I85PREP
⌘ K
FAA AGI Advanced Ground Instructor study materials
FAA AGI Advanced Ground Instructor study resources

FAA AGI Advanced Ground Instructor practice questions

One question at a time. Build your FAA AGI Advanced Ground Instructor understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

Which set of ratings may be issued on a ground instructor certificate?

  1. Recreational, sport, and private
  2. Primary, secondary, and advanced
  3. Private, commercial, and airline transport
  4. Basic, advanced, and instrument Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 61.213 provides for basic, advanced, and instrument ground instructor ratings. The basic rating covers ground training for private, recreational, and sport certificates; the advanced rating covers private, commercial, and airline transport; the instrument rating covers instrument ground training.

Question 2Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

What class of medical certificate is required to exercise the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate?

  1. Third class
  2. Second class Correct answer.
  3. No medical certificate is required
  4. First class

Explanation

14 CFR 61.23 requires at least a second-class medical certificate to exercise commercial pilot privileges. A first-class certificate also satisfies the requirement, but a third-class certificate does not.

Question 3Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

A flight review required by 14 CFR 61.56 consists of

  1. Two hours of flight training and no ground training
  2. Three hours of flight training with no ground training
  3. One hour of ground training and one hour of flight training Correct answer.
  4. Two hours of ground training and one hour of flight training

Explanation

14 CFR 61.56 requires a flight review consisting of at least 1 hour of ground training and 1 hour of flight training. The review must cover the current general operating and flight rules of Part 91 and those maneuvers and procedures the instructor considers necessary.

Question 4Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

An annual inspection must have been completed

  1. Within the preceding 12 months Correct answer.
  2. Every 24 calendar months, for aircraft operated under Part 135
  3. Every 6 calendar months
  4. Every 100 hours of time in service, for aircraft carrying persons for hire

Explanation

14 CFR 91.409(a) prohibits operating an aircraft unless it has had an annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months. The 100-hour inspection is a separate requirement that applies to certain aircraft used for hire.

Question 5Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

A standard airworthiness certificate remains valid

  1. As long as it is maintained per the applicable regulations Correct answer.
  2. For 24 calendar months after issuance
  3. For 12 calendar months after issuance
  4. Only while the aircraft is operated under Part 91 and has a current annual inspection

Explanation

A standard airworthiness certificate has no fixed expiration date. It remains effective as long as the aircraft is maintained, inspected, and altered in accordance with the applicable parts of 14 CFR and remains registered in the United States.

Question 6Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

What is the regulatory status of the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)?

  1. It has the same legal force as the FARs
  2. It applies only to air carrier operations
  3. It is enforceable only inside Class B airspace
  4. It explains procedures but is not regulatory Correct answer.

Explanation

The AIM is an FAA publication that explains air traffic procedures, services, and flight information. It is not a regulation; binding requirements are found in the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR).

Question 7Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

The Airman Certification Standards (ACS) for a certificate or rating

  1. Are used only for flight instructor applicants
  2. Are advisory and may replace the practical test
  3. List only the oral questions an examiner may ask
  4. Combine knowledge, risk management, and skill Correct answer.

Explanation

The ACS integrates the knowledge, risk management, and skill elements that an applicant must demonstrate for a certificate or rating. It replaced the practical test standards for the certificates and ratings to which it applies.

Question 8Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

A flight instructor endorses a student pilot for solo flight. The endorsement is valid for

  1. 30 days
  2. 6 calendar months
  3. 24 calendar months
  4. 90 days Correct answer.

Explanation

Under 14 CFR 61.87(n), an endorsement for solo flight is valid for 90 days. If the student does not solo within that period, additional training and a new endorsement are required.

Question 9Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

For a day VFR flight, the minimum fuel required is enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and thereafter for

  1. 1 hour at normal cruise speed
  2. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed
  3. 20 minutes at normal cruise speed
  4. 30 minutes at normal cruise speed Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 91.151(a) requires enough fuel to reach the first point of intended landing and then fly for 30 minutes at normal cruise speed for day VFR. The 45-minute reserve applies to night VFR.

Question 10Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

Before beginning a flight, the pilot in command is required by 14 CFR 91.103 to become familiar with

  1. Weather, fuel requirements, and runway lengths at intended airports Correct answer.
  2. Only the destination airport's approach plates
  3. The aircraft's maintenance records for the preceding 12 calendar months
  4. The passenger manifest and cargo weight

Explanation

14 CFR 91.103 requires the pilot in command to become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. This includes weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data.

