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Egypt Physiotherapy Licensure Exam study materials
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Egypt Physiotherapy Licensure Exam practice questions

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Question 1Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which muscle is the primary flexor of the elbow and also a strong supinator of the forearm when the elbow is flexed?

  1. Anconeus
  2. Triceps brachii
  3. Biceps brachii Correct answer.
  4. Brachialis

Explanation

The biceps brachii crosses both the shoulder and elbow joints and, because it inserts on the radial tuberosity, it supinates the forearm most effectively with the elbow flexed. Brachialis is a pure elbow flexor that does not supinate, while the triceps and anconeus extend the elbow.

Question 2Anatomy and Kinesiology

The deltoid muscle is supplied mainly by which nerve?

  1. Musculocutaneous nerve
  2. Radial nerve
  3. Axillary nerve Correct answer.
  4. Suprascapular nerve

Explanation

The axillary nerve (C5–C6) passes through the quadrangular space with the posterior circumflex humeral artery and innervates the deltoid and teres minor. This is why axillary nerve injury after shoulder dislocation causes deltoid weakness and sensory loss over the lateral shoulder.

Question 3Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which structure forms the main weight-bearing surface of the knee joint between the femur and tibia?

  1. The quadriceps tendon
  2. The patella
  3. The medial and lateral menisci Correct answer.
  4. The fibular head

Explanation

The menisci are fibrocartilaginous wedges that deepen the tibial plateaus and distribute load across the femorotibial joint, with the medial meniscus bearing more load due to its larger size and firmer attachment. They improve congruency and absorb shock during weight-bearing.

Question 4Anatomy and Kinesiology

In the anatomical position, the palms of the hands face in which direction?

  1. Medially
  2. Anteriorly Correct answer.
  3. Laterally
  4. Posteriorly

Explanation

The anatomical position is defined with the body standing erect, feet forward, upper limbs by the sides, and palms facing anteriorly (forward). This standard reference position ensures consistent use of directional terms such as flexion, extension, and pronation.

Question 5Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which muscle group produces dorsiflexion of the ankle?

  1. The peroneus longus and peroneus brevis
  2. The triceps surae
  3. The tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, and extensor hallucis longus Correct answer.
  4. The tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus

Explanation

Dorsiflexion is produced by the anterior compartment muscles of the leg, which are innervated by the deep fibular nerve. Tibialis anterior is the strongest dorsiflexor, with the extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus assisting.

Question 6Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which of the following best describes the normal resting position of the scapula on the thoracic wall?

  1. It extends from the iliac crest to the twelfth rib
  2. It lies between the second and seventh ribs, approximately 5 cm from the midline Correct answer.
  3. It lies about 2 cm medial to the vertebral column at the level of T2 to T7
  4. It sits above the first rib and covers the upper cervical spine

Explanation

The scapula normally rests over the thorax between the second and seventh ribs, with its medial border roughly 5 cm lateral to the spinous processes. This position allows the glenoid to face laterally and slightly anteriorly for optimal humeral head articulation.

Question 7Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which ligament primarily resists anterior translation of the tibia on the femur?

  1. Posterior cruciate ligament
  2. Anterior cruciate ligament Correct answer.
  3. Medial collateral ligament
  4. Lateral collateral ligament

Explanation

The anterior cruciate ligament runs from the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia to the medial side of the lateral femoral condyle and restrains anterior tibial translation. The posterior cruciate ligament resists posterior translation, and the collateral ligaments resist varus and valgus stress.

Question 8Anatomy and Kinesiology

A patient cannot abduct the shoulder through the initial 15 degrees because of a painful arc and weakness. Which muscle initiates the first 15 degrees of shoulder abduction?

  1. Supraspinatus Correct answer.
  2. Deltoid
  3. Teres major
  4. Latissimus dorsi

Explanation

Supraspinatus initiates abduction for the first 15 degrees and then works with the deltoid through the remainder of the arc. Deltoid becomes the dominant abductor after about 15 degrees, while teres major and latissimus dorsi are adductors and medial rotators.

Question 9Anatomy and Kinesiology

A patient has weakness of wrist extension with wrist drop after a mid-shaft humeral fracture. Which nerve is most likely injured?

  1. Ulnar nerve
  2. Musculocutaneous nerve
  3. Median nerve
  4. Radial nerve Correct answer.

Explanation

The radial nerve runs in the spiral groove of the humerus and supplies the wrist and finger extensors; injury produces wrist drop. Median and ulnar nerve injuries affect the forearm and hand flexors and intrinsic muscles rather than causing wrist drop.

