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ATPL Performance (EASA) practice questions

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Question 1Take-off

In take-off performance, which speed is defined as the speed at which the pilot recognises a failure of the critical engine and can still stop the aircraft within the accelerate-stop distance available?

  1. VMCA
  2. V2
  3. VR
  4. V1 Correct answer.

Explanation

V1 is the decision speed: above it a continued take-off is assured, and at or below it the aircraft can be brought to a full stop within the accelerate-stop distance available. It is the single speed that links the stop case and the go case in take-off planning.

Question 2Take-off

During take-off performance planning, the take-off distance available (TODA) is defined as the take-off run available plus which element?

  1. The distance to the 35 ft screen height
  2. The length of the clearway Correct answer.
  3. The length of the stopway
  4. The accelerate-stop distance

Explanation

TODA equals the take-off run available plus any clearway declared for the runway. The clearway is the obstacle-free area beyond the runway end over which the aircraft can climb to screen height.

Question 3Take-off

An aircraft's take-off mass is limited by the second-segment climb requirement. Which configuration normally gives the best second-segment gradient for a given mass?

  1. Landing gear retracted, flaps fully up, one engine inoperative
  2. Landing gear extended, take-off flap selected, all engines operating
  3. Landing gear extended, flaps fully up, all engines operating
  4. Landing gear retracted, take-off flap selected, one engine inoperative Correct answer.

Explanation

The second-segment requirement is assessed with the critical engine failed, gear retracted and take-off flap set. Retracting the gear removes drag, and take-off flap gives the lift needed at the scheduled V2.

Question 4Take-off

A runway is 2 400 m long with a 200 m stopway and a 150 m clearway. What is the take-off distance available (TODA)?

  1. 2 550 m Correct answer.
  2. 2 750 m
  3. 2 600 m
  4. 2 400 m

Explanation

TODA is the take-off run available (the runway length) plus the clearway length: 2 400 + 150 = 2 550 m. The stopway affects ASDA only and must not be added to TODA.

Question 5Take-off

For a given aircraft mass and ambient conditions, how does increasing runway slope uphill affect the take-off distance required?

  1. It increases the distance required because a component of thrust is used to climb the slope Correct answer.
  2. It decreases the distance required because the aircraft accelerates downhill relative to the air mass
  3. It decreases the distance because the brakes can be used more effectively
  4. It has no effect because slope is corrected only in landing performance

Explanation

An uphill slope adds a rearward component of weight, so less of the available thrust accelerates the aircraft and the ground run lengthens. Runway slope corrections are therefore applied to the take-off distance required.

Question 6Take-off

Take-off performance is computed for a runway with a 1.5 per cent uphill slope. The flight manual gives a slope correction of 5 per cent per 1 per cent of uphill slope. What percentage increase applies to the take-off distance required?

  1. 3.0 per cent
  2. 5.0 per cent
  3. 1.5 per cent
  4. 7.5 per cent Correct answer.

Explanation

Multiply the correction rate by the slope: 5 per cent × 1.5 = 7.5 per cent increase in the take-off distance required. The correction always increases distance for an uphill slope.

Question 7Take-off

Which atmospheric condition causes the greatest increase in take-off ground run for a given indicated airspeed?

  1. High altitude, high temperature and high humidity Correct answer.
  2. Low altitude, low temperature and low humidity
  3. High pressure and low temperature
  4. Low altitude with a strong headwind

Explanation

High altitude, high temperature and high humidity all reduce air density, which reduces thrust and the lift generated at a given true airspeed. The aircraft must accelerate to a higher true airspeed for the same indicated speed, lengthening the ground run.

Question 8Take-off

An aircraft must clear an obstacle 12 m above the runway surface at the end of the take-off distance available. Which net take-off flight path gradient must be used in the obstacle analysis?

  1. The net gradient, which is the gross gradient reduced by 0.9 per cent for a two-engine aeroplane Correct answer.
  2. The all-engines-operating gradient at V2
  3. The net gradient, which is the gross gradient reduced by 0.8 per cent for a four-engine aeroplane
  4. The gross gradient, because obstacle clearance is assessed on gross performance

Explanation

Obstacle accountability uses the net take-off flight path, obtained by reducing the gross gradient by a fixed margin: 0.9 per cent for two engines, 0.8 per cent for three and 0.6 per cent for four. For a twin, the 0.9 per cent reduction applies.