Question 11Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

A knowledge test report is generally valid for use toward a practical test for

  1. 24 calendar months Correct answer.
  2. 12 calendar months
  3. 36 calendar months
  4. 6 calendar months

Explanation

14 CFR 61.39(a)(1) requires that the applicant have passed the required knowledge test within the preceding 24 calendar months. A test report older than that cannot be used for the practical test.

Question 12Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

An aircraft transponder must be inspected and tested within the preceding

  1. 24 calendar months Correct answer.
  2. 100 hours of time in service
  3. 48 calendar months
  4. 12 calendar months

Explanation

14 CFR 91.413 requires that required transponders be tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months. The inspection must be conducted by an appropriately rated person or facility.

Question 13Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

An emergency locator transmitter battery must be replaced or recharged when the transmitter has been in use for more than

  1. 1 hour of cumulative use, or when 50 percent of its useful life expires Correct answer.
  2. 30 minutes of cumulative use, or when 50 percent of its useful life expires
  3. 45 minutes of cumulative use, or when 25 percent of its useful life expires
  4. 2 hours of cumulative use, or when 75 percent of its useful life expires

Explanation

14 CFR 91.207 requires replacement or recharging of an ELT battery when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour. The battery must also be replaced or recharged when 50 percent of its useful life has expired.

Question 14Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

Under BasicMed, the comprehensive medical examination by a state-licensed physician must have been completed within the preceding

  1. 12 calendar months
  2. 60 calendar months
  3. 48 calendar months Correct answer.
  4. 24 calendar months

Explanation

BasicMed requires a comprehensive medical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding 48 calendar months. Separately, the online medical education course must be completed within the preceding 24 calendar months.

Question 15Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

The FAA Chart Supplement is best described as

  1. A regulatory document that establishes airspace classifications
  2. Airport, navaid, and procedural information for pilots Correct answer.
  3. A textbook used for the knowledge test
  4. A list of all airworthiness directives currently in effect

Explanation

The Chart Supplement contains airport, navaid, and procedural information useful to pilots, such as communications, runways, services, and remarks. It is a reference publication, not a regulation.

Question 16Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

A flight instructor must keep a record of endorsements given to students for at least

  1. 12 months
  2. 24 months
  3. 5 years
  4. 3 years Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 61.189 requires a flight instructor to keep a record of each endorsement given for at least 3 years. The record must show the date, the type of endorsement, and the name of the person endorsed.

Question 17Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

Under Part 141, a pilot school's ground training course must

  1. Use only FAA advisory circulars as textbooks
  2. Be limited to no more than 50 percent of the total course time
  3. Be conducted only by designated pilot examiners
  4. Be approved by the FAA in the school's course outline Correct answer.

Explanation

A Part 141 pilot school operates under an approved training course outline, and its ground training is part of that approved curriculum. The course must meet the required content and hour minimums for the certificate or rating involved.

Question 18Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

For a night VFR flight, the minimum fuel required is enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and thereafter for

  1. 1 hour at normal cruise speed
  2. 30 minutes at normal cruise speed
  3. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed Correct answer.
  4. 20 minutes at normal cruise speed

Explanation

14 CFR 91.151(b) requires enough fuel to reach the first point of intended landing and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed for night VFR. The 30-minute reserve applies to day VFR.

Question 19Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

Notification to the NTSB is required immediately after

  1. Any forced landing, regardless of damage
  2. Any flight that encounters turbulence
  3. An accident causing substantial damage or serious injury Correct answer.
  4. Any aircraft that is delayed more than two hours for weather

Explanation

49 CFR 830 requires immediate notification to the NTSB of an aircraft accident, which involves substantial damage or serious injury. Certain listed incidents also require immediate notification.

Question 20Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

A sport pilot may act as pilot in command of a light-sport aircraft using

  1. Only a second-class medical certificate
  2. Only a first-class medical certificate
  3. No medical documentation at all
  4. A valid driver's license Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 61.23(c) allows a sport pilot to use a current and valid U.S. driver's license as evidence of medical fitness. The pilot must meet the other eligibility requirements and comply with the operating limitations for sport pilots.

