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EASA PPL practice questions

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Question 1Air Law

Under the EASA rules for PPL privileges, a private pilot may not receive remuneration for acting as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers. Which activity is nevertheless permitted without violating this restriction?

  1. Being paid by a company to fly its directors to a meeting
  2. Sharing the direct operating costs of a flight with the passengers on board Correct answer.
  3. Charging a fee for each passenger carried on a sightseeing flight
  4. Accepting payment for delivering a aircraft on behalf of its new owner

Explanation

EASA PPL privileges allow a private pilot to carry passengers provided no remuneration is received, but the direct costs of the flight may be shared among the occupants. The sharing must be limited to genuine operating costs and must not generate profit. Any payment beyond a proportionate cost share converts the flight into commercial operation.

Question 2Air Law

Which document must a pilot-in-command ensure is on board an aircraft operating within EASA airspace, in addition to the certificate of registration and the certificate of airworthiness?

  1. The aircraft radio station licence Correct answer.
  2. The engine logbook
  3. The mass and balance report for the last weighing only
  4. The aircraft maintenance programme

Explanation

An aircraft equipped with radio equipment must carry a valid radio station licence issued by the state of registry. The registration certificate, certificate of airworthiness and, where required, the noise certificate are also carried. The maintenance programme and logbooks are records kept by the owner or maintenance organisation rather than documents carried on every flight.

Question 3Air Law

An aircraft is being operated under visual flight rules in Class C airspace. Which statement correctly describes the clearance requirement?

  1. An ATC clearance is required and the flight must be provided with separation from other IFR traffic Correct answer.
  2. A clearance is required only if the aircraft is above 3000 ft AMSL
  3. No clearance is required because VFR flights are always free to enter Class C airspace
  4. A clearance is required only when the visibility falls below 5 km

Explanation

Class C airspace is controlled airspace in which both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, but all flights require an ATC clearance. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights. This differs from Class D, where VFR flights receive traffic information only.

Question 4Air Law

Under ICAO rules, what is the minimum horizontal distance an aircraft must keep from cloud when flying VFR at and above 3000 ft AMSL in airspace where the standard VMC minima apply?

  1. 500 m
  2. 1000 m
  3. 2000 m
  4. 1500 m Correct answer.

Explanation

At and above 3000 ft AMSL, or 1000 ft above the highest obstacle, the standard VMC minima require a horizontal distance from cloud of at least 1500 m. The vertical distance from cloud must be at least 300 m, and flight visibility must be at least 8 km at higher levels or 5 km below 3050 m. These minima may be varied by the competent authority in specific airspace.

Question 5Air Law

A pilot is planning a flight and the aircraft's altimeter is set to the standard pressure setting. In the absence of a transition altitude published for the aerodrome, which value applies by default under EASA rules?

  1. 14000 ft
  2. 3000 ft
  3. 5000 ft Correct answer.
  4. 10000 ft

Explanation

Where no transition altitude is published for an aerodrome, the default transition altitude is 5000 ft AMSL. Below the transition altitude the altimeter is set to the aerodrome or area QNH, and at or above it the standard pressure setting of 1013.25 hPa is used. The transition level is determined so that adequate separation exists above the transition altitude.

Question 6Air Law

When must a pilot-in-command file a flight plan before departing on a flight that will cross an international border within Europe?

  1. Before departure, at least 30 minutes before the planned time of departure unless a shorter period is accepted by ATC Correct answer.
  2. Only after take-off, once the aircraft has established radio contact with the first controller
  3. Only if the flight will enter controlled airspace
  4. Only if the flight is conducted under IFR

Explanation

A flight plan must be filed before departure for any flight crossing an international border, and the standard advance filing time is at least 30 minutes unless ATC accepts a shorter period. The flight plan allows coordination between the air traffic services units concerned. Filing after departure is only acceptable in specific circumstances such as a flight plan filed in the air.

Question 7Air Law

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a clearance limit in an ATC clearance?

  1. The point to which an aircraft is cleared and beyond which no further clearance may be assumed Correct answer.
  2. The maximum speed permitted in the terminal area
  3. The altitude at which the aircraft must level off after departure
  4. The time by which the aircraft must vacate the runway

Explanation

The clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance. The pilot may not proceed beyond that point without a further clearance. This prevents aircraft from entering airspace for which coordination has not been completed.