Question 10Anatomy and Kinesiology

During a gait cycle, which muscle group is most active during the swing phase to clear the foot from the ground?

  1. Ankle dorsiflexors Correct answer.
  2. Ankle plantarflexors
  3. Knee flexors only
  4. Hip extensors

Explanation

During swing, the ankle dorsiflexors (tibialis anterior and the long extensors) lift the foot to provide ground clearance. Plantarflexors are active mainly in stance for push-off, and hip extensors drive stance-phase progression.

Question 11Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which movement occurs primarily at the atlantoaxial joint?

  1. Circumduction
  2. Rotation Correct answer.
  3. Flexion and extension
  4. Lateral flexion

Explanation

The atlantoaxial joint (C1–C2) is a pivot joint whose primary motion is rotation of the head, accounting for about half of cervical rotation. Flexion and extension occur mainly at the atlanto-occipital joint and the lower cervical spine.

Question 12Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which structure is the primary stabiliser preventing the head of the humerus from migrating inferiorly when the arm hangs at the side?

  1. The long head of the triceps
  2. The coracoacromial ligament
  3. The superior capsule and rotator cuff, particularly supraspinatus Correct answer.
  4. The glenoid labrum alone

Explanation

The superior joint capsule, coracohumeral ligament, and rotator cuff (especially supraspinatus) resist inferior humeral head translation when the arm is at rest. The labrum deepens the socket but is not the primary restraint against inferior migration.

Question 13Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which muscle is the strongest supinator of the forearm when the elbow is extended?

  1. Biceps brachii
  2. Brachioradialis
  3. Supinator Correct answer.
  4. Pronator teres

Explanation

The supinator muscle acts efficiently regardless of elbow position, whereas biceps brachii supination is strongest with the elbow flexed. With the elbow extended, the supinator is the dominant supinating muscle.

Question 14Anatomy and Kinesiology

A patient with a complete C5 spinal cord injury would most likely retain which function?

  1. Diaphragmatic breathing Correct answer.
  2. Finger abduction
  3. Wrist extension
  4. Elbow flexion

Explanation

C5 injury spares the phrenic nerve (C3–C5) and diaphragm, so breathing is preserved, while myotomes below C5 such as elbow flexors (C5–C6), wrist extensors (C6), and intrinsic hand muscles (C8–T1) are impaired. This is why respiratory function is a key concern in higher cervical injuries.

Question 15Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which of the following best describes the role of the iliopsoas muscle during the stance phase of gait?

  1. It extends the hip to propel the body forward
  2. It flexes the hip during swing and controls hip extension in late stance Correct answer.
  3. It extends the knee during push-off
  4. It abducts the hip to stabilise the pelvis

Explanation

Iliopsoas flexes the hip during swing to advance the limb and, in late stance, eccentrically controls hip extension as the body moves over the planted foot. It does not extend the hip or knee and is not a primary pelvic abductor.

Question 16Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which bony landmark is the most reliable palpation point for locating the C7 vertebral level?

  1. The hyoid bone
  2. The vertebra prominens Correct answer.
  3. The mastoid process
  4. The angle of the mandible

Explanation

The spinous process of C7, called the vertebra prominens, is the most prominent spinous process at the base of the neck and is used to count vertebral levels. The mastoid process, mandible, and hyoid are cephalad landmarks and do not mark C7.

Question 17Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which muscle is the primary extensor of the hip during stair climbing?

  1. Sartorius
  2. Tensor fasciae latae
  3. Gluteus maximus Correct answer.
  4. Gluteus medius

Explanation

Gluteus maximus is the strongest hip extensor and is especially active during demanding tasks such as stair climbing and rising from a chair. Gluteus medius abducts the hip, and tensor fasciae latae and sartorius are flexors and abductors.

Question 18Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which of the following statements about the screw-home mechanism of the knee is correct?

  1. It is absent in weight-bearing and present only in non-weight-bearing
  2. It occurs at the end of knee flexion and unlocks the joint
  3. It is produced by the popliteus muscle during extension
  4. It occurs near terminal knee extension and involves external rotation of the tibia Correct answer.

Explanation

Near terminal extension, the tibia externally rotates on the femur (or the femur internally rotates on the tibia) because of the asymmetric femoral condyles and the tension of the cruciate ligaments; the popliteus unlocks the joint by reversing this rotation at the start of flexion. This mechanism increases stability in the extended position.