Question 21Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

For IFR flight, the altimeter system and static pressure system inspections must have been completed within the preceding

  1. 48 calendar months
  2. 24 calendar months Correct answer.
  3. 6 calendar months
  4. 12 calendar months

Explanation

14 CFR 91.411 requires that the altimeter system and static pressure system be tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months for IFR operations. The inspection must be conducted in accordance with the applicable maintenance rules.

Question 22Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

An applicant who fails a knowledge test twice within 30 days must

  1. Wait 60 days before retesting
  2. Complete an entirely new ground school course at a Part 141 school
  3. Appeal to the FAA Administrator
  4. Obtain an instructor endorsement after additional training Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 61.49 requires that an applicant who fails the knowledge test twice within a 30-day period receive additional training from an authorized instructor. The instructor must then provide a signed statement certifying that the applicant is ready to retest.

Question 23Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

An instructor's endorsement recommending an applicant for a practical test must have been signed within

  1. 2 calendar months before the test Correct answer.
  2. 6 calendar months before the test
  3. 10 days before the test
  4. 24 calendar months before the test

Explanation

14 CFR 61.39(a)(6) requires an endorsement from an authorized instructor stating that the applicant is prepared for the required practical test. That endorsement must have been signed within 2 calendar months preceding the date of the test.

Question 24Regulations, publications, and airman certification requirements

An advanced ground instructor may provide

  1. Instrument ground training only
  2. Ground training for a private or commercial certificate Correct answer.
  3. Ground training toward an instrument rating
  4. Flight training toward a private pilot certificate in an airplane

Explanation

14 CFR 61.215 lists the privileges of an advanced ground instructor, which include ground training for private, commercial, and airline transport pilot certificates. Ground training for an instrument rating requires an instrument ground instructor rating.

Question 25Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

In unaccelerated straight-and-level flight, which relationship among the four forces of flight is correct?

  1. Lift equals weight Correct answer.
  2. Lift is greater than weight
  3. Lift equals thrust
  4. Thrust equals weight

Explanation

In steady, unaccelerated flight there is no net force, so lift balances weight and thrust balances drag. Any excess of lift over weight would produce an upward acceleration, which is not the case in level flight.

Question 26Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

An airplane will stall when

  1. The load factor decreases below one
  2. The wing exceeds its critical angle of attack Correct answer.
  3. The engine loses power during a climb
  4. Airspeed falls below the published stall speed for its weight

Explanation

A stall is an aerodynamic event caused by exceeding the critical angle of attack, at which point the airflow separates from the wing. It can occur at any airspeed and any attitude if that angle is exceeded.

Question 27Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

If true airspeed is doubled while other factors remain constant, parasite drag on the airplane will

  1. Quadruple Correct answer.
  2. Remain constant
  3. Double
  4. Decrease by half

Explanation

Parasite drag varies directly with the square of airspeed. Doubling airspeed therefore multiplies parasite drag by four.

Question 28Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

Ground effect becomes significant when the airplane is within approximately what distance of the surface?

  1. One hundred feet
  2. Half a mile
  3. One wingspan or less Correct answer.
  4. Ten wingspans

Explanation

When the wing is within about one wingspan of the ground, the surface restricts downwash and tip vortex formation. This reduces induced drag, which is why an airplane may float during the landing flare.

Question 29Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

Which design feature provides an airplane with positive lateral (roll) stability?

  1. Dihedral Correct answer.
  2. A forward center of gravity
  3. A large horizontal tail
  4. Longitudinal trim

Explanation

Dihedral causes the wing on the down-going side of a sideslip to meet the relative wind at a higher angle of attack, producing a rolling moment that tends to level the wings. This is the principal source of lateral stability.

Question 30Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

Extending flaps for landing allows the pilot to

  1. Reduce drag for a steeper, faster descent
  2. Raise the airplane's best glide speed
  3. Eliminate the need for a forward slip
  4. Use a lower approach speed Correct answer.

Explanation

Flaps increase both lift and drag, so the wing can support the airplane at a lower airspeed. The added drag also steepens the approach path, which is why more power is normally required.

Question 31Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

On a hot, humid day at a high-elevation airport, the airplane's takeoff distance will

  1. Remain the same as at sea level
  2. Increase only if the runway is wet
  3. Decrease because the air is thinner
  4. Increase because density altitude is high Correct answer.

Explanation

High temperature, high humidity, and high elevation all reduce air density and raise density altitude. Thinner air reduces engine power, propeller thrust, and wing lift, so the ground roll and total takeoff distance increase.

