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FAA Ground Instructor practice questions

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Question 1Regulations and Publications

Under 14 CFR part 91, who is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of an aircraft?

  1. The pilot in command Correct answer.
  2. The air traffic controller handling the flight
  3. The registered owner
  4. The operator's director of safety

Explanation

14 CFR 91.3 states that the pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft. This authority includes the responsibility to deviate from a rule in an in-flight emergency to the extent required to meet that emergency.

Question 2Regulations and Publications

A private pilot operating without BasicMed must hold at least which class of medical certificate?

  1. No medical certificate of any class
  2. Second class
  3. First class
  4. Third class Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 61.23 requires private pilot privileges to be exercised with at least a third-class medical certificate, unless operating under a qualifying alternative such as BasicMed. First- and second-class certificates are required for higher privilege levels or specific operations.

Question 3Regulations and Publications

Which item is required equipment for an airplane operating under VFR during the day?

  1. An airspeed indicator Correct answer.
  2. An instrument panel flood light
  3. A heated pitot tube
  4. A landing light

Explanation

14 CFR 91.205(b) lists the minimum instruments and equipment for VFR flight during the day, and an airspeed indicator is one of those items. Landing lights, pitot heat, and panel lighting are not on the day-VFR minimum equipment list.

Question 4Regulations and Publications

When planning a day VFR flight in an airplane, what is the minimum fuel required beyond the first point of intended landing?

  1. 20 minutes at normal cruising speed
  2. 15 minutes at normal cruising speed
  3. 30 minutes at normal cruising speed Correct answer.
  4. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Explanation

14 CFR 91.151 requires enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes during the day. At night the required reserve is 45 minutes.

Question 5Regulations and Publications

What is the highest blood alcohol concentration permitted for a person acting as a crewmember of a civil aircraft?

  1. 0.02 percent
  2. 0.08 percent
  3. 0.00 percent
  4. 0.04 percent Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 91.17 prohibits acting as a crewmember while having a blood alcohol concentration of 0.04 percent or greater, or while under the influence of alcohol. The rule also requires at least 8 hours between consuming alcohol and acting as a crewmember.

Question 6Regulations and Publications

A flight review required by 14 CFR 61.56 consists of at least how much instruction?

  1. 2 hours of flight instruction with no ground time
  2. 2 hours of ground instruction with no flight time
  3. 1 hour ground plus 1 hour flight Correct answer.
  4. 1 hour of ground instruction with no flight time

Explanation

14 CFR 61.56 requires a flight review consisting of at least 1 hour of ground instruction and 1 hour of flight instruction, unless the pilot is otherwise exempt. The review must be given by an authorized instructor and logged in the pilot's logbook.

Question 7Regulations and Publications

What is the status of an airworthiness directive issued by the FAA?

  1. A proposed rule that takes effect only after public comment
  2. A manufacturer recommendation enforceable only by the manufacturer
  3. Advisory guidance that operators may follow voluntarily if they choose
  4. A mandatory requirement that must be met within the stated time Correct answer.

Explanation

Airworthiness directives are issued under 14 CFR part 39 and are mandatory; affected aircraft must comply within the specified time unless an alternative method of compliance is approved. They are issued when an unsafe condition exists in a product and that condition is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.

Question 8Regulations and Publications

Which publication provides airport directory information such as runway data, services, and contact information for U.S. airports?

  1. A terminal area chart
  2. A notice to air missions
  3. The Aeronautical Information Manual
  4. The Chart Supplement Correct answer.

Explanation

The Chart Supplement (formerly the Airport/Facility Directory) contains airport and facility data, including runway information, services, and contacts. The AIM explains procedures and regulations, while charts and NOTAMs serve different purposes.

Question 9Regulations and Publications

Under 14 CFR 91.103, which information must a pilot in command obtain for any flight?

  1. Only the en route weather forecast and fuel requirements
  2. Only the aircraft weight and balance and runway data
  3. Runway lengths and takeoff and landing distances Correct answer.
  4. The nearest radar facility's telephone number and hours

Explanation

14 CFR 91.103 requires the pilot in command to become familiar with all available information for the flight. For any flight, this includes runway lengths at airports of intended use and takeoff and landing distance data; for IFR or flights not in the vicinity of an airport, weather, fuel, alternatives, and known traffic delays are also required.

Question 10Regulations and Publications

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what minimum altitude applies over a congested area of a city?

  1. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 1,000-foot horizontal radius
  2. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 2,000 feet horizontally Correct answer.
  3. 500 feet above the highest obstacle within 2,000 feet horizontally
  4. 1,000 feet above the surface within 1,000 feet horizontally

Explanation

14 CFR 91.119 requires an aircraft over a congested area to remain at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Over other than congested areas, the minimum is 500 feet above the surface, and over open water or sparsely populated areas it must not be closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Question 11Regulations and Publications

What are the basic VFR weather minimums for operating in Class D airspace?

