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EXIN LSSA Six Sigma Green Belt study materials
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EXIN LSSA Six Sigma Green Belt practice questions

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Question 1Define

Which section of a Six Sigma Project Charter specifies the quantifiable target performance level, the baseline performance, and the target completion date without stating a solution?

  1. Goal Statement Correct answer.
  2. Problem Statement
  3. Business Case
  4. Project Scope

Explanation

The Goal Statement explicitly defines the target improvement level, baseline performance, metric, and target timeframe. It must be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) without presuming a solution.

Question 2Define

A team is developing a SIPOC diagram for a purchase order process. Where in the SIPOC framework should 'Approved Purchase Requisition' be categorized?

  1. Input Correct answer.
  2. Supplier
  3. Process
  4. Output

Explanation

An 'Approved Purchase Requisition' is a prerequisite material or information required by the process to produce the final purchase order. Therefore, it is categorized as an Input.

Question 3Define

What is the primary purpose of translating Voice of Customer (VOC) feedback into Critical to Quality (CTQ) trees?

  1. To convert broad customer feedback into specific, measurable internal process specifications Correct answer.
  2. To calculate the overall Sigma level of the customer service organization
  3. To perform root cause analysis on customer complaints using statistical significance
  4. To rank potential solutions using a weighted decision matrix

Explanation

A CTQ Tree decomposes qualitative customer requirements (VOC) into specific key drivers and quantifiable operational requirements (CTQs) that can be measured during the Measure phase.

Question 4Define

According to the Kano Model, how is a product feature categorized if its presence merely prevents customer dissatisfaction, but its absence causes extreme dissatisfaction?

  1. Must-Be (Basic) requirement Correct answer.
  2. One-Dimensional (Performance) requirement
  3. Attractive (Delighter) requirement
  4. Indifferent requirement

Explanation

Must-Be (Basic or Threshold) requirements are expected features. Customers take them for granted when present, but are extremely dissatisfied when they are missing.

Question 5Define

A production line operates 8 hours per shift with 30 minutes of scheduled downtime. If customer demand is 450 units per shift, what is the Takt Time?

  1. 60 seconds per unit Correct answer.
  2. 64 seconds per unit
  3. 53.3 seconds per unit
  4. 60 minutes per unit

Explanation

Available Operating Time = 8 hours - 0.5 hours = 7.5 hours = 450 minutes = 27,000 seconds. Takt Time = Available Operating Time / Customer Demand = 27,000 seconds / 450 units = 60 seconds per unit.

Question 6Define

In Lean terminology, what type of waste (Muda) is created when work-in-process (WIP) accumulates between processing workstations due to unbalanced line flow?

  1. Inventory Correct answer.
  2. Overprocessing
  3. Motion
  4. Defects

Explanation

Accumulated work-in-process (WIP) between operations represents Inventory waste, as capital and materials are tied up waiting for downstream processing.

Question 7Define

Which metric measures the total elapsed time from when an order is placed by a customer until the completed product or service is delivered?

  1. Lead Time Correct answer.
  2. Cycle Time
  3. Process Time
  4. Takt Time

Explanation

Lead Time spans the entire elapsed clock time from customer order receipt to final delivery, including processing, queueing, and transit time.

Question 8Define

What is the primary role of a Champion in a Six Sigma project implementation structure?

  1. To provide executive sponsorship, remove organizational roadblocks, and allocate project resources Correct answer.
  2. To lead the day-to-day data collection and statistical modeling
  3. To mentor Green Belts on advanced design of experiments (DOE)
  4. To execute process changes on the shop floor during Kaizen events

Explanation

Champions are senior executive leaders who align projects with business strategy, approve project charters, clear organizational barriers, and secure resources.

Question 9Define

Which activity is classified as Value-Add (VA) when analyzing a process workflow?

  1. Applying heat treatment to alter metal hardness according to customer engineering drawings Correct answer.
  2. Inspecting incoming raw material batches for dimension accuracy
  3. Storing finished goods in a climate-controlled warehouse prior to shipment
  4. Reworking out-of-spec dimensions on a machined valve body

Explanation

A Value-Add step meets three criteria: 1) The customer is willing to pay for it, 2) It physically transforms the product/service, and 3) It is done right the first time.