Question 32Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

The speed Vx is defined as the speed that gives

  1. Best angle of climb Correct answer.
  2. The speed for maximum range in cruise
  3. The greatest rate of climb in feet per minute
  4. The lowest speed at which the airplane can fly

Explanation

Vx is the best angle of climb speed, which yields the greatest altitude gain per unit of horizontal distance traveled. It is the speed to use when obstacle clearance is the limiting factor.

Question 33Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

Induced drag is greatest

  1. At high airspeeds in level cruise
  2. At high angles of attack and low airspeeds Correct answer.
  3. When flaps are retracted at cruise power
  4. When the airplane descends at idle power

Explanation

Induced drag results from the lift being generated and is proportional to the square of the lift coefficient. It peaks at high angles of attack, which occur at low airspeed, and decreases as airspeed increases.

Question 34Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

If the load factor on an airplane increases from 1.0 to 2.0, its stall speed increases by approximately

  1. 41 percent Correct answer.
  2. 10 percent
  3. 100 percent
  4. 200 percent

Explanation

Stall speed varies with the square root of load factor. The square root of 2 is about 1.41, so the stall speed rises roughly 41 percent.

Question 35Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

In a constant-altitude level turn, a bank angle of 60 degrees produces a load factor of

  1. 2.0 g Correct answer.
  2. 1.41 g
  3. 1.0 g
  4. 3.0 g

Explanation

Load factor in a level turn equals one divided by the cosine of the bank angle. The cosine of 60 degrees is 0.5, so the load factor is 2.0.

Question 36Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeeds for Vx and Vy change as follows:

  1. Both increase with altitude
  2. Vx decreases while Vy increases
  3. Vx increases while Vy decreases Correct answer.
  4. Both decrease with altitude

Explanation

With increasing altitude, the best-angle speed Vx rises while the best-rate speed Vy falls. The two converge at the absolute ceiling, where only one climb speed exists and the climb rate is zero.

Question 37Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

Moving the center of gravity aft within the approved envelope generally

  1. Increases static longitudinal stability
  2. Increases the elevator force needed to flare
  3. Reduces static longitudinal stability Correct answer.
  4. Raises the stall speed noticeably

Explanation

An aft center of gravity shortens the arm between the center of gravity and the tail, reducing the restoring pitch moment and thus static longitudinal stability. It also tends to reduce the elevator force required for maneuvering.

Question 38Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

Adverse yaw during aileron application is caused by

  1. Engine torque at high power settings
  2. Greater drag from the down-deflected aileron Correct answer.
  3. Dihedral effect of the vertical tail
  4. Gyroscopic precession of the engine and propeller

Explanation

The aileron that deflects downward increases both lift and drag on that wing. The extra drag on the rising wing yaws the nose away from the direction of the turn, which is corrected with coordinated rudder.

Question 39Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

P-factor creates a yawing tendency in a climbing airplane because

  1. The descending blade bites more air Correct answer.
  2. Engine torque rolls the fuselage to the left
  3. Gyroscopic precession acts 90 degrees ahead of the applied force
  4. Propeller slipstream spirals around the fuselage

Explanation

At high angles of attack the propeller disc is tilted relative to the relative wind, so the descending blade meets the air at a higher angle of attack and produces more thrust than the ascending blade. The asymmetric thrust yaws the airplane toward the side of the ascending blade.

Question 40Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

For a propeller rotating clockwise as seen from behind the airplane, a downward pitch force applied to the propeller disc produces a yaw response that appears

  1. 90 degrees later in the direction of rotation Correct answer.
  2. 180 degrees later in the direction of rotation
  3. 90 degrees earlier, opposite the rotation
  4. At the same instant as the input

Explanation

Gyroscopic precession causes the resultant of an applied force to act approximately 90 degrees later in the direction of propeller rotation. This is why raising the tail of a tailwheel airplane during the takeoff roll produces a yawing moment.

Question 41Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

Design maneuvering speed (Va) is the speed at which

  1. The best rate of climb is obtained
  2. The tightest possible turn can be made
  3. Full aileron deflection may be used at any weight
  4. The wing stalls before structural damage occurs Correct answer.

Explanation

At or below Va, the wing reaches its critical angle of attack and stalls before the airframe is subjected to its limit load. Because Va changes with weight, the published value applies only at the maximum certificated weight.