Question 8Air Law

An aircraft on approach experiences a radio communication failure in IMC. According to the standard procedures, the pilot should continue the flight according to the last acknowledged clearance and then, if unable to re-establish communication, proceed in accordance with which of the following?

  1. Immediate descent below the minimum safe altitude to establish visual contact
  2. A direct track to the destination aerodrome at the highest available altitude
  3. A holding pattern at the current position until fuel is exhausted
  4. The procedures for the route and the navigation aids associated with the assigned route, and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome Correct answer.

Explanation

In the event of communication failure in IMC, the pilot should follow the last acknowledged clearance and the published communication failure procedures for the route. These generally involve maintaining the assigned route and levels, and landing at the nearest suitable aerodrome where a safe approach can be made. Squawking 7600 and continuing to transmit blind are also part of the standard actions.

Question 9Air Law

A pilot intends to operate a flight in Class G airspace under VFR at night. Which statement is correct regarding the requirement for an ATC clearance?

  1. An ATC clearance is required only above 5000 ft AMSL
  2. An ATC clearance is required at night in all classes of airspace
  3. An ATC clearance is required only if the aircraft is IFR-equipped
  4. No ATC clearance is required because Class G is uncontrolled airspace Correct answer.

Explanation

Class G is uncontrolled airspace, and flight within it does not require an ATC clearance regardless of whether the flight is conducted by day or night. However, the pilot remains responsible for maintaining VMC and for collision avoidance. Radio communication may still be required for other reasons, such as entering controlled airspace or using an aerodrome service.

Question 10Air Law

What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal directed at an aircraft on the ground from the aerodrome control tower?

  1. Stop
  2. Continue taxiing but give way to other traffic
  3. Return to the starting point
  4. Tax clear of the runway in use Correct answer.

Explanation

A flashing red light signal directed at an aircraft on the ground means that the aircraft must taxy clear of the runway in use. A steady red light means stop, and a flashing white light means return to the starting point on the aerodrome. These signals apply when radio communication is not available or has failed.

Question 11Air Law

An aircraft is on final approach and the pilot observes a series of red lights across the approach path, known as a red bar. What does this indicate?

  1. The aircraft is below the approach path and should not continue the approach Correct answer.
  2. The approach path is clear and the aircraft is on the correct glide path
  3. The runway is closed and landing is prohibited
  4. The aircraft is above the approach path

Explanation

In a precision approach path indicator system, a row of red lights across the approach indicates that the aircraft is below the correct approach path. The pilot should correct by climbing back to the correct glide path. A row of white lights would indicate that the aircraft is above the approach path.

Question 12Air Law

Which of the following statements correctly describes the requirement for a pilot to maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency while operating in controlled airspace?

  1. A listening watch is required only for IFR flights
  2. The pilot must maintain a continuous listening watch on the frequency specified by ATC and report any inability to do so Correct answer.
  3. A listening watch is optional provided the transponder is operating
  4. A listening watch is required only when the aircraft is within 10 nm of the destination

Explanation

A continuous listening watch must be maintained on the frequency specified by the air traffic services unit while the aircraft is in controlled airspace. If the pilot is unable to maintain the watch, this must be reported to ATC as soon as possible. The requirement applies to both IFR and VFR flights in controlled airspace.

Question 13Air Law

Under the EASA rules, what is the maximum permitted blood alcohol concentration for a flight crew member while exercising licence privileges?

  1. 0.8 grams of alcohol per litre of blood
  2. 0.5 grams of alcohol per litre of blood
  3. 0.2 grams of alcohol per litre of blood Correct answer.
  4. 0.0 grams of alcohol per litre of blood

Explanation

EASA rules set the limit for flight crew at 0.2 grams of alcohol per litre of blood, or 0.1 milligrams per litre of breath. This is significantly stricter than the limits typically applied to drivers. Many operators impose a stricter internal policy, and any detectable alcohol may still be grounds for refusing duty.

Question 14Air Law

A pilot is taking a prescribed medication that may impair judgement. What is the correct course of action before acting as pilot-in-command?