Question 19Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which of the following describes the normal convexity of the thoracic spine in the sagittal plane?

  1. Lordosis
  2. Kyphosis Correct answer.
  3. Scoliosis
  4. Flat back

Explanation

The thoracic spine normally has a kyphotic curve, which is a posterior convexity in the sagittal plane. Cervical and lumbar regions are normally lordotic, and scoliosis is a lateral curvature in the coronal plane.

Question 20Anatomy and Kinesiology

A patient reports pain over the lateral epicondyle of the humerus that worsens with resisted wrist extension. Which structure is most likely involved?

  1. The common flexor origin
  2. The common extensor origin Correct answer.
  3. The ulnar collateral ligament
  4. The biceps tendon

Explanation

Lateral epicondylalgia involves the common extensor origin, particularly the extensor carpi radialis brevis, and is reproduced by resisted wrist extension. The common flexor origin is on the medial epicondyle and produces medial, not lateral, symptoms.

Question 21Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which combination correctly pairs a muscle with its primary action and nerve supply?

  1. Dorsal interossei – finger adduction – median nerve
  2. Adductor pollicis – thumb abduction – radial nerve
  3. Flexor digitorum profundus – finger flexion – ulnar nerve only
  4. Opponens pollicis – thumb opposition – median nerve Correct answer.

Explanation

Opponens pollicis lies in the thenar compartment and is innervated by the recurrent branch of the median nerve, which it uses to oppose the thumb. Flexor digitorum profundus has dual innervation, adductor pollicis is ulnar-supplied and adducts, and dorsal interossei abduct.

Question 22Anatomy and Kinesiology

During normal walking, which event marks the start of the stance phase?

  1. Mid-swing
  2. Initial contact with the heel Correct answer.
  3. Toe-off
  4. Maximum knee flexion in swing

Explanation

Stance begins at initial contact (heel strike) and ends at toe-off, comprising about 60 percent of the gait cycle. Mid-swing and maximum swing-phase knee flexion occur within the swing phase.

Question 23Anatomy and Kinesiology

Which statement about the rotator cuff force couple during overhead elevation is correct?

  1. The cuff muscles generate the majority of abduction torque above 90 degrees
  2. Scapular upward rotation is produced mainly by the rhomboids
  3. Deltoid and supraspinatus produce parallel superior forces that require no cuff balancing
  4. The inferior cuff muscles (infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres minor) compress the humeral head and resist superior migration Correct answer.

Explanation

During elevation, the deltoid pulls the humeral head superiorly, and the rotator cuff, particularly infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor, generates an inferiorly directed compressive force that keeps the head centred in the glenoid. This force couple, together with scapular upward rotation by trapezius and serratus anterior, maintains subacromial space.

Question 24Anatomy and Kinesiology

A patient has a positive Trendelenburg sign on the left during single-leg stance on the left leg. Which muscle is most likely weak?

  1. Left gluteus maximus
  2. Left iliopsoas
  3. Right gluteus medius
  4. Left gluteus medius Correct answer.

Explanation

During single-leg stance, the stance-side hip abductors must hold the pelvis level; weakness of the left gluteus medius causes the right side of the pelvis to drop, which is a positive Trendelenburg sign on the left. Gluteus maximus extends the hip, and iliopsoas flexes it, so neither explains the pelvic drop.

Question 25Physiology and Exercise Physiology

During a graded exercise test, which physiological variable typically plateaus first as exercise intensity rises toward maximal effort in a healthy young adult?

  1. Heart rate
  2. Minute ventilation
  3. Oxygen consumption (VO2) Correct answer.
  4. Blood lactate concentration

Explanation

VO2 rises linearly with workload until it reaches a plateau despite further increases in intensity, a defining criterion for VO2max. Heart rate, ventilation, and lactate continue to rise beyond that point, so they do not define the plateau.

Question 26Physiology and Exercise Physiology

A physiotherapist measures a patient's resting heart rate at 70 beats per minute. Using the Karvonen method with a target of 60% heart rate reserve and an estimated maximum heart rate of 190 beats per minute, what is the target heart rate?

  1. 142 beats per minute Correct answer.
  2. 114 beats per minute
  3. 154 beats per minute
  4. 126 beats per minute

Explanation

Heart rate reserve equals maximal heart rate minus resting heart rate, here 190 − 70 = 120. Multiplying 120 by 0.60 gives 72, and adding the resting rate of 70 yields 142 beats per minute.

