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Aircraft Dispatcher practice questions

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Question 1Air Traffic Control and Navigation

A VOR radial is best described as which of the following?

  1. The true bearing from the station
  2. The magnetic bearing from the station Correct answer.
  3. The great-circle track passing over the station
  4. The magnetic bearing to the station

Explanation

Radials are magnetic bearings measured outward from the station, so an aircraft on the 090 radial lies east of the VOR. The OBS is set to the desired radial and the TO/FROM indicator shows whether the aircraft is approaching or moving away from the station.

Question 2Air Traffic Control and Navigation

In the United States, Class A airspace extends from

  1. 14,500 ft MSL up to and including FL 450
  2. 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL 600 Correct answer.
  3. 12,500 ft MSL up to but not including FL 180
  4. FL 180 up to but not including FL 240

Explanation

Class A is the positive-control airspace over the United States from 18,000 ft MSL (FL 180) to and including FL 600. Flight in Class A is IFR only and requires an ATC clearance plus an operable altitude-encoding transponder.

Question 3Air Traffic Control and Navigation

On an ILS approach, vertical guidance along the published glidepath is provided by which component?

  1. The glide slope Correct answer.
  2. The marker beacon
  3. The DME
  4. The localizer

Explanation

The localizer supplies lateral guidance while the glide slope supplies vertical guidance, typically along a 3-degree path. Marker beacons and DME provide position information but do not generate glidepath guidance.

Question 4Air Traffic Control and Navigation

DME provides distance information to a station in which form?

  1. Horizontal distance along the aircraft's track
  2. Slant range in nautical miles Correct answer.
  3. Ground distance along the airway in statute miles
  4. Distance measured in statute miles from the station

Explanation

DME measures slant range in nautical miles between the aircraft and the ground transponder, so the reading is slightly greater than horizontal distance. The error is largest when the aircraft is close to the station at high altitude.

Question 5Air Traffic Control and Navigation

The true course is 090° and the local magnetic variation is 10°E. With no wind, what magnetic course should be flown?

  1. 070°
  2. 090°
  3. 100°
  4. 080° Correct answer.

Explanation

The rule 'east is least, west is best' means easterly variation is subtracted when converting true course to magnetic course. Thus 090° minus 10°E equals 080° magnetic.

Question 6Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Which transponder code is used to indicate an emergency?

  1. 7700 Correct answer.
  2. 7777
  3. 7600
  4. 7500

Explanation

Code 7700 is the general emergency code, 7600 indicates radio failure, and 7500 indicates unlawful interference. Selecting the correct code alerts ATC without the need for voice communication.

Question 7Air Traffic Control and Navigation

The primary purpose of the ATIS broadcast is to

  1. Assign altitudes and departure headings
  2. Provide recorded non-control information Correct answer.
  3. Issue approach clearances to arriving aircraft
  4. Provide radar traffic advisories to departing aircraft

Explanation

ATIS continuously broadcasts routine, non-control information such as weather, approaches and runways in use, and pertinent NOTAMs so the controller need not repeat it for each aircraft. Clearances are still issued individually by the controller.

Question 8Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Unless the clearance specifies otherwise, turns in a standard holding pattern are made to the

  1. Right only above FL 200
  2. Right Correct answer.
  3. Left
  4. Left when the holding fix is a VOR

Explanation

Standard holding patterns use right turns; left-turn holds are nonstandard and must be published or stated in the clearance. At or below 14,000 ft, the inbound leg of a standard hold is timed at 1 minute.

Question 9Air Traffic Control and Navigation

A pilot reports 'minimum fuel' to ATC. Under standard phraseology, this means the aircraft

  1. has 30 minutes of fuel remaining and needs priority handling
  2. is declaring an emergency and requires immediate vectors
  3. can accept little or no delay on arrival Correct answer.
  4. will land with less than the required IFR reserve

Explanation

'Minimum fuel' advises ATC that the aircraft's fuel state allows little or no delay; it is not an emergency and confers no automatic priority. A declaration of emergency fuel indicates the aircraft will land with less than its required reserve.