Question 9Take-off

What is the significance of the take-off run available (TORA) in relation to the take-off distance required?

  1. The TORA is used only for the accelerate-stop calculation
  2. The take-off distance required must not exceed the TORA alone in all cases
  3. The TORA is the distance from brake release to the point where V2 is reached
  4. The take-off distance required must not exceed the TORA plus any clearway, subject to the screen-height rules Correct answer.

Explanation

The take-off distance required, measured to the point where the aircraft reaches 35 ft, must fit within the TODA, which is the TORA plus any clearway. The ground run itself must remain within the TORA.

Question 10Take-off

How is the maximum certified take-off mass limited by the tyre speed rating?

  1. The indicated airspeed at rotation must not exceed the tyre rating, which limits mass at low altitude
  2. Tyre speed rating is a fixed limit independent of mass and altitude
  3. The ground speed at lift-off must not exceed the tyre speed rating, which can limit mass at high density altitude Correct answer.
  4. Tyre speed rating limits only landing mass, not take-off mass

Explanation

Tyre speed ratings are expressed as ground speed, so at high elevation or high temperature the true ground speed at lift-off rises for a given indicated speed. This can become the limiting factor on take-off mass.

Question 11Take-off

A take-off mass is limited by the brake energy absorption limit. Which operational technique is normally used to remain within this limit?

  1. Increasing the take-off flap setting to reduce brake wear
  2. Reducing take-off mass or using a lower V1 so less energy is absorbed in a rejected take-off Correct answer.
  3. Selecting a higher thrust rating to reduce the ground run
  4. Increasing V1 to shorten the stop distance

Explanation

Brake energy limits are managed by reducing the mass to be stopped or by lowering V1, which reduces the speed from which a rejected take-off must be arrested. Higher thrust or more flap does not reduce the kinetic energy the brakes must absorb.

Question 12Take-off

What does the term 'balanced field length' describe in take-off performance?

  1. The field length at which the accelerate-stop distance equals the take-off distance to 35 ft Correct answer.
  2. The field length at which all engines are assumed to fail
  3. The field length at which V1 equals VR
  4. The field length at which the take-off run equals the landing distance

Explanation

Balanced field length occurs when the distance to stop from V1 equals the distance to reach 35 ft after an engine failure at V1. At this condition the field length required is minimised for the given mass and conditions.

Question 13Take-off

An aircraft has a published V1 of 140 kt and VR of 145 kt. What is the significance of this relationship?

  1. The relationship shows that the aircraft will not climb after rotation
  2. The decision speed is below rotation speed, so a stop can be initiated before rotation begins Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft cannot be stopped after V1, so VR must be lower than V1
  4. The relationship indicates that V1 is limited by VMCA

Explanation

V1 must not exceed VR, so that a rejected take-off can be started before the aircraft is rotated. With V1 at 140 kt and VR at 145 kt, the decision point occurs while the aircraft is still on the ground in the take-off attitude.

Question 14Take-off

Which factor determines the maximum take-off mass limited by the take-off climb requirement in the first segment?

  1. The gross gradient with the critical engine failed, gear extended and take-off flap set Correct answer.
  2. The net gradient with all engines operating and gear retracted
  3. The landing climb gradient with all engines operating
  4. The gradient with the critical engine failed, gear retracted and flaps up

Explanation

The first-segment requirement is assessed with the critical engine failed, the landing gear still extended and take-off flap selected, because the gear is not retracted until the aircraft is safely airborne. The gross gradient must meet the published minimum for the aircraft type.

Question 15Take-off

How does a headwind component affect the take-off distance required and the accelerate-stop distance?

  1. It has no effect on either distance because performance is scheduled in indicated airspeed
  2. It increases both, because the wind adds to the ground run
  3. It reduces the take-off distance but increases the accelerate-stop distance
  4. It reduces both, because the aircraft reaches the same indicated speeds at a lower ground speed Correct answer.

