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CITM practice questions

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Question 1IT Strategy and Governance

In IT governance, which concept describes the decision rights and accountability framework that determines how IT-related decisions are made and monitored?

  1. Enterprise architecture
  2. IT governance Correct answer.
  3. IT portfolio management
  4. IT service management

Explanation

IT governance defines who holds decision rights and accountability for IT, and how those decisions are made and monitored. It is a decision-rights framework, not a service-delivery or architecture discipline.

Question 2IT Strategy and Governance

A governance board wants a single framework that links IT goals to business goals and separates governance from management activities. Which framework is designed primarily for this purpose?

  1. ISO/IEC 27001
  2. TOGAF
  3. COBIT Correct answer.
  4. ITIL

Explanation

COBIT is an IT governance framework that connects enterprise goals to IT goals and distinguishes governance from management across its domains. ITIL, TOGAF, and ISO/IEC 27001 address service management, architecture, and information security respectively.

Question 3IT Strategy and Governance

Which artifact typically states an organization's long-term IT direction and the principles that guide IT decision-making?

  1. Change request log
  2. IT strategy Correct answer.
  3. Service level agreement
  4. Disaster recovery plan

Explanation

An IT strategy sets the long-term direction for technology and articulates guiding principles that shape decisions and investment. Operational artifacts such as SLAs, recovery plans, and change logs support execution rather than direction-setting.

Question 4IT Strategy and Governance

In a governance model, what distinguishes 'governance' from 'management' according to widely used IT governance frameworks?

  1. Governance executes daily operations, while management sets policy
  2. Governance applies only to security, while management applies to all IT
  3. Governance is performed only by external auditors, while management is internal
  4. Governance evaluates and directs, while management plans and executes Correct answer.

Explanation

Governance is concerned with evaluating options, setting direction, and monitoring outcomes, while management plans, builds, runs, and monitors activities within that direction. The two are complementary but distinct in purpose and accountability.

Question 5IT Strategy and Governance

A company's IT steering committee meets quarterly to approve major IT investments and review performance against objectives. Which governance mechanism does this committee primarily represent?

  1. A formal decision-making and oversight body Correct answer.
  2. A vendor procurement function
  3. An incident escalation team
  4. A technical change advisory board

Explanation

A steering committee is a formal governance body that holds decision rights for investment approval and performance oversight. Change advisory boards, incident teams, and procurement functions operate at more operational levels.

Question 6IT Strategy and Governance

Which term describes the practice of aligning IT investment and priorities with business objectives to maximize value?

  1. Root cause analysis
  2. IT-business alignment Correct answer.
  3. Configuration management
  4. Capacity planning

Explanation

IT-business alignment is the ongoing practice of ensuring IT priorities and investments support business goals. Capacity planning, configuration management, and root cause analysis are operational disciplines, not alignment practices.

Question 7IT Strategy and Governance

What is the primary purpose of a governance 'RACI' matrix in an IT organization?

  1. To rank IT projects by financial return
  2. To clarify who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for activities Correct answer.
  3. To define service availability targets
  4. To schedule hardware refresh cycles

Explanation

A RACI matrix assigns roles for activities so that responsibility and accountability are unambiguous. It does not rank investments, set availability targets, or schedule hardware.

Question 8IT Strategy and Governance

Which of the following best describes a 'guiding principle' in an IT strategy document?

  1. A one-time project milestone
  2. A list of approved software vendors
  3. A contractual penalty clause
  4. A durable statement that shapes how IT decisions are made across the organization Correct answer.

Explanation

Guiding principles are durable, decision-shaping statements intended to guide behavior and choices consistently. Milestones, penalty clauses, and vendor lists are tactical or contractual items rather than principles.

Question 9IT Strategy and Governance

An organization wants to ensure that IT risks are identified, assessed, and treated consistently across business units. Which governance component most directly addresses this need?

  1. A network capacity dashboard
  2. A software licensing register
  3. An enterprise IT risk management process with defined appetite and tolerance Correct answer.
  4. A service desk escalation matrix

Explanation

Consistent risk handling requires a defined risk management process with stated appetite and tolerance levels that guide treatment decisions. The other options are operational records or monitoring tools that do not govern risk treatment.

Question 10IT Strategy and Governance

A CIO must decide whether to build a custom analytics platform or adopt a cloud service. Which governance artifact would most directly constrain and guide this decision?