Question 27Physiology and Exercise Physiology

Which muscle fibre type is characterised by a high oxidative capacity, many mitochondria, and resistance to fatigue, making it suited to postural endurance work?

  1. Type IIx fibres
  2. Type IIa fibres
  3. Type IIb fibres
  4. Type I fibres Correct answer.

Explanation

Type I (slow-twitch) fibres have abundant mitochondria, high myoglobin content, and a rich capillary supply, giving them high oxidative capacity and fatigue resistance. They are recruited for sustained postural and endurance activity.

Question 28Physiology and Exercise Physiology

During a 30-second maximal sprint on a cycle ergometer, which energy system supplies the majority of ATP?

  1. The ATP-phosphocreatine system
  2. Anaerobic glycolysis Correct answer.
  3. Aerobic glycolysis
  4. Oxidative phosphorylation

Explanation

Maximal efforts lasting roughly 10 to 60 seconds rely predominantly on anaerobic glycolysis, which produces ATP rapidly from glucose with lactate formation. The phosphocreatine system dominates only the first few seconds, and oxidative metabolism contributes little at this intensity.

Question 29Physiology and Exercise Physiology

Which change in the cardiovascular system is a typical long-term adaptation to regular aerobic endurance training?

  1. Reduced capillary density in trained muscle
  2. Increased resting heart rate
  3. Reduced total blood volume
  4. Increased resting stroke volume Correct answer.

Explanation

Endurance training enlarges the left ventricular cavity and increases plasma volume, raising stroke volume at rest and during exercise. Resting heart rate falls and capillarisation increases, so the other options describe the opposite of the trained state.

Question 30Physiology and Exercise Physiology

A patient performing a static quadriceps contraction shows a rise in systolic and diastolic blood pressure with only a modest increase in cardiac output. Which mechanism best explains the diastolic rise?

  1. Peripheral vasodilatation in the active muscle
  2. Increased venous return from the muscle pump
  3. Reduced sympathetic outflow to the heart
  4. A sustained increase in total peripheral resistance Correct answer.

Explanation

Sustained isometric contraction compresses intramuscular vessels and evokes a pressor response with increased sympathetic outflow, raising total peripheral resistance. This elevates both systolic and diastolic pressure, unlike dynamic exercise where peripheral resistance falls.

Question 31Physiology and Exercise Physiology

Which lung volume cannot be measured directly with simple spirometry and requires body plethysmography or gas dilution?

  1. Residual volume Correct answer.
  2. Inspiratory reserve volume
  3. Tidal volume
  4. Expiratory reserve volume

Explanation

Residual volume is the air remaining after maximal expiration and cannot be exhaled into a spirometer, so it must be derived indirectly. Tidal volume and the reserve volumes are all measurable by spirometry.

Question 32Physiology and Exercise Physiology

During incremental exercise, the point at which minute ventilation rises disproportionately relative to oxygen consumption is best described as which threshold?

  1. The anaerobic threshold Correct answer.
  2. The respiratory exchange ratio of 0.70
  3. The ventilatory ceiling
  4. The lactate clearance ceiling

Explanation

The disproportionate rise in ventilation relative to VO2 marks the anaerobic or ventilatory threshold, reflecting increased CO2 output buffering lactic acid. It is used to estimate the lactate threshold non-invasively.

Question 33Physiology and Exercise Physiology

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease adopts pursed-lip breathing during exercise. What is the primary physiological benefit of this technique?

  1. It reduces dynamic airway collapse and air trapping Correct answer.
  2. It decreases oxygen extraction in muscle
  3. It increases residual volume
  4. It increases respiratory rate

Explanation

Pursed-lip breathing creates positive expiratory pressure that splints the airways open, reducing dynamic collapse and air trapping in patients with expiratory flow limitation. This improves gas exchange and reduces dyspnoea.

Question 34Physiology and Exercise Physiology

Which factor primarily determines the force produced by a muscle contraction according to the sliding filament theory?

  1. The number of cross-bridges formed between actin and myosin Correct answer.
  2. The concentration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum after relaxation
  3. The diameter of the motor axon
  4. The length of the tendon

Explanation

Force depends on the number of actin-myosin cross-bridges formed simultaneously, which is influenced by motor unit recruitment, fibre type, and sarcomere length. Calcium initiates cross-bridge cycling but does not directly set force magnitude once contraction is under way.