Explanation

A headwind lowers the ground speed needed to attain any given indicated airspeed, so both the ground run and the distance to stop from V1 are reduced. Performance charts normally provide a wind correction expressed per knot of headwind.

Question 16Take-off

A runway is contaminated with standing water. What is the primary effect on take-off performance?

  1. Increased rolling resistance and reduced braking action increase the accelerate-stop distance Correct answer.
  2. Contamination affects only the landing distance
  3. Reduced rolling resistance shortens the accelerate-stop distance
  4. Contamination improves tyre grip and reduces the take-off run

Explanation

Standing water increases rolling resistance during the ground run and reduces the friction available for braking, so the accelerate-stop distance grows. Many operators also apply a contaminant correction to the take-off distance required.

Question 17Take-off

Why is the use of take-off thrust derate limited by the minimum control speeds?

  1. A reduced thrust lowers V2 below VMCA in all cases
  2. A reduced thrust increases VMCG, allowing higher V1
  3. A reduced thrust lengthens the ground run, so V1 and VR may need to be reduced, but they must remain above VMCG Correct answer.
  4. Derate has no relationship with minimum control speeds

Explanation

With derated thrust the aircraft accelerates more slowly, so the scheduled V1 and VR may fall. These speeds must still provide directional control after an engine failure on the ground, so they cannot be reduced below VMCG.

Question 18Take-off

What is the purpose of the take-off flight path obstacle accountability method?

  1. To ensure the net flight path clears all obstacles by the required margin from the end of the take-off distance to 1 500 ft Correct answer.
  2. To ensure the accelerate-stop distance is within the ASDA
  3. To ensure the aircraft reaches V2 before the end of the runway
  4. To ensure the landing gear is retracted before the first segment

Explanation

Obstacle accountability compares the net take-off flight path, segment by segment, with the obstacles in the departure area up to 1 500 ft. The required vertical and lateral margins must be satisfied throughout.

Question 19Take-off

An aircraft has a take-off mass limited by the second-segment climb. Which change would most improve the limiting mass?

  1. Selecting a greater take-off flap setting within the certified range Correct answer.
  2. Increasing the take-off mass and reducing V2
  3. Selecting a lower thrust rating
  4. Increasing the assumed air temperature

Explanation

A greater take-off flap setting increases lift at V2, improving the second-segment gradient and allowing a higher mass. Temperature, thrust rating and mass changes in the other options all worsen the gradient.

Question 20Take-off

What does an 'unbalanced' field length condition mean in take-off performance?

  1. The aircraft is loaded asymmetrically about the longitudinal axis
  2. The accelerate-stop distance and the take-off distance are not equal, so one of the two cases is limiting Correct answer.
  3. The take-off mass exceeds the maximum structural mass
  4. The runway has a displaced threshold

Explanation

An unbalanced field occurs when the stop case and the go case do not coincide at the same V1. One case then governs the field length, and the operator may adjust V1 to optimise performance within the certified limits.

Question 21Take-off

Which speed must the aircraft attain by 35 ft above the take-off surface with the critical engine failed?

  1. VR
  2. V2 Correct answer.
  3. VMCG
  4. V1

Explanation

The aircraft must reach V2, the take-off safety speed, by the time it is 35 ft above the take-off surface with the critical engine failed. V2 guarantees the minimum climb gradient in the second segment.

Question 22Take-off

A runway has a 2 per cent downhill slope. How does this affect the take-off distance required compared with a level runway?

  1. It decreases the distance because a component of weight assists acceleration Correct answer.
  2. It increases the distance because the aircraft must climb less steeply
  3. It has no effect because slope is corrected only for landing
  4. It increases the distance because braking is less effective

Explanation

On a downhill slope a component of weight acts in the direction of travel, adding to the accelerating force and shortening the ground run. The correction is applied as a reduction to the take-off distance required.

Question 23Take-off

Why does the take-off distance required increase with altitude for a given indicated airspeed and mass?

  1. Thrust increases with altitude, shortening the ground run
  2. True airspeed at lift-off is higher, so the ground run is longer Correct answer.
  3. Indicated airspeed at lift-off is higher, so the ground run is shorter
  4. Air density increases with altitude, improving lift

Explanation

At altitude the air density is lower, so a higher true airspeed is needed to produce the same dynamic pressure and lift. The aircraft therefore travels further over the ground to reach the same indicated speed.