  1. Fly if another pilot on board holds a valid licence
  2. Fly only if the flight is conducted under VFR by day
  3. Obtain advice from an aeromedical examiner and do not fly if the medication may impair performance Correct answer.
  4. Fly provided the dose is lower than the one stated on the label

Explanation

A pilot must not act as pilot-in-command while affected by any medication that could impair judgement or performance. Advice should be sought from an aeromedical examiner or the licensing authority before flying. The presence of another pilot on board does not remove the responsibility of the pilot-in-command.

Question 15Air Law

What is the validity period of a Class 2 medical certificate for a private pilot licence holder who is under 40 years of age?

  1. 12 months
  2. 24 months
  3. 60 months Correct answer.
  4. 36 months

Explanation

For a PPL holder under 40 years of age, a Class 2 medical certificate is valid for 60 months. The validity reduces to 24 months once the holder reaches 40 and to 12 months at age 50 and above, unless a stricter national rule applies. The validity is calculated from the date of the medical examination.

Question 16Air Law

An aircraft is involved in an accident that results in serious injury to a person on board. Which of the following is the pilot's obligation under the occurrence reporting rules?

  1. Notify the competent authority as soon as possible and submit a report within the prescribed period Correct answer.
  2. Notify only the insurance company and the aircraft owner
  3. Wait until the annual report is due before notifying anyone
  4. Notify the aircraft manufacturer only

Explanation

Accidents and serious incidents must be notified to the competent authority as soon as practicable, and a written report must follow within the period set by the authority. The purpose is to allow investigation and to prevent recurrence. Notifying only the manufacturer, owner or insurer does not satisfy the regulatory obligation.

Question 17Air Law

Which of the following correctly describes the right of way between two aircraft approaching head-on at the same altitude?

  1. The aircraft on the right must give way
  2. Both aircraft must alter course to the right Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft on the left must give way
  4. The aircraft with the higher performance must give way

Explanation

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each must alter course to the right. This rule is designed to produce a predictable and consistent avoidance manoeuvre. The rule applies regardless of aircraft type or performance.

Question 18Air Law

Two aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same level. Which aircraft has the right of way?

  1. The aircraft on the right Correct answer.
  2. The faster aircraft
  3. The aircraft that is descending
  4. The aircraft on the left

Explanation

When two aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft on the right has the right of way. The other aircraft must give way by altering course or altitude as appropriate. This rule does not apply when one aircraft is landing, in which case the lower aircraft normally has priority.

Question 19Air Law

An aircraft is taxiing on an aerodrome and a vehicle approaches. Which statement correctly describes the right of way?

  1. Priority depends on the relative speed of the aircraft and the vehicle
  2. The aircraft has the right of way over the vehicle, but the vehicle may be given priority by the aerodrome control tower Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft must always stop and give way to vehicles
  4. The vehicle always has priority over taxiing aircraft

Explanation

Aircraft on the manoeuvring area normally have the right of way over vehicles, but the aerodrome control tower may instruct an aircraft to give way to a vehicle such as a fire appliance responding to an emergency. Pilots should follow the instructions of the tower. Vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area require authorisation from the tower.

Question 20Air Law

What is the purpose of the 250 knot speed limit that applies below 10000 ft in most EASA airspace?

  1. To reduce the risk of collision with VFR traffic and to limit the consequences of bird strikes Correct answer.
  2. To ensure that aircraft can comply with noise abatement procedures
  3. To allow the use of a lower transponder code
  4. To reduce fuel consumption on climb and descent

Explanation

The 250 kt limit below 10000 ft reduces the closing speed between aircraft and gives pilots more time to see and avoid conflicting VFR traffic. It also limits the severity of bird strikes, which are most common at lower levels. The limit may be varied by the competent authority or by ATC for specific operations.

Question 21Air Law

An aircraft is operating under IFR and is cleared to descend to an altitude below the minimum safe altitude for the area. What should the pilot do?

  1. Descend immediately to the cleared altitude and request a terrain avoidance warning
  2. Follow the clearance without question because ATC instructions take precedence
  3. Query the clearance with ATC and maintain the minimum safe altitude until the clearance is resolved
  4. Continue the descent only if the aircraft is in visual conditions and can maintain terrain clearance Correct answer.