  1. The incident management procedure
  2. Architecture principles and technology standards Correct answer.
  3. The backup restoration schedule
  4. The service catalogue description

Explanation

Architecture principles and technology standards set constraints and preferred directions that shape build-versus-buy decisions. Incident procedures, backup schedules, and catalogue descriptions support operations rather than solution selection.

Question 11IT Strategy and Governance

In IT portfolio management, what is the main purpose of segmenting investments into categories such as 'run the business', 'grow the business', and 'transform the business'?

  1. To determine staff training requirements
  2. To assign each project a unique identifier
  3. To balance spending across maintenance, growth, and transformation and expose trade-offs Correct answer.
  4. To calculate depreciation of IT assets

Explanation

Segmenting the portfolio by investment intent makes trade-offs visible and supports balanced allocation between keeping operations running, growing, and transforming. It is not an identification, accounting, or training activity.

Question 12IT Strategy and Governance

A regulator requires the organization to demonstrate that IT controls are effective over time. Which governance practice best provides this assurance?

  1. Monthly publication of the service catalogue
  2. Quarterly refresh of the intranet
  3. Periodic independent control testing and reporting to an oversight body Correct answer.
  4. Annual review of the IT org chart

Explanation

Assurance that controls operate effectively comes from periodic independent testing with results reported to those charged with oversight. Organizational charts, catalogues, and intranet updates do not test control effectiveness.

Question 13IT Strategy and Governance

Which outcome most clearly indicates that IT governance is functioning effectively?

  1. The data center has redundant power supplies
  2. IT investment decisions are traceable to business objectives and reviewed for outcomes Correct answer.
  3. All IT staff report to the CIO
  4. The service desk resolves most tickets within a day

Explanation

Effective governance is evidenced by transparent, traceable decisions tied to business objectives and evaluated for results. Reporting lines, ticket resolution speed, and infrastructure redundancy are operational indicators, not governance outcomes.

Question 14IT Strategy and Governance

A business unit bypasses the approved IT intake process and purchases a SaaS tool directly. From a governance perspective, what is the most significant consequence?

  1. Faster completion of the annual audit
  2. Shadow IT that escapes risk, security, and integration oversight Correct answer.
  3. Improved alignment with architecture standards
  4. Reduced software licensing costs

Explanation

Bypassing intake creates shadow IT, meaning the tool is deployed without security review, risk assessment, or architectural fit checks. This typically increases rather than reduces cost and compliance exposure.

Question 15IT Strategy and Governance

What is the primary role of an IT governance charter?

  1. To record user access requests
  2. To define the governance body's mandate, scope, membership, and decision authority Correct answer.
  3. To list open incidents by priority
  4. To specify detailed server configurations

Explanation

A governance charter establishes the mandate, scope, composition, and authority of the governing body so its decisions carry legitimacy. Configuration details, access requests, and incident lists are operational records.

Question 16IT Strategy and Governance

An organization is defining metrics for IT governance. Which characteristic is most important for a governance metric to be useful to the board?

  1. It is expressed only in technical units
  2. It changes frequently to reflect daily operations
  3. It is easy to collect from any system
  4. It measures outcomes tied to strategic objectives rather than activity volume Correct answer.

Explanation

Board-level governance metrics should reflect achievement of strategic objectives and outcomes, not just activity. Ease of collection, volatility, and technical units do not make a metric meaningful for oversight.

Question 17IT Strategy and Governance

Which statement best captures the relationship between enterprise architecture and IT governance?

  1. They are unrelated disciplines with no interaction
  2. Governance designs application interfaces while architecture approves budgets
  3. Architecture provides the standards and target state that governance enforces through decision rights Correct answer.
  4. Architecture replaces the need for any governance body

Explanation

Enterprise architecture defines target states and standards, while governance supplies the decision rights and enforcement mechanisms that make those standards effective. Architecture informs governance; it does not replace it.

Question 18IT Strategy and Governance

A multinational firm must comply with data protection rules in several jurisdictions. Which governance approach is most appropriate?

  1. Delegate all compliance decisions to individual developers
  2. Ignore local law where the headquarters law is stricter
  3. Apply the strictest single law everywhere without documentation
  4. Define a global policy baseline with documented local variations where law requires Correct answer.

Explanation

A global baseline with documented local exceptions balances consistency with legal obligations across jurisdictions. Undocumented or delegated approaches create compliance gaps and inconsistent controls.