Question 35Physiology and Exercise Physiology

A patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. Which value represents the mean arterial pressure calculated with the standard formula?

  1. 80 mmHg
  2. 93 mmHg Correct answer.
  3. 120 mmHg
  4. 100 mmHg

Explanation

Mean arterial pressure is approximated as diastolic pressure plus one third of the pulse pressure. Here pulse pressure is 40 mmHg, one third is about 13, and adding 80 gives approximately 93 mmHg.

Question 36Physiology and Exercise Physiology

Which statement best describes the Bohr effect during exercise?

  1. A rise in temperature decreases oxygen delivery
  2. A fall in pH and a rise in temperature shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right Correct answer.
  3. A rise in pH increases haemoglobin oxygen affinity
  4. A fall in carbon dioxide increases oxygen unloading

Explanation

Exercising muscle produces more CO2 and hydrogen ions and generates heat, lowering pH and raising temperature. These changes shift the oxygen dissociation curve rightward, reducing haemoglobin affinity and enhancing oxygen unloading to tissue.

Question 37Physiology and Exercise Physiology

Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary and acts on the collecting ducts to increase water reabsorption during exercise-induced dehydration?

  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.
  3. Aldosterone
  4. Atrial natriuretic peptide

Explanation

Antidiuretic hormone, released from the posterior pituitary, increases water permeability of the collecting ducts and reduces urine output. Aldosterone acts on sodium reabsorption, while atrial natriuretic peptide promotes sodium and water loss.

Question 38Physiology and Exercise Physiology

A therapist applies a cold pack to a muscle for 15 minutes. Which physiological response is expected in the treated tissue?

  1. Reduced local blood flow through vasoconstriction Correct answer.
  2. Increased capillary permeability
  3. Increased metabolic rate in the muscle
  4. Increased nerve conduction velocity

Explanation

Local cooling causes cutaneous and muscle vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow and helping limit oedema and inflammation. It also slows nerve conduction and lowers metabolic rate, so the other options describe the opposite effect.

Question 39Physiology and Exercise Physiology

Which proprioceptor is primarily responsible for detecting muscle length and the velocity of stretch?

  1. Joint capsule mechanoreceptor
  2. Pacinian corpuscle
  3. Muscle spindle Correct answer.
  4. Golgi tendon organ

Explanation

Muscle spindles lie parallel to extrafusal fibres and signal both the magnitude and rate of stretch, driving the stretch reflex. Golgi tendon organs sense tension instead of length.

Question 40Physiology and Exercise Physiology

A patient performs a 10-repetition maximum set of resistance exercise. Which acute hormonal response is most characteristic immediately after the session?

  1. A fall in catecholamines
  2. A rise in testosterone and growth hormone Correct answer.
  3. A rise in insulin sensitivity lasting seconds
  4. A fall in cortisol

Explanation

Heavy resistance exercise acutely raises circulating testosterone, growth hormone, and catecholamines, which support tissue remodelling and fuel mobilisation. Cortisol also typically rises rather than falls.

Question 41Physiology and Exercise Physiology

A patient's exercise test shows a respiratory exchange ratio of 1.10 near peak effort. What does this value most likely indicate?

  1. Resting metabolism
  2. Predominantly fat oxidation
  3. Predominantly carbohydrate oxidation with hyperventilation Correct answer.
  4. A measurement error requiring test termination

Explanation

A respiratory exchange ratio above 1.00 indicates that carbohydrate is the dominant fuel and that hyperventilation is blowing off extra CO2, a common finding near maximal effort. It does not by itself invalidate the test.

Question 42Physiology and Exercise Physiology

Which mechanism explains the increase in stroke volume seen during dynamic exercise in a healthy adult?

  1. Increased end-diastolic volume and enhanced myocardial contractility Correct answer.
  2. Reduced circulating catecholamines
  3. Reduced venous return and reduced sympathetic stimulation
  4. Increased afterload with unchanged preload

Explanation

Dynamic exercise increases venous return through the muscle pump and respiratory pump, raising preload and end-diastolic volume. Sympathetic stimulation and circulating catecholamines also increase contractility, together elevating stroke volume.

Question 43Physiology and Exercise Physiology

Which statement about delayed-onset muscle soreness is most accurate?