Explanation

The pilot-in-command remains responsible for terrain clearance and must not descend below the minimum safe altitude unless the aircraft is in visual conditions and can maintain clearance. If a clearance appears to conflict with the minimum safe altitude, the pilot should query it with ATC and maintain a safe altitude until the matter is resolved. ATC instructions do not relieve the pilot of this responsibility.

Question 22Air Law

Which of the following correctly describes the requirement for carrying a flight crew licence on board during flight?

  1. The licence is required only when flying outside the state of registry
  2. The licence and medical certificate must be carried or made available in a form acceptable to the authority Correct answer.
  3. The licence may be left at the home base if the flight is local
  4. The medical certificate is required only for commercial flights

Explanation

The pilot must be able to produce a valid licence and medical certificate when exercising licence privileges, either in physical form or in a form acceptable to the competent authority. This applies to all flights, including local flights. Failure to produce the documents on request may be treated as a breach of the rules.

Question 23Air Law

A pilot is planning a flight that will enter a restricted area. What is the correct procedure?

  1. Enter the area without permission provided the aircraft remains below 500 ft AGL
  2. Obtain permission from the authority controlling the area before entering, unless the area is inactive at the planned time Correct answer.
  3. Enter the area only if the pilot holds an instrument rating
  4. Enter the area only if the flight is conducted under IFR

Explanation

Restricted areas may only be entered with the permission of the authority controlling the area, and only when the area is active. The status of the area should be checked before flight through the appropriate aeronautical information publications or ATS. Entry without permission is a breach of airspace rules.

Question 24Aircraft General Knowledge

On a normally aspirated piston engine, what is the primary purpose of the carburettor?

  1. To meter fuel and mix it with air in the correct proportion for combustion Correct answer.
  2. To cool the induction air before it enters the cylinders
  3. To increase the pressure of the fuel before it reaches the cylinders
  4. To regulate the ignition timing according to manifold pressure

Explanation

The carburettor's job is to atomise fuel and blend it with the incoming air stream so that a combustible mixture of roughly correct ratio reaches the cylinders across the operating range. Fuel pressure raising is done by the fuel pump, and ignition timing is controlled by the magnetos.

Question 25Aircraft General Knowledge

In a four-stroke piston engine, during which stroke is the intake valve open and the piston moving down the cylinder?

  1. Intake stroke Correct answer.
  2. Exhaust stroke
  3. Compression stroke
  4. Power stroke

Explanation

The intake stroke draws the fuel-air mixture into the cylinder as the piston descends with the intake valve open. The compression and power strokes occur with both valves closed, and the exhaust stroke pushes burnt gas out through the open exhaust valve.

Question 26Aircraft General Knowledge

What does the octane rating of an aviation gasoline indicate?

  1. Its tendency to vaporise at low ambient temperatures
  2. Its energy content per kilogram compared with jet fuel
  3. Its lubricating quality for the engine's moving parts
  4. Its resistance to detonation under compression Correct answer.

Explanation

Octane rating expresses the fuel's anti-knock quality, that is, how well it resists uncontrolled detonation when compressed in the cylinder. Higher numbers mean greater resistance to knock, not more energy or better lubrication.

Question 27Aircraft General Knowledge

In a piston engine ignition system, what is the function of the magneto?

  1. To distribute compressed air to the cylinders
  2. To advance and retard the spark automatically with altitude
  3. To convert low-tension battery current into high-tension pulses
  4. To generate its own high-tension current for the spark plugs without a battery Correct answer.

Explanation

A magneto is a self-contained generator that produces the high voltage needed for the spark plugs, so the ignition does not depend on the aircraft battery. This independence is a key reason magnetos are used in light aircraft engines.

Question 28Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the purpose of the propeller governor in a constant-speed propeller system?

  1. To change the engine's compression ratio at altitude
  2. To feather the propeller automatically after every landing
  3. To measure the aircraft's airspeed for the pilot
  4. To maintain the selected engine speed by varying blade pitch Correct answer.

Explanation

The governor senses engine speed and adjusts oil pressure to the propeller hub, changing blade angle so that rpm stays at the value selected with the propeller control. It therefore regulates rpm by controlling pitch, not compression ratio or airspeed.

Question 29Aircraft General Knowledge

Which of the following is a primary function of the engine oil in an air-cooled piston engine?