Question 10Air Traffic Control and Navigation

An instrument departure procedure (SID) provides obstruction clearance

  1. from the destination airport to the initial approach fix
  2. only within Class B airspace
  3. from the runway end to the en route structure Correct answer.
  4. only after the aircraft has reached 500 ft AGL

Explanation

A SID is a preplanned IFR departure routing that provides terrain and obstacle clearance from the departure end of the runway to the en route structure or a specified fix. Pilots are expected to fly the procedure unless ATC amends it.

Question 11Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Within a terminal radar facility's area of jurisdiction, the standard minimum radar separation between IFR aircraft is

  1. 3 NM Correct answer.
  2. 10 NM
  3. 5 NM
  4. 1 NM

Explanation

Standard terminal radar separation is 3 NM with 1,000 ft vertical separation inside a facility's area of jurisdiction, while en route radar uses 5 NM. Larger minima apply for wake turbulence categories and certain special procedures.

Question 12Air Traffic Control and Navigation

An aircraft has 100 knots true airspeed and a true course of 090°. The wind is from 360° at 20 knots and variation is negligible. Which heading is required to maintain the course?

  1. 102°
  2. 062°
  3. 078° Correct answer.
  4. 090°

Explanation

Wind from the north pushes an eastbound aircraft to the right (south) of track, so the nose must be turned left. The 20-knot crosswind against 100 knots TAS gives about 11.5° of drift, hence roughly 078°.

Question 13Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Which of the following describes a great circle?

  1. A line of constant magnetic heading
  2. A straight line drawn on a Mercator chart
  3. The shortest surface path between two points Correct answer.
  4. A track that crosses every meridian at the same angle

Explanation

A great circle is the intersection of a sphere with a plane through its centre, giving the shortest surface distance between two points. A rhumb line crosses meridians at a constant angle and is longer except along the equator or a meridian.

Question 14Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Under FAA radar rules, the minimum wake turbulence separation for a light aircraft on approach behind a heavy jet is

  1. 4 NM
  2. 6 NM Correct answer.
  3. 8 NM
  4. 3 NM

Explanation

Behind a heavy jet the approach minima are 5 NM for a large aircraft and 6 NM for a small aircraft, applied in addition to the normal radar minimum. The 8 NM value applies to a small aircraft following a super-heavy category aircraft.

Question 15Air Traffic Control and Navigation

An IFR aircraft loses two-way radio communication while in VFR conditions. The pilot should

  1. hold at the next fix until the expected further clearance time
  2. descend to 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle and proceed
  3. continue under VFR and land as soon as practicable Correct answer.
  4. climb to the MEA and fly the filed route to destination

Explanation

When the failure occurs in VFR conditions, the aircraft continues under VFR and lands as soon as practicable. The route, altitude, and timing rules apply when the failure happens in IMC or when VFR conditions are not encountered.

Question 16Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Which airspace requires ADS-B Out equipment when operating in the contiguous United States?

  1. Class D only when the tower is open
  2. Class G below 10,000 ft MSL
  3. Class A airspace only
  4. Class E at and above 10,000 ft MSL Correct answer.

Explanation

ADS-B Out is required in Class A, B, and C airspace and in Class E at and above 10,000 ft MSL, except when at or below 2,500 ft AGL. Class G airspace generally does not require ADS-B Out.

Question 17Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Which statement correctly distinguishes an MEA from an MOCA?

  1. The MEA is always 1,000 ft above the MOCA
  2. The MEA guarantees navigation signal reception only
  3. The MOCA assures obstacle clearance and signal reception along the whole segment
  4. The MEA assures obstacle clearance and signal reception for the entire segment Correct answer.

Explanation

On airways, the MEA assures both obstruction clearance and navigation signal reception for the whole segment, while the MOCA assures obstruction clearance only within 22 NM of the associated VOR. Where both are published, the MOCA is the lower figure.

Question 18Air Traffic Control and Navigation

A Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) is primarily designed to

  1. provide obstacle clearance from the runway to the en route structure
  2. replace the instrument approach procedure at the destination
  3. route arriving traffic from the en route structure to an approach Correct answer.
  4. assign arrival altitudes for all aircraft irrespective of traffic

Explanation

STARs provide a preplanned route and descent profile with obstacle clearance from the en route phase to a point where an approach or vectors begin. They do not authorize descent below an assigned altitude and do not substitute for an approach clearance.