  1. 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds
  2. 3 statute miles visibility and a 1,000-foot ceiling Correct answer.
  3. 5 statute miles visibility and a 1,000-foot ceiling
  4. 3 statute miles visibility and a 500-foot ceiling

Explanation

14 CFR 91.155 sets Class D minimums at 3 statute miles visibility and a ceiling of 1,000 feet. The same basic minimums apply in Class B, C, and E surface areas, though Class B also requires clear of clouds.

Question 12Regulations and Publications

An aircraft's most recent annual inspection was completed on June 12 of last year. Through what date may the aircraft be operated under 14 CFR 91.409?

  1. June 12 of the current year
  2. June 30 of the current year Correct answer.
  3. May 31 of the current year
  4. July 12 of the current year

Explanation

14 CFR 91.409 requires an annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months, and the inspection remains valid through the last day of the 12th month after the month in which it was completed. An inspection completed in June of one year therefore remains valid through June 30 of the next year.

Question 13Regulations and Publications

A Mode C transponder is generally required to operate in which airspace?

  1. Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL outside the veil
  2. Class C airspace and the Mode C veil Correct answer.
  3. Class D airspace only when the tower is closed
  4. Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

Explanation

14 CFR 91.215 requires an operable Mode C transponder in Class A, B, and C airspace, above 10,000 feet MSL over the contiguous United States (excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL), and within the Mode C veil around Class B airports. Class C airspace and the 30-nautical-mile veil are both covered.

Question 14Regulations and Publications

To carry passengers, a pilot must have made at least how many takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days?

  1. Two takeoffs and landings in any aircraft of the same category and class
  2. Three takeoffs and landings in the same category, class, and type if required Correct answer.
  3. Three takeoffs and landings in any aircraft regardless of its category, class, or type
  4. One takeoff and landing in the same category and class only

Explanation

14 CFR 61.57 requires three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days to carry passengers. They must be in the same category, class, and type if a type rating is required, and for tailwheel aircraft the landings must be to a full stop.

Question 15Regulations and Publications

Under 14 CFR 61.113, a private pilot may share operating expenses with passengers only if the pilot pays at least what portion?

  1. The fixed costs but not the fuel costs
  2. The pilot's pro rata share of the operating expenses Correct answer.
  3. The pilot's share based on the number of seats occupied
  4. Any amount the passengers agree to in writing

Explanation

14 CFR 61.113 prohibits a private pilot from paying less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers. The expenses must be limited to fuel, oil, airport expenditures, and rental fees, and the passengers may not pay more than their proportionate share.

Question 16Regulations and Publications

What is required before a pilot may act as pilot in command of a complex airplane?

  1. A high-performance endorsement and a commercial certificate
  2. A type rating issued by the FAA for the aircraft
  3. A commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating
  4. An instructor's logbook endorsement after training Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 61.31 requires ground and flight training in a complex airplane and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor before acting as PIC. A complex airplane has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable-pitch propeller.

Question 17Regulations and Publications

Which event requires immediate notification to the NTSB under 49 CFR 830?

  1. Substantial damage in an aircraft accident Correct answer.
  2. A flight delayed more than 2 hours by weather conditions
  3. A pilot's failure of a biennial flight review with an instructor
  4. A bird strike with no damage and no reported injury

Explanation

49 CFR 830 requires immediate notification of an aircraft accident, including one involving death or serious injury or substantial damage to the aircraft. Notification must be made to the nearest NTSB field office as soon as possible.

Question 18Regulations and Publications

What communication requirement applies before a pilot operates an aircraft in Class D airspace?

  1. Monitor the emergency frequency at all times while in the airspace
  2. Establish two-way radio communication before entry Correct answer.
  3. Receive a clearance from the FAA ARTCC before entry
  4. File an IFR flight plan before entering the airspace

Explanation

14 CFR 91.129 requires two-way radio communication to be established with the Class D controlling facility before operating in that airspace. The pilot must maintain communication and comply with instructions while in the airspace.

Question 19Regulations and Publications

Which condition must a pilot meet to operate under BasicMed?

  1. Hold at least a commercial pilot certificate
  2. Complete a medical course and a physician exam Correct answer.
  3. Pass an FAA practical test every 24 months
  4. Hold a current first-class medical certificate at all times

Explanation

BasicMed requires the pilot to complete an approved medical education course, obtain a comprehensive medical examination by a state-licensed physician, and hold a valid driver's license among other conditions. It allows certain operations without a traditional FAA medical certificate.