  1. To provide the spark for combustion
  2. To raise the octane rating of the fuel
  3. To seal the combustion chamber and carry away heat as well as lubricate Correct answer.
  4. To increase the compression ratio at high power settings

Explanation

Oil lubricates moving parts, helps seal the piston rings, and carries heat away from internal components to the oil cooler, supplementing air cooling. It plays no part in ignition or in changing the fuel's knock resistance.

Question 30Aircraft General Knowledge

The altimeter in an aircraft is connected to which source of pressure?

  1. The engine manifold
  2. The static port only Correct answer.
  3. The pitot tube only
  4. Both the pitot tube and the static port

Explanation

The altimeter is a static-pressure instrument; it senses pressure from the static port and displays altitude based on the selected pressure setting. Pitot pressure is used for airspeed, not altitude.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge

In a light aircraft electrical system, what is the purpose of the voltage regulator?

  1. To convert alternating current into direct current for the battery
  2. To keep the generator or alternator output within safe limits for the battery and equipment Correct answer.
  3. To indicate the fuel quantity in the tanks
  4. To select which magneto fires during starting

Explanation

The voltage regulator controls the field current so that the generator or alternator output voltage stays within limits, protecting the battery and avionics from over-voltage. Rectification of AC to DC is a separate function of the alternator's rectifier.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge

A pilot selects full rich mixture before take-off at a sea-level airfield. During the climb to a higher altitude, what mixture adjustment is normally required and why?

  1. Lean the mixture, because the fuel becomes less volatile at altitude
  2. Lean the mixture, because air density falls and the fuel-air ratio would otherwise become too rich Correct answer.
  3. Leave the mixture fully rich, because altitude does not affect the mixture ratio
  4. Enrich the mixture, because the air becomes denser with altitude

Explanation

As altitude increases, air density and therefore the mass of air drawn into the engine decrease, while the fuel metered stays roughly the same, so the mixture becomes richer. Leaning restores the correct fuel-air ratio and improves combustion and economy.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge

During a run-up check, when the magneto switch is moved from BOTH to the LEFT position, the engine continues to run normally with no rpm drop. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. Both magnetos are faulty
  2. The rpm gauge is over-reading
  3. The left magneto is not functioning and the engine is running only on the right Correct answer.
  4. The engine is running on the left magneto only

Explanation

If selecting LEFT produces no drop, the engine is still firing on both plugs, which means the left magneto is not contributing and the right magneto alone is keeping the engine running. A normal check shows a small rpm drop on each magneto.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge

Why does carburettor icing occur most readily at ambient temperatures between roughly -5 °C and +15 °C with high humidity?

  1. Fuel vaporisation and pressure drop in the venturi cool the mixture below freezing, allowing ice to form Correct answer.
  2. The spark plugs short-circuit when the air is damp
  3. The fuel freezes in the tank at these temperatures
  4. The air filter blocks with ice at these temperatures

Explanation

In the venturi the pressure and temperature drop, and fuel vaporisation absorbs latent heat, so the mixture can fall below 0 °C even when outside air is well above freezing. Moisture in the air then freezes on the throttle and venturi surfaces.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge

An engine with a fixed-pitch propeller is at full throttle on the ground and the pilot notes the static rpm is lower than the published figure. Which factor could cause this?

  1. A mixture set too lean for the altitude
  2. A voltage regulator set too high
  3. A worn or incorrectly set propeller with excessive blade angle Correct answer.
  4. A magneto that is firing too early

Explanation

Static rpm depends on the power produced and the load imposed by the propeller; too much blade angle or a damaged propeller increases the load and lowers achievable rpm. Mixture, ignition timing and the voltage regulator do not directly load the propeller in this way.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the purpose of the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) gauge when setting the mixture in cruise?

  1. To identify the peak EGT and allow the pilot to lean to a chosen value relative to peak Correct answer.
  2. To show the cylinder head temperature directly
  3. To measure the manifold pressure at the intake
  4. To indicate the oil pressure in the engine

Explanation

EGT rises as the mixture is leaned and reaches a peak near stoichiometric ratio, then falls as it is leaned further. The gauge lets the pilot find peak EGT and then set the mixture to a specified value rich or lean of peak.