Question 19Air Traffic Control and Navigation

An aircraft at an assigned altitude above the glidepath intercept altitude is cleared for an ILS approach. What does the clearance authorize?

  1. Immediate descent to the decision altitude regardless of position
  2. Descend on the procedure once established on a segment Correct answer.
  3. Cancel any previously issued speed restrictions
  4. Descent only after reporting the outer marker inbound

Explanation

An approach clearance authorizes flight on the published procedure, but the aircraft may descend only after it is established on a published segment of that procedure. Until then the last assigned altitude must be maintained.

Question 20Air Traffic Control and Navigation

When a TCAS resolution advisory directs a climb or descent, the flight crew should

  1. maintain the current flight path if the traffic is in sight
  2. respond promptly as directed and advise ATC of the deviation Correct answer.
  3. request ATC concurrence before changing the flight path
  4. disengage the autopilot only after ATC amends the clearance

Explanation

Resolution advisories are time-critical and must be followed immediately, even when they conflict with an ATC instruction, with ATC advised as soon as workload allows. Visual contact with the traffic does not relieve the crew of responding to the advisory.

Question 21Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Under standard VOR receiver check criteria, the maximum permissible error for an airborne check is

  1. ±10°
  2. ±6° Correct answer.
  3. ±2°
  4. ±4°

Explanation

The airborne check and designated airborne checkpoint tolerances are ±6°, while a ground checkpoint or a VOT signal allows ±4°. Exceeding the applicable tolerance means the receiver should not be used for IFR navigation until repaired.

Question 22Air Traffic Control and Navigation

On final approach in extremely cold temperatures with the current altimeter setting, the aircraft's true altitude is

  1. equal to indicated because the altimeter setting corrects for temperature
  2. higher than indicated, so published minimums may be reduced
  3. lower than indicated, so minimums must be corrected upward Correct answer.
  4. higher than indicated only above the tropopause

Explanation

In air colder than ISA, pressure surfaces are compressed, so the aircraft is lower than the altimeter indicates and the error grows with height above the altimeter source. Operators therefore apply cold-temperature corrections to MDAs, DAs, and step-down fixes.

Question 23Air Traffic Control and Navigation

An ILS Category IIIc approach is defined by

  1. a decision height below 100 ft with a specified RVR
  2. no decision height but a specified RVR minimum
  3. no decision height and no RVR minimum Correct answer.
  4. a decision height of 200 ft with a required RVR

Explanation

Category IIIc provides guidance to and along the runway surface with no decision height and no RVR minimum, relying on rollout guidance and low-visibility surface procedures. Lower categories still impose some decision height, RVR value, or both.

Question 24Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Unless a higher maximum is published, the maximum holding airspeed for civil aircraft at 10,000 ft MSL is

  1. 200 KIAS
  2. 250 KIAS
  3. 230 KIAS Correct answer.
  4. 265 KIAS

Explanation

Holding speed limits are 200 KIAS from the minimum holding altitude through 6,000 ft, 230 KIAS above 6,000 ft through 14,000 ft, and 265 KIAS above 14,000 ft. Published procedures may specify different limits.

Question 25Air Traffic Control and Navigation

For an RNP AR approach published as RNP 0.3, the navigation specification requires the aircraft to

  1. remain within 0.3 NM of the path for at least 95% of the time Correct answer.
  2. achieve a position accuracy of 0.3 NM in the vertical plane
  3. be capable of 0.3 NM lateral separation from other aircraft
  4. remain within 0.3 NM of the path at all times with no monitoring requirement

Explanation

RNP values are lateral containment limits expressed as a distance either side of the desired path that must be maintained for 95% of the flight time, supported by onboard performance monitoring and alerting. RNP AR authorizations commonly use values such as RNP 0.3 on approach.