  1. It peaks immediately after exercise and resolves within one hour
  2. It is caused by lactic acid accumulation
  3. It typically peaks 24 to 72 hours after unaccustomed eccentric exercise Correct answer.
  4. It indicates muscle fibre rupture requiring immobilisation

Explanation

Delayed-onset muscle soreness usually appears 24 to 72 hours after unaccustomed eccentric exercise and reflects microdamage and the associated inflammatory response. Lactic acid is cleared within about an hour and does not cause the delayed pain.

Question 44Physiology and Exercise Physiology

During a graded exercise test, a patient's systolic blood pressure rises from 120 to 180 mmHg while diastolic pressure remains stable. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. This indicates a loss of sympathetic tone
  2. This indicates falling total peripheral resistance with reduced cardiac output
  3. This is an abnormal response requiring immediate termination
  4. This is a normal response reflecting increased cardiac output Correct answer.

Explanation

Systolic pressure normally rises with exercise because cardiac output increases, while diastolic pressure stays relatively constant as peripheral resistance falls in active muscle. A widening pulse pressure of this kind is expected in a healthy response.

Question 45Pathology and Medical Sciences

A patient with a healed mid-shaft tibial fracture develops a painless, hard swelling at the fracture site. Which pathological process best explains this finding?

  1. Chronic osteomyelitis with sequestrum formation
  2. Malignant transformation of osteoblasts into osteosarcoma
  3. Callus formation with subsequent bony remodelling Correct answer.
  4. Avascular necrosis of the fracture fragments

Explanation

Fracture healing proceeds through haematoma, soft callus, hard callus and remodelling, so a firm painless swelling at the site of a healed fracture represents normal callus and remodelling. Malignancy and infection would typically produce pain, systemic features or destructive radiological change rather than a stable hard swelling.

Question 46Pathology and Medical Sciences

Which cell type is primarily responsible for bone resorption during normal remodelling?

  1. Osteoblast
  2. Osteoclast Correct answer.
  3. Chondrocyte
  4. Osteocyte

Explanation

Osteoclasts are multinucleated cells derived from the monocyte-macrophage lineage that secrete acid and proteases to resorb bone. Osteoblasts form bone, osteocytes are mature mechanosensing cells within matrix, and chondrocytes produce cartilage.

Question 47Pathology and Medical Sciences

A 62-year-old woman has a distal radius fracture after a fall from standing height. Which underlying condition most strongly predisposes to this fragility fracture?

  1. Paget disease of bone
  2. Osteoporosis Correct answer.
  3. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  4. Osteopetrosis

Explanation

Osteoporosis reduces bone mineral density and microarchitectural quality, so low-energy fractures of the distal radius, hip and vertebrae are typical. The other disorders alter bone texture or density but are far less common causes of a standard fragility fracture in this age group.

Question 48Pathology and Medical Sciences

Which of the following is the most characteristic early electrodiagnostic finding in a demyelinating neuropathy such as Guillain-Barré syndrome?

  1. Prolonged distal latency and slowed conduction velocity with conduction block Correct answer.
  2. Normal sensory nerve action potentials with absent F waves only
  3. Fibrillation potentials in relaxed muscle as the earliest sign
  4. Reduced compound muscle action potential amplitude with normal conduction velocity

Explanation

Demyelination slows saltatory conduction, so nerve conduction studies show prolonged distal latencies, reduced conduction velocity and conduction block or temporal dispersion. Axonal loss, by contrast, reduces response amplitudes while conduction velocity is relatively preserved.

Question 49Pathology and Medical Sciences

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has a barrel-shaped chest and pursed-lip breathing. Which primary mechanism explains hyperinflation in this condition?

  1. Fixed upper airway obstruction at the larynx
  2. Restrictive fibrosis of the chest wall
  3. Loss of alveolar elastic recoil with airway collapse on expiration Correct answer.
  4. Increased elastic recoil of the lung parenchyma

Explanation

Emphysema destroys alveolar walls and elastin, reducing elastic recoil so that airways collapse during expiration and air trapping develops. The resulting increase in residual volume and functional residual capacity produces hyperinflation and a barrel chest.

Question 50Pathology and Medical Sciences

During wound healing, which collagen type predominates in the mature scar that replaces the initial provisional matrix?

  1. Type I collagen Correct answer.
  2. Type II collagen
  3. Type III collagen
  4. Type IV collagen

Explanation

Early granulation tissue is rich in type III collagen, but during remodelling it is progressively replaced by stronger type I collagen, which dominates mature scar. Type II is found in hyaline cartilage and type IV in basement membranes.