Question 10Define

A team calculates Little's Law for a healthcare intake process. If Work-in-Process (WIP) is 120 patients and the Throughput rate is 15 patients per hour, what is the average Process Lead Time?

  1. 8 hours Correct answer.
  2. 0.125 hours
  3. 1,800 hours
  4. 10.5 hours

Explanation

Little's Law states: Lead Time = Work-in-Process (WIP) / Throughput Rate. Lead Time = 120 patients / 15 patients per hour = 8 hours.

Question 11Define

Which diagram visually represents physical movement of operators, materials, or information across a facility layout to identify excess motion and transportation waste?

  1. Spaghetti Diagram Correct answer.
  2. Fishbone Diagram
  3. Affinity Diagram
  4. Pareto Chart

Explanation

A Spaghetti Diagram traces the actual physical path travelled by workers, material, or documents during a process, highlighting spatial inefficiencies and transportation waste.

Question 12Define

What is the primary difference between a current state Value Stream Map (VSM) and a process flowchart?

  1. VSM incorporates material and information flow along with timeline data showing value-add versus non-value-add time Correct answer.
  2. Flowcharts require statistical confidence intervals for every process box
  3. VSMs are only used for software processes, whereas flowcharts are for manufacturing
  4. Flowcharts include customer takt time metrics, while VSMs do not

Explanation

VSM provides a holistic system-level perspective incorporating physical material movement, information flow, inventory levels, data boxes (cycle time, changeover time), and a lower timeline separating value-add time from lead time.

Question 13Define

A team calculates the Process Cycle Efficiency (PCE) for an order fulfillment process. Total Value-Add Time is 24 minutes, and Total Lead Time is 480 minutes. What is the PCE?

  1. 5.0% Correct answer.
  2. 20.0%
  3. 4.8%
  4. 95.0%

Explanation

Process Cycle Efficiency (PCE) = (Value-Add Time / Total Lead Time) * 100%. PCE = (24 / 480) * 100% = 0.05 * 100% = 5.0%.

Question 14Define

Which quality tool uses a matrix format to correlate customer requirements (VOC) with engineering technical characteristics during Quality Function Deployment (QFD)?

  1. House of Quality Correct answer.
  2. Cause and Effect Matrix
  3. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
  4. Pugh Concept Selection Matrix

Explanation

The House of Quality is the primary matrix tool used in QFD to translate customer expectations directly into product design parameters and technical specifications.

Question 15Define

Which tool is utilized during the Define phase to establish boundary limits on what is included and excluded from the project?

  1. In-Scope / Out-of-Scope Matrix Correct answer.
  2. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
  3. Control Chart
  4. Hypothesis Matrix

Explanation

An In-Scope / Out-of-Scope matrix explicitly defines project boundaries, preventing scope creep during project execution.

Question 16Define

What type of waste (Muda) is present when workers must walk across a large warehouse to retrieve tools needed for machine setup?

  1. Motion Correct answer.
  2. Transportation
  3. Overprocessing
  4. Inventory

Explanation

Motion waste refers to unnecessary physical movement by people (walking, bending, reaching, searching) to perform tasks.

Question 17Define

A team calculates Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ). Which expenditure category represents an Internal Failure Cost?

  1. Scrap metal generated during in-house machining before shipment Correct answer.
  2. Warranty claims processed for customer field failures
  3. Routine calibration of quality test gauges
  4. Operator quality training programs

Explanation

Internal failure costs occur when defects are detected inside the facility prior to customer delivery (e.g., scrap, rework, re-inspection).

Question 18Define

What is the overall goal of the DMAIC methodology in Lean Six Sigma?

  1. To provide a structured, data-driven 5-phase problem-solving framework to reduce variation, eliminate waste, and improve process performance Correct answer.
  2. To eliminate the need for project charters and executive champions
  3. To replace statistical hypothesis testing with intuition-based trial and error
  4. To guarantee 100% automated robotic manufacturing across all operational departments

Explanation

DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control) is a rigorous, data-driven framework designed to systematically improve existing processes by eliminating defects and waste.

Question 19Measure

Which category of data describes discrete count data, such as number of defective invoices or surface scratch counts?