Question 26Air Traffic Control and Navigation

In the contiguous United States, Class A airspace extends from

  1. 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL 600 Correct answer.
  2. 12,500 ft MSL up to FL 180
  3. FL 180 up to FL 450
  4. 14,500 ft MSL up to FL 180

Explanation

Class A airspace begins at 18,000 ft MSL and extends up to and including FL 600. It is IFR-only, and operations require an operative transponder with Mode C and ADS-B Out in the contiguous United States.

Question 27Air Traffic Control and Navigation

The standard glidepath angle for an ILS approach is

  1. 2.5°
  2. 3.0° Correct answer.
  3. 3.5°
  4. 4.0°

Explanation

ILS glidepaths are normally set at 3.0°, although a steeper angle up to about 3.5° may be published at some airports. The angle is published on the approach chart and is flown using the glide slope indicator.

Question 28Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Before operating VFR in Class B airspace, a pilot must receive

  1. an explicit ATC clearance before entry Correct answer.
  2. a filed IFR flight plan
  3. a Mode C transponder only
  4. two-way radio contact with the controlling facility without a specific clearance

Explanation

Class B airspace is individually tailored and requires an explicit ATC clearance before entry. Two-way radio contact alone is not sufficient; the controller must issue a clearance.

Question 29Air Traffic Control and Navigation

A Mode C transponder reply provides ATC with the aircraft's

  1. magnetic heading
  2. indicated airspeed
  3. pressure altitude Correct answer.
  4. ground speed

Explanation

Mode C replies encode pressure altitude referenced to the standard datum of 29.92 inHg. ATC converts this to the assigned altitude using the local altimeter setting.

Question 30Air Traffic Control and Navigation

An aircraft is outbound on the 045° radial with the OBS set to 045° and the TO/FROM indicator showing FROM. The CDI needle is deflected to the right. Where is the aircraft relative to the selected course?

  1. On course but with the wrong TO/FROM indication
  2. Right of the selected course
  3. Past the station on the reciprocal radial
  4. Left of the selected course Correct answer.

Explanation

The CDI needle deflects toward the selected course. With a right deflection, the selected course lies to the right of the aircraft, so the aircraft is left of course and should turn right to intercept.

Question 31Air Traffic Control and Navigation

The ADF relative bearing pointer shows 090° while the aircraft is heading 180° magnetic. What is the magnetic bearing to the station?

  1. 360°
  2. 270° Correct answer.
  3. 090°
  4. 180°

Explanation

Magnetic bearing to the station equals magnetic heading plus relative bearing, adjusted to the 0–360 scale. Here 180° + 090° = 270°.

Question 32Air Traffic Control and Navigation

An aircraft's true course is 090° and magnetic variation is 10° east. What is the magnetic course?

  1. 100°
  2. 070°
  3. 090°
  4. 080° Correct answer.

Explanation

With easterly variation, magnetic north lies east of true north, so variation is subtracted from true course. The result is 090° − 10° = 080° magnetic.

Question 33Air Traffic Control and Navigation

In the United States, a Victor airway is normally how wide?

  1. 8 NM each side of the centerline
  2. 2 NM each side of the centerline
  3. 4 NM each side of the centerline Correct answer.
  4. 10 NM each side of the centerline

Explanation

Victor airways are 8 NM wide, extending 4 NM either side of the airway centerline. This width applies unless a different width is charted.

Question 34Air Traffic Control and Navigation

In RVSM airspace, the standard vertical separation minimum between RVSM-approved aircraft is

  1. 1,000 ft between FL 290 and FL 410 Correct answer.
  2. 500 ft between FL 290 and FL 410
  3. 1,000 ft between FL 180 and FL 290
  4. 2,000 ft between FL 290 and FL 410

Explanation

RVSM permits 1,000 ft vertical separation from FL 290 through FL 410 for approved aircraft. Above FL 410, standard separation returns to 2,000 ft.