Question 19IT Strategy and Governance

In a federated IT governance model, how are decision rights typically distributed?

  1. Each business unit holds complete autonomy with no central role
  2. Central and business-unit bodies share authority according to defined domains Correct answer.
  3. External regulators make operational IT decisions
  4. All decisions are made by a single central CIO office

Explanation

Federated governance splits decision authority between central and local bodies by domain, balancing standards with responsiveness. Centralized and fully decentralized models represent the opposite extremes.

Question 20IT Strategy and Governance

A company discovers that a key supplier does not meet required security controls. Which governance response is most appropriate first?

  1. Assess the risk against agreed tolerance and invoke the contractual remediation path Correct answer.
  2. Transfer the supplier's systems in-house without analysis
  3. Ignore the finding until the next annual review
  4. Immediately terminate all IT services

Explanation

The proportionate first step is to assess the risk against the organization's tolerance and use contractual mechanisms such as remediation plans. Immediate termination or inaction ignores both risk analysis and contractual process.

Question 21IT Strategy and Governance

Which factor most strongly justifies escalating an IT investment decision from a business unit to the enterprise governance board?

  1. The investment materially affects enterprise-wide risk or shared architecture Correct answer.
  2. The investment is below the delegated approval threshold
  3. The investment is scheduled for the next quarter
  4. The investment uses a single vendor

Explanation

Escalation is warranted when a decision has enterprise-wide implications for risk, standards, or shared platforms. Threshold, vendor count, and timing alone do not determine the appropriate decision level.

Question 22IT Strategy and Governance

An organization has strong governance documentation but consistently misses strategic IT objectives. Which diagnosis is most consistent with this pattern?

  1. Strategic objectives should be removed from IT plans
  2. Governance should be fully decentralized immediately
  3. The documentation is too detailed and should be deleted
  4. Governance is designed but not operating, indicating a gap between formal design and actual behavior Correct answer.

Explanation

Documented governance that fails to deliver outcomes points to an operating effectiveness gap, where formal design is not translated into behavior and enforcement. Deleting documents or removing objectives does not address the execution failure.

Question 23IT Strategy and Governance

A governance board approves a major transformation program but sets no stage gates or benefits review. What is the most likely governance consequence?

  1. Automatic compliance with architecture standards
  2. Loss of oversight over delivery and benefits, allowing drift and value erosion Correct answer.
  3. Reduced need for risk management
  4. Faster delivery with guaranteed benefits realization

Explanation

Without stage gates and benefits reviews, the board loses visibility and control over delivery progress and value realization, allowing scope drift and eroded benefits. Speed, compliance, and risk reduction are not assured by removing oversight.

Question 24IT Strategy and Governance

Two business units propose conflicting platforms for the same capability. Which governance mechanism most directly resolves this in a way that preserves accountability?

  1. A monthly capacity report
  2. A service desk priority queue
  3. An informal agreement between the two unit managers
  4. A defined architecture review board with authority to decide and document exceptions Correct answer.

Explanation

A review board with explicit decision authority resolves conflicts transparently and records exceptions, preserving accountability. Informal agreements and operational reports lack the authority and documentation needed.

Question 25IT Strategy and Governance

A board wants assurance that IT risk appetite is being respected across a decentralized organization. Which evidence set is most probative?

  1. A list of all IT policies published on the intranet
  2. The count of open service tickets by category
  3. The number of IT staff holding certifications
  4. Risk register trends, exception approvals, and tested control results aggregated across units Correct answer.

Explanation

Evidence of risk appetite being respected comes from trends in the risk register, documented exception approvals, and tested control effectiveness aggregated across units. Policy lists, certifications, and ticket counts do not demonstrate risk tolerance compliance.

Question 26IT Strategy and Governance

In IT strategy and governance, which statement best defines the scope of IT governance as distinct from day-to-day IT management?

  1. IT governance is the technical architecture standard that specifies approved hardware and software configurations for the estate.
  2. IT governance is the annual budget line that funds infrastructure refresh and software licensing across the enterprise.
  3. IT governance is the set of operational procedures that service desk staff follow to resolve incidents within agreed service levels.
  4. IT governance defines who decides, what criteria are used, and how accountability is enforced for IT-related decisions; management executes those decisions. Correct answer.