Question 24Take-off

What is the effect of a tailwind on the take-off distance required?

  1. It has no effect because take-off performance is scheduled in indicated airspeed
  2. It increases the distance because the aircraft needs a higher ground speed to reach the same indicated speed Correct answer.
  3. It decreases the distance because the ground run is shortened
  4. It decreases the distance because the aircraft is pushed along the runway

Explanation

A tailwind means the aircraft must achieve a higher ground speed to reach the same indicated airspeed at lift-off, so the ground run and the take-off distance required both increase. Tailwind corrections are applied as an increase per knot.

Question 25Take-off

An operator wishes to increase the take-off mass on a short runway. Which combination of measures would most directly increase the allowable take-off mass?

  1. Selecting a lower V1 and a lower V2
  2. Increasing the assumed outside air temperature and reducing the thrust rating
  3. Increasing the assumed runway slope and reducing the flap setting
  4. Selecting a higher thrust rating and using a greater take-off flap setting Correct answer.

Explanation

Higher thrust shortens the ground run, and a greater flap setting improves the second-segment gradient. Together they raise the mass that can be accommodated within the field length and climb limits.

Question 26Take-off

In take-off performance, which speed is defined as the speed at which the pilot first applies the brakes during a rejected take-off?

  1. VR
  2. VMCA
  3. V2
  4. V1 Correct answer.

Explanation

V1 is the decision speed and, for a rejected take-off, the speed at which the first action (brake application) is assumed in the accelerate-stop distance calculation. Above V1 the take-off must normally be continued, because the remaining runway is insufficient to stop. VR is the rotation speed and V2 the take-off safety speed, neither of which defines the reject action.

Question 27Take-off

On a take-off chart, the take-off distance required to 35 ft is 1850 m in still air. With a 10 kt tailwind the chart factor increases the distance by 20 per cent. What is the new take-off distance required?

  1. 2035 m
  2. 2220 m Correct answer.
  3. 1665 m
  4. 1850 m

Explanation

A 20 per cent increase applied to 1850 m gives 1850 × 1.20 = 2220 m. Tailwind increases both the ground run and the airborne segment for the same indicated airspeed, so the required distance grows. The still-air figure is used only as the datum before the correction is applied.

Question 28Take-off

Which document provides the certified take-off performance data, including the field length limitations, for a given aircraft type?

  1. The maintenance schedule
  2. The minimum equipment list
  3. The load and trim sheet
  4. The aircraft flight manual performance section Correct answer.

Explanation

The aircraft flight manual (or its approved performance data) contains the certified take-off distances, speeds and limiting masses that the operator must use. The other documents address dispatch with unserviceable equipment, mass and balance loading, and maintenance intervals respectively. Only the flight manual data has airworthiness approval for performance calculation.

Question 29Take-off

The take-off run available (TORA) exceeds the take-off distance available (TODA) by the length of the clearway. Which statement describes the clearway?

  1. A paved overrun suitable for braking after a rejected take-off
  2. The runway strip graded to support emergency vehicles
  3. The distance from the threshold to the first obstacle
  4. An area beyond TORA over which the aircraft may climb to 35 ft Correct answer.

Explanation

The clearway is a defined area beyond the end of the take-off run available, over which an aircraft can make the initial climb to 35 ft. It must be clear of obstacles and under the control of the aerodrome authority. It therefore adds to TODA without contributing to the ground run available.

Question 30Take-off

The take-off mass is limited by the take-off climb requirement in the second segment. Which condition defines the second segment?

  1. Gear down, flaps landing, one engine inoperative, V2, 0 to 35 ft
  2. Gear up, flaps up, one engine inoperative, V2, 400 ft to 1500 ft
  3. Gear down, flaps take-off, all engines operating, V2, 35 ft to 400 ft
  4. Gear up, flaps take-off, one engine inoperative, V2, 35 ft to 400 ft Correct answer.