Question 20Regulations and Publications

What is the primary purpose of an FAA advisory circular?

  1. To replace the Aeronautical Information Manual
  2. To provide guidance and acceptable methods of compliance Correct answer.
  3. To issue enforceable regulations with the force of law
  4. To publish airworthiness directives for affected aircraft

Explanation

Advisory circulars provide guidance, information, and acceptable methods of compliance with regulations, but they do not themselves impose binding requirements. They are one of the FAA's ways of informing the public about nonregulatory means of complying with the rules.

Question 21Regulations and Publications

How long must an owner or operator retain records of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations under 14 CFR 91.417?

  1. For 24 calendar months after the work is performed
  2. Until the aircraft is sold, with no time limit
  3. Until repeated or superseded, or for 1 year Correct answer.
  4. For 6 months after the work is performed

Explanation

14 CFR 91.417(b) requires records of maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations to be retained until the work is repeated or superseded by other work, or for 1 year after the work is performed, whichever is later. Records of required inspections must be retained until superseded or for 1 year, and certain other records have separate retention rules.

Question 22Regulations and Publications

An emergency locator transmitter battery must be replaced or recharged when it has been used for more than what cumulative time?

  1. 30 minutes
  2. 1 cumulative hour Correct answer.
  3. 10 cumulative hours
  4. 2 cumulative hours

Explanation

14 CFR 91.207 requires the ELT battery to be replaced or recharged when the transmitter has been used for more than 1 cumulative hour, or when 50 percent of the battery's useful life has expired, whichever occurs first. The expiration date is also recorded on the outside of the transmitter.

Question 23Regulations and Publications

What is the maximum permissible error for a VOR equipment check performed at a ground checkpoint?

  1. Plus or minus 4 degrees Correct answer.
  2. Plus or minus 2 degrees
  3. Plus or minus 10 degrees
  4. Plus or minus 6 degrees

Explanation

14 CFR 91.171 requires a VOR check within the preceding 30 days for IFR operations, with a maximum error of plus or minus 4 degrees at a ground checkpoint, plus or minus 6 degrees at an airborne checkpoint, or plus or minus 4 degrees against a designated radial. The check must be logged.

Question 24Regulations and Publications

For IFR flight, within what period must the altimeter and static pressure systems have been inspected and tested?

  1. Within the preceding 12 calendar months
  2. Within the preceding 24 calendar months Correct answer.
  3. Within the preceding 6 calendar months
  4. Within the preceding 30 days

Explanation

14 CFR 91.411 requires the altimeter and static pressure systems to be inspected and tested within the preceding 24 calendar months for IFR operations. The test must be conducted by an appropriately rated repair station or airframe mechanic.

Question 25Regulations and Publications

For an IFR flight, an alternate airport is required when the destination weather at the estimated time of arrival is forecast to be below what minimum?

  1. 500-foot ceiling or 1 statute mile visibility
  2. 3,000-foot ceiling or 5 statute miles visibility
  3. 1,000-foot ceiling or 2 statute miles visibility
  4. 2,000-foot ceiling or 3 statute miles visibility Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 91.169 requires an alternate airport when the destination forecast, at the estimated time of arrival, is below a 2,000-foot ceiling or 3 statute miles visibility, unless a specific exception applies. The alternate must meet the weather minimums in the rule for the approach to be used.

Question 26Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

Class A airspace extends vertically from

  1. 14,500 feet MSL up to and including FL 600
  2. 12,500 feet MSL up to and including FL 450
  3. 18,000 feet AGL up to and including FL 600
  4. 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL 600 Correct answer.

Explanation

Class A airspace begins at 18,000 feet MSL and extends up to and including flight level 600, and it is defined in terms of pressure altitude rather than height above ground. Operation in Class A requires an IFR clearance and an instrument-rated pilot.

Question 27Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

What must a VFR pilot obtain before operating in Class B airspace?

  1. An explicit ATC clearance Correct answer.
  2. A discrete transponder code of 1200
  3. A filed VFR flight plan
  4. Two-way radio contact with the tower

Explanation

Class B airspace requires an explicit clearance, meaning the controller must actually clear the flight into the airspace. Merely establishing radio communication satisfies Class C and Class D, but not Class B.

Question 28Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

On a sectional aeronautical chart, the lateral limits of Class C airspace are outlined with

  1. Solid blue lines
  2. Dashed blue lines
  3. Solid magenta lines Correct answer.
  4. Dashed magenta lines

Explanation

Class C airspace is depicted with solid magenta lines, while Class B uses solid blue lines and Class D uses dashed blue lines. A dashed magenta line marks a Class E surface area.