Question 42Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

Best glide speed in a single-engine airplane corresponds to the speed for

  1. Maximum lift-to-drag ratio Correct answer.
  2. Maximum engine-out descent rate
  3. Minimum power required in level flight
  4. Maximum rate of climb

Explanation

Gliding distance is greatest when the airplane is flying at the angle of attack that produces the maximum lift-to-drag ratio. This speed is essentially independent of weight, though a heavier airplane glides at a higher true airspeed.

Question 43Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

Wake turbulence generated by a large airplane is most severe when that airplane is

  1. Heavy, clean, and fast
  2. Light, configured for landing, and slow
  3. Light and fast
  4. Heavy, clean, and slow Correct answer.

Explanation

Vortex strength depends on weight, speed, and configuration. A heavy, clean airplane flying slowly must generate a high lift coefficient, producing the strongest vortices.

Question 44Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

An airplane with positive static longitudinal stability, if disturbed in pitch, will

  1. Reverse direction with no oscillatory tendency
  2. Hold the new attitude indefinitely
  3. Continue in the direction of the disturbance
  4. Tend to return to its original angle of attack Correct answer.

Explanation

Positive static stability means that a displacement in angle of attack creates a restoring moment that opposes the displacement. The airplane therefore tends to return toward its original trimmed condition.

Question 45Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

The critical Mach number of an airplane is the free-stream Mach number at which

  1. Shock-induced separation first reaches the wing root
  2. Local airflow somewhere on the airframe first reaches Mach 1 Correct answer.
  3. The airplane itself attains Mach 1
  4. Available thrust exactly equals total drag

Explanation

Because air accelerates over the wing and other curved surfaces, some point on the airplane reaches the speed of sound while the airplane is still below Mach 1. That free-stream value is the critical Mach number, and exceeding it produces shock waves and Mach buffet.

Question 46Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

On the back side of the power curve, an airplane

  1. Has excess power available for climb
  2. Can maintain any speed with constant power
  3. Needs additional power to fly slower Correct answer.
  4. Requires less power as airspeed decreases

Explanation

Below the speed for maximum endurance, the airplane is on the back side of the power curve, also called the region of reverse command. Because induced drag rises steeply at high angles of attack, more power is required to fly more slowly, and the airplane becomes speed-unstable.

Question 47Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

For a given bank angle in a level turn, the radius of the turn

  1. Is independent of true airspeed
  2. Increases with the square of the true airspeed Correct answer.
  3. Depends only on weight and wing area
  4. Decreases as true airspeed increases

Explanation

Turn radius equals true airspeed squared divided by the product of the gravitational constant and the tangent of the bank angle. Holding bank angle constant, doubling airspeed quadruples the radius.

Question 48Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

The absolute ceiling of an airplane is the altitude at which

  1. The best rate of climb becomes zero Correct answer.
  2. The engine can no longer produce cruise power
  3. Service ceiling minus 5,000 feet is reached
  4. Climb rate falls to 100 feet per minute

Explanation

At the absolute ceiling the maximum climb rate has decreased to zero, so the airplane can no longer climb at any airspeed. The service ceiling, by comparison, is the altitude where the maximum climb rate is 100 feet per minute.

Question 49Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

On a twin-engine airplane whose propellers both turn clockwise as seen from behind, the critical engine is

  1. The right engine
  2. Either engine, since they are identical
  3. The left engine Correct answer.
  4. The engine with the shorter nacelle

Explanation

P-factor is greatest on the engine whose descending blade is farther from the fuselage, because that blade has the longer moment arm. With clockwise rotation viewed from behind, that is the right engine, so losing the left engine produces the larger yawing moment and the left engine is critical.

Question 50Aerodynamics and aircraft performance

The primary purpose of building dihedral into an airplane's wings is to

  1. raise the angle of attack at which the wing will stall
  2. reduce the induced drag generated by the wingtip vortices
  3. produce a rolling moment that opposes sideslip and levels the wings Correct answer.
  4. increase the vertical component of lift and improve the rate of climb

Explanation

Dihedral gives the airplane lateral (roll) stability. When the airplane slips sideways, the down-going wing meets the relative wind at a slightly higher effective angle of attack than the raised wing, so it produces more lift and rolls the airplane back toward level. This makes the airplane tend to return to wings-level flight after a disturbance in roll.