Explanation

The second segment begins at 35 ft with the gear retracted, take-off flaps set, the critical engine failed and V2 established, and ends at 400 ft. It carries the most demanding climb gradient requirement of the take-off flight path. The first segment has the gear still extended, and the final segment uses flaps up.

Question 31Take-off

What is the effect of increasing the flap setting for take-off on the take-off distance required?

  1. It reduces the distance and simultaneously improves the second-segment climb gradient
  2. It reduces the distance because VR and V2 are lower, but the climb gradient in the second segment is reduced Correct answer.
  3. It increases the distance because drag rises throughout the take-off
  4. It has no effect on distance but only on the climb gradient

Explanation

A larger take-off flap setting lowers the speeds at which the aircraft can rotate and climb, shortening the ground run and the air distance. However, the extra drag degrades the climb gradient, so the second-segment climb limit may become more restrictive. The two effects must be traded against each other in performance planning.

Question 32Take-off

How is the take-off distance required affected when the runway surface changes from dry to wet, for the same mass and conditions?

  1. It decreases because the water cools the tyres
  2. It is unchanged because the take-off is a thrust-limited manoeuvre
  3. It increases because the braking coefficient is lower, which may reduce V1 and the permitted mass Correct answer.
  4. It increases only if standing water deeper than 3 mm is present

Explanation

On a wet runway the friction available for stopping is reduced, so the accelerate-stop distance grows for a given V1. To remain within the runway, V1 must be reduced, which in turn reduces the field-length-limited take-off mass. Wet runway data therefore generally shows a lower permissible mass than dry data.

Question 33Take-off

Which speed must be maintained so that the aircraft can be brought to a stop on the runway remaining if an engine fails just before V1?

  1. V1 Correct answer.
  2. V2
  3. VLOF
  4. VR

Explanation

V1 is the maximum speed at which the pilot can reject the take-off and stop within the accelerate-stop distance available. It balances the one-engine-inoperative continue distance against the all-engines stop distance. Above V1 the aircraft must continue, since the stop distance would be exceeded.

Question 34Take-off

An aircraft has a take-off mass of 60 000 kg and a field-length-limited mass of 62 000 kg, but the second-segment climb limits the mass to 58 500 kg. What is the maximum permitted take-off mass?

  1. 58 500 kg Correct answer.
  2. 60 000 kg
  3. 61 000 kg
  4. 62 000 kg

Explanation

The maximum permitted take-off mass is the lowest of all the limiting values, so the most restrictive limit governs. Here the second-segment climb limit of 58 500 kg is below both the actual mass and the field-length limit. The aircraft must therefore be loaded down to 58 500 kg for this departure.

Question 35Take-off

What is the effect of a 1 000 ft increase in pressure altitude on the take-off ground run for a given indicated airspeed and mass?

  1. It increases only if the temperature also rises
  2. It decreases because the air is less dense and drag is lower
  3. It is unchanged because the indicated airspeed is the same
  4. It increases because true airspeed and therefore ground speed are higher for the same IAS Correct answer.

Explanation

At higher pressure altitude the density is lower, so a given IAS corresponds to a higher true airspeed and a higher ground speed. The engine also produces less thrust in the thinner air. Both effects lengthen the ground run, which is why high-altitude airfields have longer take-off distances.

Question 36Take-off

Why must V1 never be scheduled below VMCA (or VMCG on the ground) in a balanced field calculation?

  1. Because the second-segment climb would otherwise fail
  2. Because with the critical engine failed at V1 the aircraft must remain controllable on the ground and in the initial climb Correct answer.
  3. Because the brakes cannot absorb the energy below that speed
  4. Because the tyres would exceed their speed rating

Explanation

At V1 the aircraft must be capable of continuing the take-off after an engine failure, which requires directional control at the minimum control speed. V1 is therefore never scheduled below VMCG or VMCA. If the field-length calculation produces a lower V1, the minimum control speed becomes the governing value and the field length becomes unbalanced.

Question 37Take-off

A take-off mass is limited by the first-segment climb gradient. Which change would most directly raise the permitted mass?