Question 35Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Unless charted as a fly-over waypoint, an RNAV waypoint is normally a fly-by waypoint, meaning the aircraft

  1. may proceed direct to the next waypoint without crossing the waypoint
  2. turns before the waypoint to roll out on the next leg Correct answer.
  3. is not required to pass within the waypoint's lateral tolerance
  4. must cross the waypoint before beginning any turn

Explanation

A fly-by waypoint uses a lead-in turn, so the aircraft begins turning before the waypoint and rolls out on the next leg without overflying it. A fly-over waypoint must be crossed before turning.

Question 36Air Traffic Control and Navigation

At or below 14,000 ft MSL, the outbound leg of a standard holding pattern is normally timed at

  1. 2 minutes
  2. 1½ minutes
  3. 1 minute Correct answer.
  4. 2½ minutes

Explanation

Standard holding uses a 1-minute outbound leg at or below 14,000 ft MSL and a 1½-minute outbound leg above 14,000 ft. The timing may be adjusted by ATC when necessary.

Question 37Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Which condition is required to request a contact approach?

  1. at least 1 SM flight visibility and clear of clouds Correct answer.
  2. the airport is in sight
  3. the ceiling is at least 500 ft
  4. the reported ground visibility is at least 3 SM and the ceiling is 1,000 ft

Explanation

A contact approach requires a pilot request, at least 1 SM flight visibility, and remaining clear of clouds; the airport need not be in sight. It is a separate procedure from a visual approach.

Question 38Air Traffic Control and Navigation

For an RNP AR approach published as RNP 0.3, the aircraft's total system error must remain within

  1. 0.1 NM for at least 95% of the flight time
  2. 0.5 NM for at least 99% of the flight time
  3. 0.3 NM for 100% of the flight time
  4. 0.3 NM for at least 95% of the flight time Correct answer.

Explanation

RNP 0.3 means the lateral total system error must stay within 0.3 NM for at least 95% of the flight time. Onboard performance monitoring and alerting are required.

Question 39Air Traffic Control and Navigation

Baro-VNAV approaches carry a charted temperature limitation because

  1. cold air makes the aircraft lower than the indicated path Correct answer.
  2. the glideslope transmitter drifts with temperature
  3. the satellite signals are attenuated by cold air
  4. the localizer beam bends more in cold temperatures

Explanation

Baro-VNAV uses barometric altimetry and assumes a standard atmosphere. In unusually cold temperatures, the aircraft's true altitude is lower than indicated, so a charted minimum temperature protects obstacle clearance.

Question 40Air Traffic Control and Navigation

GPS RAIM is important for IFR navigation because it

  1. provides a backup barometric altitude
  2. allows the receiver to use WAAS corrections
  3. increases the number of satellites available for position fixing
  4. alerts the pilot when navigation integrity is not assured Correct answer.

Explanation

RAIM performs receiver autonomous integrity monitoring by checking satellite signal consistency. If it cannot assure navigation integrity, it alerts the pilot so the GPS position is not used for IFR navigation.

Question 41Meteorology

In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere, what are the standard sea-level temperature and pressure?

  1. 15 °C and 30.12 inHg
  2. 5 °C and 29.92 inHg
  3. 0 °C and 29.92 inHg
  4. 15 °C and 29.92 inHg Correct answer.

Explanation

The ICAO Standard Atmosphere sets sea-level conditions at 15 °C and 29.92 inHg (1013.25 hPa), with a lapse rate of about 2 °C per 1,000 ft up to the tropopause at 36,089 ft. All altimeter and performance computations in aviation are referenced to these values.

Question 42Meteorology

In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate in the troposphere is approximately:

  1. 6.5 °C per 1,000 ft
  2. 0.5 °C per 1,000 ft
  3. 2 °C per 1,000 ft Correct answer.
  4. 3.5 °C per 1,000 ft

Explanation

The standard tropospheric lapse rate is 1.98 °C per 1,000 ft, commonly rounded to 2 °C per 1,000 ft. It applies from sea level up to the tropopause, above which temperature is treated as constant.

Question 43Meteorology

An airport at 5,000 ft MSL reports a hot, humid afternoon. Compared with the field's pressure altitude, the density altitude is:

  1. higher, so takeoff and climb performance drop Correct answer.
  2. unchanged, because field elevation stays constant
  3. lower, so takeoff performance improves
  4. higher, although engine power output is not affected by it

Explanation

Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and humidity. Warm, moist air is less dense, so density altitude exceeds pressure altitude and both aerodynamic and engine performance degrade.