Explanation

Governance is about decision rights and accountability frameworks, not about executing the work. It answers who is empowered to make IT decisions, against which criteria, and how performance is subsequently monitored. Operational procedures, technical standards, and budget lines are instruments used within the managed environment rather than the governance system itself.

Question 27IT Strategy and Governance

An organization is designing its IT governance arrangements and wants decisions to be made by the parties who hold relevant knowledge, while still keeping enterprise-wide coherence. Which design choice best reflects this aim?

  1. Delegate all IT decisions to business units and rely on voluntary coordination between them.
  2. Outsource decision-making to the primary technology vendor so that expert advice drives the choices.
  3. Assign decision rights to defined roles at the level where the knowledge sits, with escalation paths for enterprise-wide impacts. Correct answer.
  4. Centralize all IT decisions in the CIO's office so that a single authority resolves every trade-off.

Explanation

Effective governance locates decision rights deliberately, matching authority to the level holding the necessary knowledge, while retaining clear escalation for decisions with cross-enterprise consequences. This preserves both local responsiveness and enterprise coherence. The other options either over-concentrate authority, abandon coordination, or transfer accountability outside the organization.

Question 28IT Strategy and Governance

A governance committee is reviewing whether an IT initiative should proceed to full funding. Which set of evidence most directly supports a stage-gate decision of this kind?

  1. The number of staff who have expressed interest in the initiative and the seniority of its sponsor.
  2. The volume of documentation produced during the concept phase and the frequency of team meetings held.
  3. Validated business case, assessed risks and dependencies, delivery readiness, and confirmed funding availability. Correct answer.
  4. The vendor's market share and the length of the proposed contract term.

Explanation

A stage gate tests whether an initiative has earned the right to consume further investment, which requires evidence on value, risk, readiness, and affordability. These dimensions let the committee make a defensible continue, hold, or stop decision. Interest levels, vendor standing, and documentation volume do not demonstrate that the investment case holds.

Question 29IT Strategy and Governance

A newly appointed CIO finds that business units fund their own technology purchases, architecture standards are advisory only, and no forum exists to arbitrate cross-unit conflicts. Which governance intervention addresses the root cause most directly?

  1. Commission an external benchmark report comparing IT spending ratios with industry peers.
  2. Increase the IT service desk headcount to handle the growing volume of support requests.
  3. Introduce a monthly technology newsletter to raise awareness of standards among business staff.
  4. Establish an enterprise decision forum with defined membership, decision rights, and a mandate to enforce architecture standards. Correct answer.

Explanation

The described symptoms point to absent decision rights and enforcement, so the remedy is a body with explicit authority, membership, and a mandate to arbitrate and enforce standards. Communication and benchmarking may support that body but cannot substitute for it. Adding support capacity treats a symptom rather than the governance gap.

Question 30IT Strategy and Governance

A governance board wants an assurance mechanism that reveals whether IT risk appetite is being respected between formal reviews, not only at the point of annual assessment. Which design best meets that requirement?

  1. A policy statement signed by executives confirming that risk appetite is understood across the IT function.
  2. A quarterly training session in which staff are reminded of the organization's risk management framework.
  3. An annual internal audit of the IT risk register, with findings reported to the audit committee twelve months later.
  4. Continuous or periodic risk indicator reporting against defined appetite thresholds, with escalation triggers and owners assigned. Correct answer.

Explanation

Assurance between reviews requires timely, measurable signals tied to the appetite thresholds, together with pre-agreed escalation and accountability. Indicator reporting provides that continuous visibility and makes breaches actionable. Annual audits, signed statements, and training support the framework but do not show whether appetite is currently being respected.

Question 31IT Service Management and Operations

In ITIL 4, which component of the service value system describes the specific configurations of people, processes, and technology used to deliver a service?

  1. The four dimensions of service management Correct answer.
  2. The guiding principles
  3. The service value chain
  4. The governance element

Explanation

The four dimensions (organizations and people, information and technology, partners and suppliers, value streams and processes) describe the perspectives that must be balanced to deliver value. The service value chain is a set of activities, not a set of dimensions.

Question 32IT Service Management and Operations

A service desk wants every incident to be logged with a category so that trend analysis is possible. Which practice in ITIL 4 most directly owns the recording and categorization of incidents?

  1. Service request management
  2. Problem management
  3. Service configuration management
  4. Incident management Correct answer.