  1. Increasing the take-off flap setting to reduce the climb speed
  2. Selecting a lower take-off flap setting to reduce drag with the gear still extended Correct answer.
  3. Reducing the take-off thrust setting
  4. Delaying gear retraction until 400 ft

Explanation

The first segment is flown with the gear still extended, so parasite drag is high and the climb gradient is shallow. Reducing flap drag by selecting a lower setting improves the gradient and allows a higher mass. Delaying gear retraction or reducing thrust would both worsen the gradient.

Question 38Take-off

An aircraft has a take-off run required of 1 400 m and a take-off distance required to 35 ft of 1 900 m. The runway has TORA 1 600 m and TODA 1 950 m, with no clearway. Can the take-off be made?

  1. Yes, because both the run and the distance required are within the respective available distances Correct answer.
  2. Yes, but only if a clearway is added
  3. No, because the take-off run required exceeds the TORA
  4. No, because the take-off distance required exceeds the TODA

Explanation

The take-off run required (1 400 m) must not exceed TORA (1 600 m), and the take-off distance required (1 900 m) must not exceed TODA (1 950 m). Both conditions are satisfied, so the take-off is permissible. The clearway is already implicit in the difference between TODA and TORA.

Question 39Take-off

What does an increase in the take-off thrust setting do to the balanced field length?

  1. It has no effect because field length depends only on mass
  2. It shortens the field length only if the runway is wet
  3. It lengthens the field length because V1 increases
  4. It shortens the field length because both the accelerate-stop and the continue distances are reduced Correct answer.

Explanation

Higher thrust shortens the one-engine-inoperative accelerate-go distance, and a correspondingly lower V1 shortens the accelerate-stop distance, so the balanced field length decreases. This is why maximum thrust is used when the field length is critical. The effect applies on dry and wet runways alike.

Question 40Take-off

In an unbalanced field length condition where the field length available exceeds the balanced field length, what does this allow?

  1. A reduction in V2 below the certified value
  2. A V1 lower than VMCG, allowing a shorter ground run
  3. A V1 higher than the balanced value, giving improved stopping margin and continued take-off capability Correct answer.
  4. Operation without regard to the obstacle clearance limit

Explanation

When the available field length is longer than the balanced length, V1 can be increased above the balanced value. This improves the stopping case while the continue case remains within the available distance. The operator may also choose a lower V1 to favour the continue case, but V1 can never fall below VMCG.

Question 41Take-off

How does an increase in ambient temperature affect the take-off distance required for a given mass and pressure altitude?

  1. It increases only if the runway is uphill
  2. It is unchanged because temperature does not affect density
  3. It increases because density falls, reducing thrust and raising true airspeed for a given IAS Correct answer.
  4. It decreases because warm air reduces engine wear

Explanation

Higher temperature lowers air density, so the engine produces less thrust and a given IAS corresponds to a higher true airspeed. Both effects increase the take-off distance. This is why hot-day performance is more restrictive than ISA data.

Question 42Take-off

What is the significance of V2 for obstacle clearance in the take-off flight path?

  1. It is the maximum speed for tyre rotation
  2. It is the speed to be attained by 35 ft with the critical engine failed and maintained to at least 400 ft Correct answer.
  3. It is the speed at which the gear must be retracted
  4. It is the speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground with all engines operating

Explanation

V2 is the take-off safety speed that must be achieved by 35 ft with the critical engine failed and maintained to at least 400 ft. The published climb gradients used for obstacle accountability are based on flight at V2. Flying below V2 reduces the climb gradient and compromises obstacle clearance.

Question 43Take-off

An operator reduces take-off thrust (derate) to extend engine life. What is the primary performance penalty of this action?

  1. Longer take-off distance and reduced climb gradients, which may lower the permitted mass Correct answer.
  2. No penalty provided the runway is dry
  3. Higher V2 and improved obstacle clearance
  4. Reduced brake energy and a shorter accelerate-stop distance

Explanation

A thrust derate lowers the acceleration and the climb gradients, so the take-off distance grows and the limiting mass falls. It is only permissible when the resulting performance still satisfies all field length and obstacle requirements. The benefit is reduced engine wear, not improved performance.

Question 44Take-off

Which combination of conditions produces the most restrictive field-length-limited take-off mass?