  1. Attribute (Discrete) Data Correct answer.
  2. Variable (Continuous) Data
  3. Interval Scale Data
  4. Ratio Scale Continuous Data

Explanation

Attribute data consists of qualitative categorizations, binary states (pass/fail), or discrete integer counts (number of errors).

Question 20Measure

An operation inspects 500 manufactured circuit boards. Each board has 10 potential defect opportunities. Inspections reveal a total of 25 defects across the sample. What is the Defects Per Million Opportunities (DPMO)?

  1. 5,000 DPMO Correct answer.
  2. 50,000 DPMO
  3. 2,500 DPMO
  4. 500 DPMO

Explanation

DPMO = [ Total Defects / (Total Units * Opportunities per Unit) ] * 1,000,000. DPMO = [ 25 / (500 * 10) ] * 1,000,000 = [ 25 / 5,000 ] * 1,000,000 = 0.005 * 1,000,000 = 5,000 DPMO.

Question 21Measure

A process consists of 3 sequential steps with first-pass yields of Y1 = 0.95, Y2 = 0.90, and Y3 = 0.98. What is the Rolled Throughput Yield (RTY) of the combined process?

  1. 83.79% Correct answer.
  2. 94.33%
  3. 95.00%
  4. 90.00%

Explanation

Rolled Throughput Yield (RTY) is the probability of a unit passing through all sequential process steps error-free without rework. RTY = Y1 * Y2 * Y3 = 0.95 * 0.90 * 0.98 = 0.8379 = 83.79%.

Question 22Measure

In a Measurement System Analysis (MSA) Gage R&R study, what does 'Repeatability' specifically evaluate?

  1. The measurement variation obtained when the same operator measures the same part multiple times using the same instrument Correct answer.
  2. The measurement variation obtained when different operators measure the same part using the same instrument
  3. The change in measurement bias across the entire operating range of the measurement tool
  4. The drift in measurement average over an extended period of time

Explanation

Repeatability (Equipment Variation or EV) measures the inherent precision of the measurement device when a single appraiser measures identical parts repeatedly under constant conditions.

Question 23Measure

A Gage R&R analysis indicates that total %GRR (Gage R&R variation relative to total process variation) is calculated at 24.5%. How should this measurement system be classified according to AIAG guidelines?

  1. Acceptable depending on application, critical nature of feature, and cost of gauge upgrade Correct answer.
  2. Fully acceptable without any reservation or modification needed
  3. Unacceptable; the measurement system must be immediately rejected and redesigned
  4. Invalid study; Gage R&R percentages cannot exceed 15%

Explanation

AIAG criteria state: %GRR < 10% is Acceptable; 10% to 30% May be acceptable based on application, risk, and cost; > 30% is Unacceptable and requires improvement.

Question 24Measure

A process has an Upper Specification Limit (USL) = 110, a Lower Specification Limit (LSL) = 90, a process mean (μ) = 100, and a standard deviation (σ) = 2.0. What is the process potential capability index (Cp)?

  1. 1.67 Correct answer.
  2. 1.33
  3. 2.00
  4. 1.00

Explanation

Cp = (USL - LSL) / (6 * σ). Cp = (110 - 90) / (6 * 2.0) = 20 / 12 = 1.6667 ≈ 1.67.

Question 25Measure

For a process with USL = 55, LSL = 45, mean (μ) = 52, and standard deviation (σ) = 1.0, what is the actual process capability index (Cpk)?

  1. 1.00 Correct answer.
  2. 1.67
  3. 2.33
  4. 0.67

Explanation

Cpk = min[ (USL - μ) / (3*σ), (μ - LSL) / (3*σ) ]. Cpu = (55 - 52) / 3 = 3 / 3 = 1.00. Cpl = (52 - 45) / 3 = 7 / 3 = 2.33. Cpk = min(1.00, 2.33) = 1.00.

Question 26Measure

What key distinction exists between capability indices (Cp, Cpk) and performance indices (Pp, Ppk)?

  1. Cp and Cpk use short-term within-subgroup standard deviation, whereas Pp and Ppk use overall total standard deviation Correct answer.
  2. Cp and Cpk are used for attribute data, while Pp and Ppk are used for continuous data
  3. Pp and Ppk assume the process is non-normal, while Cp and Cpk assume normal distribution
  4. Cp and Cpk require 10,000 samples, whereas Pp and Ppk require only 30 samples

Explanation

Short-term capability (Cp, Cpk) calculates standard deviation estimated from within-subgroup variation (e.g., R-bar / d2 or S-bar / c4), excluding between-subgroup shifts. Overall performance (Pp, Ppk) uses overall standard deviation (s) of all combined data.