Question 37Aircraft General Knowledge

During a climb in a normally aspirated engine, the manifold pressure gauge reads lower than on the ground at the same throttle setting. What is the reason?

  1. The fuel pump delivers less pressure at altitude
  2. The throttle valve closes automatically with altitude
  3. The turbocharger is over-boosting the engine
  4. Ambient pressure falls with altitude, so the pressure available at the intake is reduced Correct answer.

Explanation

A normally aspirated engine can only develop intake pressure up to ambient pressure, which decreases as the aircraft climbs. The gauge therefore reads a lower value for the same throttle position.

Question 38Aircraft General Knowledge

What is the main advantage of a constant-speed propeller over a fixed-pitch propeller during cruise?

  1. It removes the need for an engine oil supply
  2. It eliminates the need for mixture control
  3. It allows the engine to run without magnetos
  4. The blade angle can be set for efficient operation across a wide range of speeds and altitudes Correct answer.

Explanation

A constant-speed propeller lets the pilot select a blade angle that keeps the engine at an efficient rpm while the aircraft speed varies, improving performance over a broad envelope. It still needs oil for the hub mechanism and does not affect ignition or mixture requirements.

Question 39Aircraft General Knowledge

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between indicated airspeed, true airspeed and altitude in a steady climb at constant indicated airspeed?

  1. Indicated airspeed increases while true airspeed stays constant
  2. True airspeed equals indicated airspeed at all altitudes
  3. True airspeed decreases as altitude rises while indicated airspeed stays constant
  4. True airspeed increases as altitude rises because the air is less dense Correct answer.

Explanation

The airspeed indicator responds to dynamic pressure, which depends on air density. At higher altitude the same indicated airspeed corresponds to a greater true airspeed because the air is thinner, so TAS exceeds IAS as altitude increases.

Question 40Aircraft General Knowledge

An aircraft is parked on the apron and the pilot notices the fuel quantity gauge reads lower than the dipstick check. What is the most likely reason?

  1. The fuel pump is running
  2. The fuel has expanded in the sun
  3. The gauge is indicating fuel quantity with the aircraft in an attitude different from the calibration attitude Correct answer.
  4. The voltage regulator is faulty

Explanation

Fuel quantity gauges are typically calibrated for level flight attitude, so on the ground with a different attitude the float or sensor reads inaccurately. A dipstick check is the reliable method before flight.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge

Why must the cylinder head temperature (CHT) be monitored during a prolonged climb in an air-cooled engine?

  1. CHT directly indicates the oil pressure
  2. Low CHT indicates the mixture is too rich
  3. CHT shows the exhaust valve timing
  4. High power and reduced cooling airflow can overheat the cylinders and damage the engine Correct answer.

Explanation

In a climb the engine runs at high power with reduced airspeed and therefore reduced cooling airflow, so cylinder temperatures can rise to damaging levels. The pilot manages this by limiting climb power or adjusting mixture and airspeed.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge

A pilot notices that the ammeter shows a discharge after start-up and remains so in flight. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. The voltage regulator is overcharging the battery
  2. The magnetos are not producing a spark
  3. The battery is fully charged and no current is needed
  4. The alternator or generator is not supplying enough current and the battery is being drained Correct answer.

Explanation

A sustained discharge indication means the electrical load exceeds the generator or alternator output, so the battery is supplying the deficit and will eventually run down. The pilot should reduce electrical load and investigate.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge

In a piston engine, what is the effect of opening the throttle rapidly from idle on a carburettor engine?

  1. The mixture momentarily leans because fuel is slower to respond than air, which can cause a stumble Correct answer.
  2. The compression ratio increases
  3. The mixture momentarily becomes too rich and the engine over-speeds
  4. The magneto timing retards automatically

Explanation

When the throttle opens quickly, airflow increases immediately but fuel delivery lags, so the mixture momentarily leans and the engine may hesitate. Accelerator pumps or economisers are used to compensate for this effect.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge

Which combination of indications would most strongly suggest detonation in a piston engine at high power?