  1. High altitude, low temperature, headwind and a dry runway
  2. High altitude, high temperature, tailwind and a wet runway Correct answer.
  3. Low altitude, low temperature, headwind and a dry runway
  4. Low altitude, high temperature, headwind and a wet runway

Explanation

High altitude and high temperature reduce density and thrust, a tailwind increases the ground distance for a given IAS, and a wet surface reduces stopping friction. Together these effects combine to give the lowest permissible mass. Any headwind or low-temperature condition would relieve the limitation.

Question 45Take-off

During a rejected take-off, which speed defines the point beyond which the stop distance would exceed the accelerate-stop distance available?

  1. VR
  2. V2
  3. V1 Correct answer.
  4. VLE

Explanation

V1 is the maximum speed at which the pilot can stop within the accelerate-stop distance available. Beyond V1 the aircraft must continue the take-off, because the remaining runway is insufficient for a stop. VR and V2 are airborne speeds and do not define the stopping case.

Question 46Take-off

How does the presence of a stopway affect the accelerate-stop distance available?

  1. It increases the accelerate-stop distance available, allowing a higher V1 and possibly a higher mass Correct answer.
  2. It reduces the take-off run available
  3. It increases the take-off distance available for the climb to 35 ft
  4. It has no effect because stopways are not used for performance

Explanation

A stopway is a defined area beyond TORA suitable for stopping the aircraft, so it adds to the accelerate-stop distance available. This allows a higher V1, which can improve the field-length-limited mass. It does not contribute to TODA, which is extended by a clearway instead.

Question 47Take-off

An aircraft is field-length limited with a balanced field length of 2 100 m on a runway with TODA 2 100 m. If a 5 kt headwind is then reported, what is the expected effect?

  1. The balanced field length increases and the permitted mass falls
  2. There is no effect because the field length is fixed
  3. V1 must be reduced below VMCG
  4. The balanced field length decreases and the permitted mass may increase Correct answer.

Explanation

A headwind reduces both the ground run and the air distance for the same IAS, so the field length required for a given mass falls. The aircraft can therefore operate at a higher mass within the same available distance. The opposite occurs with a tailwind.

Question 48Take-off

In the take-off flight path, why are obstacles beyond 35 ft accounted for using net rather than gross gradients?

  1. Because net gradients include a defined reduction to allow for piloting technique and turbulence Correct answer.
  2. Because gross gradients already include a safety margin
  3. Because obstacles below 35 ft are ignored entirely
  4. Because net gradients apply only with all engines operating

Explanation

Net take-off flight path gradients include a fixed reduction from the gross gradients to allow for piloting technique, turbulence and engine deterioration. Obstacle accountability uses the net path to provide a conservative clearance margin. Gross gradients are the measured performance without this allowance.

Question 49Take-off

What is the effect of a lower take-off flap setting on the first-segment climb gradient and on the field length?

  1. It improves the first-segment gradient because drag is lower, but lengthens the field length because VR and V2 are higher Correct answer.
  2. It reduces the gradient and shortens the field length
  3. It improves the gradient and shortens the field length simultaneously
  4. It has no effect on either the gradient or the field length

Explanation

A lower flap setting reduces drag, which improves the climb gradient in the first segment where the gear is still extended. However, the higher VR and V2 increase the ground run and the air distance, so the field length grows. The two effects must be balanced in performance planning.

Question 50Take-off

An aircraft must clear an obstacle at 200 ft above the take-off surface. The net second-segment gradient is 2.4 per cent and the obstacle is 4 000 m from the end of the TODA. Which statement is correct?

  1. The climb height gained is about 240 m, so the obstacle is easily cleared
  2. The gradient cannot be used to compute obstacle height
  3. The climb height gained is about 60 m, so the obstacle is not cleared
  4. The climb height gained over 4 000 m is about 96 m, so the 200 ft (61 m) obstacle is cleared Correct answer.

Explanation

A 2.4 per cent gradient gives 24 m of height per 1 000 m of horizontal distance, so over 4 000 m the aircraft gains about 96 m. The obstacle at 200 ft is about 61 m, so the net flight path clears it. The calculation uses the net gradient and the horizontal distance from the reference point.