Question 27Measure

A shaft manufacturing process has a specification limit USL = 25.50 mm. Baseline measurements yield a process mean of 25.20 mm and a standard deviation of 0.10 mm. What is the Z-score for the Upper Specification Limit (Z_USL)?

  1. 3.00 Correct answer.
  2. 2.50
  3. 1.50
  4. 0.30

Explanation

Z_USL = (USL - μ) / σ = (25.50 - 25.20) / 0.10 = 0.30 / 0.10 = 3.00.

Question 28Measure

When converting a short-term Z-score (Z_short) to a long-term Z-score (Z_long) to account for typical process shifts over time, what standard conventional shift value is subtracted according to Six Sigma convention?

  1. 1.5 sigma Correct answer.
  2. 1.0 sigma
  3. 0.5 sigma
  4. 3.0 sigma

Explanation

By convention in Six Sigma methodology (established by Motorola), long-term process variation experiences an average mean shift of 1.5 sigma over time. Thus, Z_long = Z_short - 1.5.

Question 29Measure

A Quality Engineer wants to estimate a population mean within a margin of error E = ±0.5 units with 95% confidence (Z = 1.96). If historical data shows a population standard deviation σ = 2.5 units, what is the minimum required sample size (n)?

  1. 97 Correct answer.
  2. 10
  3. 39
  4. 196

Explanation

Sample size formula for mean estimation: n = (Z * σ / E)^2 = (1.96 * 2.5 / 0.5)^2 = (4.9 / 0.5)^2 = (9.8)^2 = 96.04. Rounding up to the next whole integer yields n = 97.

Question 30Measure

Which sampling method selects every kth item from a continuous production line after selecting a random starting point?

  1. Systematic Sampling Correct answer.
  2. Simple Random Sampling
  3. Stratified Sampling
  4. Cluster Sampling

Explanation

Systematic Sampling involves picking units at fixed, regular intervals (e.g., every 50th part off an assembly line) following an initial random start.

Question 31Measure

In Measurement System Analysis for attribute data (Attribute Agreement Analysis), what minimum Fleiss' Kappa (κ) value demonstrates strong agreement among appraisers and standard?

  1. 0.75 or higher Correct answer.
  2. 0.10 or higher
  3. 0.40 or higher
  4. 0.25 or higher

Explanation

In Attribute Agreement Analysis, Fleiss' Kappa values > 0.75 indicate good to excellent agreement beyond chance, with values >= 0.90 required for critical quality attribute systems.

Question 32Measure

A batch of 200 assemblies is inspected, and 12 defects are found in total. What is the Defects Per Unit (DPU)?

  1. 0.06 Correct answer.
  2. 0.12
  3. 16.67
  4. 600

Explanation

Defects Per Unit (DPU) = Total Number of Defects / Total Number of Units Inspected = 12 / 200 = 0.06 defects/unit.

Question 33Measure

What does a Number of Distinct Categories (NDC) metric of 3 signify in a variable Gage R&R study?

  1. The measurement system is inadequate because NDC should be 5 or greater to resolve process variation effectively Correct answer.
  2. The measurement system is excellent, as NDC values above 2 are ideal
  3. The measurement device has 3 calibration points
  4. Three separate operators participated in the measurement study

Explanation

AIAG rules specify that NDC (Number of Distinct Categories) must be 5 or greater for a measurement system to reliably distinguish process variation. An NDC of 3 indicates poor gauge resolution.

Question 34Measure

A company produces 1,000 units. During inspection, 50 units fail initial testing and require rework. After rework, 40 of those units pass, and 10 are scrapped. What is the First Pass Yield (FPY)?

  1. 95.0% Correct answer.
  2. 99.0%
  3. 90.0%
  4. 80.0%

Explanation

First Pass Yield (FPY) = (Units Entering - Units Reworked or Scrapped) / Units Entering = (1,000 - 50) / 1,000 = 950 / 1,000 = 95.0%. FPY counts only units that pass clean without any rework.