Explanation

Incident management is the practice that aims to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible, and it includes logging and categorizing incidents. Problem management investigates underlying causes, while service request management handles pre-approved user requests.

Question 33IT Service Management and Operations

An SLA states that a service must be available 99.9% of the time during a calendar month. Which metric should the service manager calculate to verify compliance?

  1. Mean time to restore service
  2. Percentage of changes that were successful
  3. Actual uptime divided by agreed uptime for the month Correct answer.
  4. Number of incidents divided by number of users

Explanation

Availability is measured as the proportion of the agreed service time during which the service was actually available. Dividing actual uptime by agreed uptime for the measurement window yields the availability percentage that can be compared with the SLA target.

Question 34IT Service Management and Operations

Which statement best describes the purpose of a configuration management database (CMDB)?

  1. It holds records of configuration items and their relationships. Correct answer.
  2. It stores the agreed service levels for each customer.
  3. It lists the employees authorized to approve changes.
  4. It contains the scripts used to deploy applications.

Explanation

A CMDB is a database that stores configuration records throughout their lifecycle, including the attributes and relationships of configuration items. It supports impact analysis and other service management activities that depend on knowing how components relate.

Question 35IT Service Management and Operations

A user reports that a printer is producing blank pages. The first-line analyst resolves it within ten minutes using a known workaround. Which incident management activity has most directly enabled this fast resolution?

  1. Performing a post-implementation review
  2. Raising a major incident
  3. Using a known error record with a documented workaround Correct answer.
  4. Submitting a request for change

Explanation

Known error records document the root cause of an incident and, where available, a workaround. Access to such a record lets first-line staff resolve matching incidents quickly without full diagnosis.

Question 36IT Service Management and Operations

Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-formed problem statement in problem management?

  1. It specifies the disciplinary action to be taken.
  2. It names the individual who reported the issue.
  3. It estimates the cost of the replacement hardware.
  4. It describes the observed symptoms and the affected services. Correct answer.

Explanation

A problem statement should describe the symptoms, the services and users affected, and the timeframe so that investigation can be scoped. Identifying the reporter or prescribing discipline does not help diagnose the underlying cause.

Question 37IT Service Management and Operations

Which practice ensures that risks are assessed and that changes are scheduled and authorized before deployment?

  1. Change enablement Correct answer.
  2. Service desk
  3. Deployment management
  4. Release management

Explanation

Change enablement maximizes the number of successful service and product changes by assessing risk, authorizing changes, and managing the change schedule. Release management makes services available, and deployment management moves components into live environments.

Question 38IT Service Management and Operations

An organization wants to reduce the time taken to restore service after incidents. Which metric should it track and trend over time?

  1. Mean time to restore service Correct answer.
  2. Change lead time
  3. Mean time between failures
  4. First-contact resolution rate

Explanation

Mean time to restore service measures the average elapsed time from incident occurrence to service restoration, so it directly reflects recovery speed. Tracking its trend shows whether restoration is improving.

Question 39IT Service Management and Operations

A service is delivered by an internal team, a cloud provider, and an external support vendor. Which ITIL 4 dimension is most concerned with managing these relationships and shared responsibilities?

  1. Partners and suppliers Correct answer.
  2. Information and technology
  3. Organizations and people
  4. Value streams and processes

Explanation

The partners and suppliers dimension covers the organizations involved in designing, building, delivering, and improving services, including their contracts and shared responsibilities. It is the dimension explicitly concerned with external and internal supplier relationships.

Question 40IT Service Management and Operations

A change is assessed as low risk, routine, and well understood, with a documented procedure. Which change model is most appropriate?

  1. Normal change with full CAB approval
  2. Major change requiring board sign-off
  3. Emergency change
  4. Standard change Correct answer.

Explanation

Standard changes are pre-authorized, low-risk changes following a documented procedure, so they do not need individual approval each time. This streamlines handling of routine work while keeping control.

Question 41IT Service Management and Operations

A critical service fails at 02:00 and is restored by 04:30. The service desk had no monitoring alert and learned of the failure from users at 02:40. Which improvement would most directly reduce the time to detect future failures?

  1. Add more known error records
  2. Increase the number of first-line analysts
  3. Implement proactive monitoring and alerting Correct answer.
  4. Shorten the change approval process

Explanation

Detection time is the interval between failure occurrence and the moment the organization becomes aware of it. Proactive monitoring and alerting shortens this interval by notifying support staff automatically rather than waiting for user reports.

