibility

A product's stated after-opening period is six months and the salon opens it on November 1. Under that stated calendar rule, what date marks six months?

  1. June 1 of the following year
  2. April 1 of the following year
  3. November 7 of the same year
  4. May 1 of the following year Correct answer.

Explanation

Six calendar months after November first is May first of the next year. Storage, contamination, and any earlier expiry instruction still require separate attention.

Question 38Cosmetic formulation functions, labels and compatibility

A sunscreen is labelled broad spectrum. What protection distinction is relevant to that term?

  1. Proof that the product suits every allergy history
  2. Coverage addressing both UVA and UVB according to the product's authorized label Correct answer.
  3. Permission to ignore the label's application directions
  4. A guarantee that one application prevents all sun effects indefinitely

Explanation

Broad-spectrum labelling addresses types of ultraviolet protection, not an unlimited-duration or universal-tolerance guarantee. Use the actual authorized product directions and individual suitability information.

Question 39Cosmetic formulation functions, labels and compatibility

A client asks whether a high SPF means they can stay in sunlight for any length of time. What is the best response?

  1. Guarantee that higher SPF eliminates every UV-related risk
  2. Convert the SPF number directly into guaranteed hours outdoors
  3. Recommend omitting all other sun-protection measures
  4. Explain that SPF is not unlimited exposure permission and follow labelled sun-protection directions Correct answer.

Explanation

SPF should not be treated as a simple promise of unlimited safe time. Product instructions and broader sun-protection measures remain important despite a high number.

Question 40Infection prevention and safe service processing

Which decontamination level destroys all microbial life including bacterial spores?

  1. Sanitation
  2. Disinfection
  3. Sterilization Correct answer.
  4. Antisepsis

Explanation

Sterilization is the highest level of decontamination and destroys all forms of microbial life, including resistant bacterial spores, typically using an autoclave. Reusable items that penetrate or contact non-intact skin must be sterilized.

Question 41Infection prevention and safe service processing

What is the recommended action if an esthetician sustains a needlestick or sharps injury during dermaplaning?

  1. Continue the service and clean the wound afterward
  2. Apply makeup over the wound and ignore it
  3. Wash the area with soap and water, report the exposure, and follow the exposure control plan Correct answer.
  4. Disinfect the blade and resume immediately

Explanation

Following a sharps exposure, the worker should immediately wash the site with soap and water, report the incident, and follow the employer's OSHA exposure control plan, which includes confidential medical evaluation and follow-up. Prompt action limits the risk of bloodborne disease transmission.

Question 42Infection prevention and safe service processing

Personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves must be changed:

  1. Once per day
  2. Never, if the same client returns
  3. Only when visibly dirty at end of day
  4. Between every client and whenever they become torn or contaminated Correct answer.

Explanation

Gloves and other PPE are changed between every client and any time they become torn, punctured, or contaminated to prevent cross-contamination and protect both client and practitioner. Hands are washed before donning fresh gloves.

Question 43Infection prevention and safe service processing

Contaminated sharps such as used dermaplaning blades must be disposed of in:

  1. The regular trash can
  2. A sealed plastic shopping bag
  3. A recycling bin
  4. A puncture-resistant, labeled sharps container Correct answer.

Explanation

Used sharps must go directly into a closable, puncture-resistant, leak-proof, labeled sharps container to prevent injury and bloodborne pathogen exposure. Containers are not overfilled and are disposed of through approved waste handling.

Question 44Infection prevention and safe service processing

Hand hygiene before gloving and between clients is important primarily because it:

  1. Improves the practitioner's manicure
  2. Removes transient microorganisms and breaks the chain of infection Correct answer.
  3. Is only needed when hands look dirty
  4. Replaces the need for disinfecting surfaces

Explanation

Proper hand hygiene removes transient microorganisms acquired from surfaces and clients, breaking the chain of infection between services. It is a foundational control even when gloves are also worn.

Question 45Infection prevention and safe service processing

A disinfectant label lists a 10-minute contact time. What must happen for those 10 minutes?

  1. The implement may be removed as soon as it looks clean
  2. Only the handle must stay in the solution
  3. The treated surface must remain visibly wet for the full label time Correct answer.
  4. The disinfectant must be allowed to dry completely before the label time begins

Explanation

Contact time is the period a disinfectant-treated surface must remain visibly wet so the product can work as its EPA-approved label directs. Wiping or removing the product early does not complete the labeled process.

Question 46Infection prevention and safe service processing

What should an esthetician do after finding a frayed electrical cord on a facial machine?

  1. Wrap the damaged area with a towel
  2. Remove the machine from service until it is properly repaired or replaced Correct answer.
  3. Use the machine only on a low setting
  4. Keep the cord away from the client and continue only at the lowest power setting

Explanation

A frayed cord can expose live conductors and create shock or fire risk. PSI's safety outline requires equipment to be in safe working order, so damaged equipment must be taken out of service.

Question 47Infection prevention and safe service processing

A chemical splashes into a client's eye. What is the appropriate immediate response?

  1. Cover the eye and wait for the burning to stop
  2. Apply another product to neutralize the chemical
  3. Flush as the product label or SDS directs and obtain medical help when indicated Correct answer.
  4. Ask the client to keep the eye tightly closed until all burning stops completely on its own

Explanation

Chemical eye exposure requires immediate flushing according to the product's first-aid directions, followed by poison-control or medical assistance when directed. Adding an unapproved neutralizer can worsen the injury.

Question 48Infection prevention and safe service processing

Why must water temperature be checked before it contacts a client?

  1. Warm water always disinfects the skin
  2. Clients cannot accurately feel water temperature differences during any professional facial service
  3. Water that is too hot can burn or aggravate sensitive skin Correct answer.
  4. Cold water permanently closes pores

Explanation

Checking temperature protects the client from burns and irritation, particularly when sensation may be reduced. Water temperature does not disinfect skin or permanently open or close pores.

Question 49Infection prevention and safe service processing

A product is transferred from its original container to a secondary container. What is required?

  1. Leave the secondary container blank whenever it will be used during the same workday
  2. Label it only with the product's color
  3. Label it so the product and applicable hazards can be identified Correct answer.
  4. Use a food container so the contents are visible

Explanation

Secondary containers need workplace labeling that identifies the product and communicates its hazards. Chemicals should never be placed in food or drink containers because that creates a serious ingestion risk.

Question 50Infection prevention and safe service processing

Before operating an electrical facial machine, which check is most important?

  1. Whether the machine matches the treatment-room decor
  2. Whether another client liked the machine
  3. Whether cords, plugs, controls, and attachments are intact and dry Correct answer.
  4. Whether the machine can safely run through the longest available extension cord

Explanation

Inspect electrical equipment before use and keep it dry. Damaged cords, plugs, controls, or attachments can cause shock, burns, or fire and require the machine to be removed from service.