Question 35Measure

A call center measures incoming call wait time. The target is 30 seconds. Historical data shows normal distribution with μ = 42 seconds and σ = 6 seconds. If Upper Spec Limit (USL) is 54 seconds, what is the percentage of calls exceeding USL?

  1. 2.28% Correct answer.
  2. 15.87%
  3. 50.00%
  4. 0.13%

Explanation

Z_USL = (USL - μ) / σ = (54 - 42) / 6 = 12 / 6 = +2.0. Area under standard normal curve above Z = +2.0 is 1 - 0.9772 = 0.0228 = 2.28%.

Question 36Measure

A team calculates the required sample size for an attribute proportion test (confidence level 95%, Z = 1.96). If estimated proportion p = 0.20 and margin of error E = ±0.04, what is the required sample size?

  1. 385 Correct answer.
  2. 100
  3. 600
  4. 245

Explanation

Attribute sample size formula: n = [ Z^2 * p * (1 - p) ] / E^2. n = [ (1.96)^2 * 0.20 * 0.80 ] / (0.04)^2 = [ 3.8416 * 0.16 ] / 0.0016 = 0.614656 / 0.0016 = 384.16. Rounding up yields n = 385.

Question 37Measure

A company produces 5,000 credit card applications. 200 applications contain errors. What is the yield (Y) of this process?

  1. 96.0% Correct answer.
  2. 4.0%
  3. 94.0%
  4. 98.0%

Explanation

Yield (Y) = (Total Good Units / Total Units Produced) * 100% = [ (5,000 - 200) / 5,000 ] * 100% = (4,800 / 5,000) * 100% = 96.0%.

Question 38Measure

What does a capability index Cpk equal to 1.33 indicate regarding process fallout?

  1. The process spread is 4-sigma from the nearest specification limit, producing ~64 DPMO fallout if centered Correct answer.
  2. The process is completely incapable and producing over 10% scrap
  3. The process mean is centered exactly on the lower specification limit
  4. The process standard deviation is zero

Explanation

A Cpk of 1.33 corresponds to a distance of 4 sigma between the process mean and nearest specification limit (3 * 1.33 = 4.0 sigma), representing standard industrial capability (~64 DPMO).

Question 39Measure

A Green Belt measures 100 sample parts and calculates a sample mean X-bar = 50.0 mm and sample standard deviation s = 2.0 mm. What is the 95% Confidence Interval for the population mean (Z = 1.96)?

  1. 49.608 mm to 50.392 mm Correct answer.
  2. 48.040 mm to 51.960 mm
  3. 46.080 mm to 53.920 mm
  4. 49.000 mm to 51.000 mm

Explanation

Formula for 95% Confidence Interval of the mean: CI = X-bar ± Z * (s / sqrt(n)). Margin of error = 1.96 * (2.0 / sqrt(100)) = 1.96 * (2.0 / 10) = 1.96 * 0.20 = 0.392 mm. CI = 50.0 ± 0.392 = [49.608, 50.392].

Question 40Measure

Which continuous probability distribution is symmetrical, bell-shaped, and defined completely by its mean (μ) and standard deviation (σ)?

  1. Normal (Gaussian) Distribution Correct answer.
  2. Poisson Distribution
  3. Binomial Distribution
  4. Exponential Distribution

Explanation

The Normal distribution is symmetrical and bell-shaped, fully characterized by parameters μ (location) and σ (spread).

Question 41Measure

A team calculates the Overall Equipment Effectiveness (OEE) for a CNC machine. The metrics are: Availability = 90%, Performance = 85%, and Quality = 95%. What is the OEE?

  1. 72.68% Correct answer.
  2. 90.00%
  3. 85.00%
  4. 270.00%

Explanation

OEE = Availability * Performance * Quality = 0.90 * 0.85 * 0.95 = 0.72675 = 72.68%.

Question 42Measure

What is the mathematical relationship between the standard error of the mean (SE) and population standard deviation (σ) for sample size n?

  1. SE = σ / sqrt(n) Correct answer.
  2. SE = σ * sqrt(n)
  3. SE = σ^2 / n
  4. SE = σ / n

Explanation

By the Central Limit Theorem, the standard error of the sampling distribution of sample means is SE = σ / sqrt(n).