Question 44Meteorology

An aircraft cruises from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without resetting the altimeter. The aircraft's true altitude will be:

  1. higher than the altimeter indicates
  2. the same as the altimeter indicates
  3. lower than the altimeter indicates Correct answer.
  4. unaffected until the altimeter setting is changed

Explanation

The altimeter displays altitude based on the pressure set in the Kollsman window. Flying toward lower pressure at a constant indicated altitude places the aircraft at a lower true altitude, the basis of the 'high to low, look out below' rule.

Question 45Meteorology

Which set of conditions most typically accompanies the passage of a fast-moving cold front?

  1. A gradual temperature rise with steady pressure
  2. A sharp temperature drop, wind shift, and rising pressure Correct answer.
  3. Persistent fog with light and variable winds
  4. Widespread stratiform cloud with steady drizzle and light winds

Explanation

A cold front brings a rapid wind shift, a sharp temperature decrease, and a pressure rise as the post-frontal ridge builds in. Cumuliform clouds, showers, and possibly a squall line often accompany it.

Question 46Meteorology

Which characteristic identifies the mature stage of an air-mass thunderstorm?

  1. Continuous steady rain with no lightning
  2. Both updrafts and downdrafts, with heavy precipitation Correct answer.
  3. Only an updraft, with no precipitation reaching the surface
  4. A dissipating cloud with only downdrafts remaining

Explanation

The mature stage begins when precipitation starts reaching the surface and a downdraft develops alongside the updraft. This stage produces the heaviest rain, lightning, hail, and the strongest surface gusts.

Question 47Meteorology

An aircraft on one-mile final reports a sudden 20-knot airspeed gain, followed quickly by a 25-knot loss and a sink rate of 1,500 ft/min. Which hazard does this describe?

  1. Clear air turbulence at the tropopause
  2. A microburst encounter on short final Correct answer.
  3. Low-level mechanical turbulence from a treeline
  4. A mountain wave rotor below the ridge

Explanation

A microburst produces a performance-increasing headwind, then a strong downdraft, then a performance-decreasing tailwind as the aircraft exits. The rapid airspeed gain then loss with high sink rate is the classic signature, and recovery requires an immediate go-around.

Question 48Meteorology

Which condition is most favorable for the formation of clear ice on an aircraft?

  1. Small supercooled droplets at temperatures colder than -20 °C
  2. Large supercooled drops in freezing rain at 0 °C to -10 °C Correct answer.
  3. Ice crystals in cirrus at high altitude
  4. Snow falling through a shallow cold layer

Explanation

Clear (glaze) ice forms from large supercooled droplets with high liquid water content, typically in freezing rain at temperatures between 0 °C and about -10 °C. The droplets spread rearward before freezing, producing a heavy, hard accumulation that is difficult to remove.

Question 49Meteorology

Radiation fog is most likely to form under which conditions?

  1. Warm, moist air moving over a colder water surface
  2. Strong winds and cloudy skies over the ocean
  3. Daytime heating of a moist, unstable air mass over land
  4. Clear skies, light winds, and a long night over land Correct answer.

Explanation

Radiation fog forms when the ground cools rapidly by radiation on a clear night, chilling the air above it to saturation. Light winds provide just enough mixing for a shallow layer, and the fog typically dissipates after sunrise.

Question 50Meteorology

In the METAR report 'KBOS 121851Z 27015G22KT 10SM FEW045 18/09 A2992', what does the group 18/09 indicate?

  1. Temperature 18 °C and dew point 9 °C Correct answer.
  2. Temperature 9 °C and dew point 18 °C
  3. Temperature 18 °C and relative humidity of 9 percent
  4. Visibility 18 miles and cloud base 900 ft

Explanation

The temperature/dew point group lists temperature first and dew point second, separated by a slash, both in whole degrees Celsius. Here the temperature is 18 °C and the dew point 9 °C, giving a spread of 9 °C.