Question 42IT Service Management and Operations

Which activity belongs to the 'deliver and support' value chain activity?

  1. Analyzing demand and capacity forecasts
  2. Resolving user-initiated incidents and service requests Correct answer.
  3. Designing and transitioning new services
  4. Defining the organization's strategy

Explanation

The deliver and support activity ensures that services are delivered and supported according to agreed specifications and stakeholder expectations, which includes handling incidents and service requests. Strategy and demand analysis belong to plan, while design and transition covers new services.

Question 43IT Service Management and Operations

A service desk analyst receives a request for a new starter's standard laptop and account setup. Which practice should handle this?

  1. Service request management Correct answer.
  2. Problem management
  3. Incident management
  4. Availability management

Explanation

Service request management supports the agreed quality of a service by handling pre-defined, user-initiated requests through a request model. Standard onboarding items such as laptops and accounts fit this model.

Question 44IT Service Management and Operations

An organization is defining service level targets. Which approach best aligns targets with business needs?

  1. Copy the targets used by a competitor
  2. Set every target to the maximum technically achievable level
  3. Negotiate targets with customers based on business impact and cost Correct answer.
  4. Let the technical team set targets without customer input

Explanation

Service level targets should be agreed with customers and reflect business impact, affordability, and what is technically feasible. Negotiation balances these factors so targets are meaningful rather than arbitrary.

Question 45IT Service Management and Operations

Which statement about the relationship between incidents and problems is accurate?

  1. A problem may be identified from analysis of multiple related incidents. Correct answer.
  2. Every incident must have a corresponding problem record.
  3. Problems are always logged before incidents occur.
  4. Incident management is responsible for identifying root causes.

Explanation

Problem management identifies problems by analyzing incident trends and recurring symptoms, so one problem may be raised from several related incidents. Not every incident warrants a problem record, and root cause analysis sits with problem management.

Question 46IT Service Management and Operations

A team is mapping a value stream for password resets. Which sequence best represents the flow of activities from demand to value?

  1. Obtain/build, plan, engage, improve, design and transition, deliver and support
  2. Plan, obtain/build, engage, deliver and support, improve, design and transition
  3. Deliver and support, engage, plan, improve, obtain/build, design and transition
  4. Engage, plan, design and transition, obtain/build, deliver and support, improve Correct answer.

Explanation

A value stream starts with demand, which is captured through engage, then flows through plan, design and transition, obtain/build, and deliver and support, with improve feeding back. The first sequence reflects this order.

Question 47IT Service Management and Operations

Which practice is responsible for ensuring that users have the right to access a service at the right time?

  1. Service catalogue management
  2. Identity and access management Correct answer.
  3. Supplier management
  4. Capacity and performance management

Explanation

Identity and access management ensures that users are appropriately identified and authorized to access services according to policy. It covers granting, revoking, and reviewing access rights.

Question 48IT Service Management and Operations

A service desk receives 500 tickets per month. 350 are resolved at first contact, 100 are escalated to second line, and 50 are reopened. Which figure represents the first-contact resolution rate?

  1. 10%
  2. 70% Correct answer.
  3. 80%
  4. 90%

Explanation

First-contact resolution rate is the proportion of tickets resolved at first contact out of the total handled. Dividing 350 by 500 gives 0.70, or 70%.

Question 49IT Service Management and Operations

An organization wants to shift from reactive to proactive operations. Which combination best supports this goal?

  1. Increasing the number of change approvals required
  2. Monitoring trends, analyzing incidents, and acting on known errors Correct answer.
  3. Waiting for users to report failures and then escalating
  4. Reducing the number of service level targets

Explanation

Proactive operations depend on detecting patterns before they cause failures, so monitoring trends, analyzing incident data, and resolving known errors all reduce future disruption. Reacting only to user reports remains reactive.

Question 50IT Service Management and Operations

A change is deployed and, shortly afterward, a critical service fails. What is the most appropriate immediate action under change enablement?

  1. Close the change record as successful
  2. Assess the change record, invoke the rollback or remediation plan, and log an incident Correct answer.
  3. Cancel all future changes permanently
  4. Ignore the failure until the next scheduled change window

Explanation

When a change is suspected of causing a failure, the priority is to restore service, typically by invoking the rollback or remediation plan, while logging the incident and reviewing the change record. This preserves service continuity and supports later analysis.