  1. Rough running, rising CHT and falling oil pressure with high power at lean mixture Correct answer.
  2. A rise in fuel pressure with no other change
  3. Smooth running with low CHT and high oil pressure
  4. A steady drop in rpm with no change in temperature

Explanation

Detonation is uncontrolled rapid burning that produces roughness, a rapid rise in cylinder head temperature and can lead to falling oil pressure as the oil thins. The correct response is to reduce power and enrich the mixture.

Question 45Aircraft General Knowledge

Why does a turbocharged engine require a wastegate in the exhaust system?

  1. To limit boost pressure by bypassing exhaust gas around the turbine Correct answer.
  2. To cool the exhaust gas before it reaches the turbine
  3. To increase the compression ratio at altitude
  4. To supply extra fuel at high power

Explanation

The wastegate controls how much exhaust gas flows through the turbine; by bypassing some gas it limits turbine speed and therefore boost pressure to protect the engine. It does not cool the exhaust or alter compression ratio.

Question 46Aircraft General Knowledge

A pilot observes that the oil pressure gauge reads low at idle but normal at cruise power. Which explanation is most consistent with normal engine behaviour?

  1. The oil filter is blocked
  2. Oil pressure varies with engine speed and oil temperature, so lower pressure at idle is often normal Correct answer.
  3. The oil level is too high
  4. The oil pump has failed completely

Explanation

Oil pressure is generated by a pump driven by the engine, so it rises with rpm and falls as oil temperature rises and viscosity drops. A low reading at idle that recovers at cruise is generally consistent with normal operation, provided it remains within limits.

Question 47Flight Performance and Planning

In the EASA PPL mass and balance documentation, what does the term 'empty mass' (basic empty mass) of an aeroplane include?

  1. The airframe, engines, unusable fuel and full oil, plus the pilot and baggage
  2. The airframe, engines, usable fuel, crew and passengers at the time of weighing
  3. The airframe, engines, equipment, unusable fuel and full engine oil, but no crew, passengers or usable fuel Correct answer.
  4. The airframe and engines only, with all fluids drained

Explanation

Basic empty mass covers the aeroplane as delivered with fixed equipment, optional equipment actually fitted, unusable fuel and full engine oil. It excludes crew, passengers, baggage and usable fuel, which are added separately in the loading calculation. This is the starting figure from which the loading is built up.

Question 48Flight Performance and Planning

An aeroplane has a maximum structural take-off mass of 1150 kg and a maximum landing mass of 1100 kg. The trip fuel is 90 kg. What is the maximum mass at the start of the take-off run that respects the landing mass limit?

  1. 1190 kg
  2. 1150 kg
  3. 1100 kg Correct answer.
  4. 1010 kg

Explanation

The landing mass limit applies at touchdown, so the take-off mass must not exceed maximum landing mass plus the fuel burned during the flight. Here 1100 kg + 90 kg = 1190 kg, which is higher than the structural limit of 1150 kg, so the structural limit governs. The correct answer is therefore the take-off mass of 1150 kg only if fuel allows; with the landing limit considered, the permitted take-off mass is limited by the lower of the two, which is 1150 kg, not 1100 kg.

Question 49Flight Performance and Planning

Why does a forward centre of gravity position increase the take-off distance required?

  1. It reduces the stall speed and therefore shortens the ground run
  2. It increases the maximum lift coefficient of the wing
  3. It reduces the elevator authority available to rotate and increases the download on the tailplane Correct answer.
  4. It increases the thrust available from the engine

Explanation

A forward CG increases the nose-down moment, so a larger tailplane download and more elevator deflection are needed to rotate. This raises the lift required from the wing and increases the rotation speed, lengthening the take-off run. The effect also reduces climb performance after lift-off.

Question 50Flight Performance and Planning

On a given aeroplane, what is the effect of moving the centre of gravity aft towards the rear limit?

  1. The stall speed decreases and the aeroplane becomes more prone to stalling without warning Correct answer.
  2. The aeroplane becomes more stable in pitch and easier to recover from a stall
  3. The stall speed increases and longitudinal stability improves
  4. The take-off distance increases and climb gradient reduces

Explanation

An aft CG reduces the tailplane download needed in level flight, so less lift is required from the wing and the stall speed falls slightly. However, the reduced static margin means longitudinal stability and stall warning margins are degraded, making an inadvertent stall more likely. This is why the aft CG limit is a hard limit.