Question 43Measure

A production process has a target dimension of 100.0 mm. USL = 105.0 mm and LSL = 95.0 mm. If process mean μ = 101.0 mm and σ = 1.0 mm, what is Cpu?

  1. 1.33 Correct answer.
  2. 2.00
  3. 1.67
  4. 1.00

Explanation

Cpu = (USL - μ) / (3 * σ) = (105.0 - 101.0) / (3 * 1.0) = 4.0 / 3.0 = 1.333 ≈ 1.33.

Question 44Measure

During a process capability study, 25 subgroups of size n = 4 were collected. The overall average range R-bar = 2.0 mm. Given d2 = 2.059 for n = 4, what is the estimated within-subgroup standard deviation (σ_within)?

  1. 0.971 mm Correct answer.
  2. 4.118 mm
  3. 1.030 mm
  4. 0.500 mm

Explanation

Formula for estimated within-subgroup standard deviation: σ_within = R-bar / d2 = 2.0 / 2.059 = 0.9713 ≈ 0.971 mm.

Question 45Measure

A process has USL = 80, LSL = 60, mean μ = 70, and σ = 5.0. What is the process potential capability index Cp?

  1. 0.67 Correct answer.
  2. 1.33
  3. 1.00
  4. 2.00

Explanation

Cp = (USL - LSL) / (6 * σ) = (80 - 60) / (6 * 5.0) = 20 / 30 = 0.6667 ≈ 0.67.

Question 46Measure

A company manufactures electronic components. Total parts produced = 10,000. Total defects found = 50. Opportunities per part = 5. What is the DPMO?

  1. 1,000 DPMO Correct answer.
  2. 5,000 DPMO
  3. 500 DPMO
  4. 10,000 DPMO

Explanation

DPMO = [ Defects / (Units * Opportunities) ] * 1,000,000 = [ 50 / (10,000 * 5) ] * 1,000,000 = [ 50 / 50,000 ] * 1,000,000 = 0.001 * 1,000,000 = 1,000 DPMO.

Question 47Analyze

Which basic quality tool organizes potential root causes into standardized categories such as Manpower, Machine, Material, Method, Measurement, and Milieu (Environment)?

  1. Fishbone (Ishikawa) Diagram Correct answer.
  2. Pareto Chart
  3. Scatter Diagram
  4. Histogram

Explanation

The Cause-and-Effect (Fishbone or Ishikawa) diagram uses the 6Ms framework to systematically brainstorm and categorize potential causes of a specific problem.

Question 48Analyze

A Pareto chart analysis of call center complaints shows the following count distribution: - Long Wait Times: 400 complaints - Dropped Calls: 250 complaints - Incorrect Invoicing: 150 complaints - Agent Unhelpfulness: 100 complaints - System Glitches: 100 complaints What cumulative percentage of total complaints is represented by the top two categories combined?

  1. 65.0% Correct answer.
  2. 40.0%
  3. 80.0%
  4. 50.0%

Explanation

Total complaints = 400 + 250 + 150 + 100 + 100 = 1,000 complaints. Top two categories = Long Wait Times (400) + Dropped Calls (250) = 650 complaints. Cumulative percentage = (650 / 1,000) * 100% = 65.0%.

Question 49Analyze

In statistical hypothesis testing, what does a p-value of 0.023 signify when testing at a significance level of α = 0.05?

  1. Reject the null hypothesis (H0); there is statistically significant evidence of a difference or effect Correct answer.
  2. Fail to reject the null hypothesis (H0); there is no significant difference
  3. Accept the null hypothesis as proven 100% true
  4. Increase the sample size because the test is inconclusive

Explanation

Rule: If p-value <= α (0.023 <= 0.05), reject the null hypothesis H0. The result is statistically significant at the 5% level.

Question 50Analyze

What type of error is committed when a practitioner rejects the null hypothesis (H0) when H0 is actually true?

  1. Type I Error (α producer's risk) Correct answer.
  2. Type II Error (β consumer's risk)
  3. Systematic Bias Error
  4. Measurement Resolution Error

Explanation

Type I error occurs when H0 is true, but we incorrectly reject it (false positive). The probability of Type I error is α.