Question 29Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

The VFR weather minimums in Class B airspace are

  1. 3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds Correct answer.
  2. 5 statute miles with 1,000 above, 1,000 below, 1 mile horizontal
  3. 3 statute miles with 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontal
  4. 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds

Explanation

Class B has the most permissive VFR weather minimums of any controlled airspace: 3 statute miles flight visibility and only clearance from clouds. This reflects the positive control and radar coverage provided in Class B.

Question 30Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

While flying at 800 feet AGL in Class G airspace during the day, the minimum required flight visibility and cloud clearance is

  1. 3 statute miles with 500 below, 1,000 above, and 2,000 horizontal
  2. 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds Correct answer.
  3. 5 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds
  4. 1 statute mile with 500 feet below clouds

Explanation

In Class G airspace at or below 1,200 feet AGL during the day, only 1 statute mile visibility and clearance from clouds are required. The requirement increases to 3 statute miles with 500/1,000/2,000 cloud clearance at night.

Question 31Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

VFR flight in Class E airspace at 4,500 feet MSL requires

  1. 3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds
  2. 3 statute miles with 1,000 above, 500 below, and 2,000 horizontal Correct answer.
  3. 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds
  4. 5 statute miles with 1,000 above, 1,000 below, and 1 mile horizontal

Explanation

Below 10,000 feet MSL, Class E requires 3 statute miles visibility and cloud clearance of 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally. The more restrictive 5-mile standard begins at 10,000 feet MSL.

Question 32Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

A special VFR clearance authorizes a pilot to operate in controlled airspace with a flight visibility of at least

  1. 3 statute miles and a ceiling of 1,000 feet
  2. 1 statute mile and clear of clouds Correct answer.
  3. 2 statute miles and a ceiling of 500 feet
  4. 1/2 statute mile and clear of clouds

Explanation

Special VFR permits flight with 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds when ATC issues the clearance. At night the pilot must be instrument rated and the aircraft must be equipped for IFR flight.

Question 33Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

The Mode C veil surrounding a Class B primary airport extends outward how far and up to what altitude?

  1. 10 NM from the primary airport, up to 4,000 feet AGL
  2. 20 NM from the primary airport, up to 10,000 feet AGL
  3. 30 NM from the primary airport, up to 10,000 feet AGL
  4. 30 NM from the primary airport, up to 10,000 feet MSL Correct answer.

Explanation

The Mode C veil extends 30 nautical miles from the Class B primary airport and requires an operating Mode C or ADS-B equipped transponder from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL.

Question 34Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

Airspace in which aircraft flight is forbidden for security or national welfare reasons is designated as a

  1. Alert area
  2. Restricted area
  3. Prohibited area Correct answer.
  4. Warning area

Explanation

Prohibited areas, charted with a P- prefix, are airspace where flight is forbidden. Restricted areas, by contrast, contain hazardous activity that may be entered only under the conditions specified for that area.

Question 35Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

Which light signal directed at an aircraft in flight means "give way to other aircraft and continue circling"?

  1. Steady green
  2. Flashing green
  3. Steady red Correct answer.
  4. Flashing red

Explanation

A steady red light directed at an aircraft in flight tells the pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling. A flashing red instead warns that the airport is unsafe and to exercise extreme caution.

Question 36Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

For VFR cruising flight above 3,000 feet AGL, which altitudes are correct for a magnetic course of 200 degrees?

  1. 3,500, 5,500, and 7,500 feet MSL
  2. 6,500, 8,500, and 10,500 feet MSL Correct answer.
  3. 4,000, 6,000, and 8,000 feet MSL
  4. 4,500, 6,500, and 8,500 feet MSL

Explanation

Magnetic courses from 180 through 359 use even thousands plus 500 feet, so 6,500, 8,500, and 10,500 feet MSL are correct. Odd thousands plus 500 feet apply to courses from 0 through 179 degrees.

Question 37Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

An IFR flight plan with a magnetic course of 100 degrees should use which cruising altitude?

  1. 5,000 feet MSL Correct answer.
  2. 4,000 feet MSL
  3. 6,000 feet MSL
  4. 8,000 feet MSL

Explanation

IFR cruising altitudes use odd thousands for magnetic courses of 0 through 179 degrees and even thousands for 180 through 359 degrees. A course of 100 degrees therefore calls for 3,000, 5,000, 7,000 feet MSL, or higher odd thousands.

Question 38Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

Although individually tailored, Class D airspace normally extends upward from the surface to

  1. 1,200 feet above the airport elevation
  2. 4,000 feet above the airport elevation
  3. 2,500 feet above the airport elevation Correct answer.
  4. 700 feet above the airport elevation

Explanation

Class D airspace is tailored to the needs of each airport but is normally topped at 2,500 feet above the airport elevation, with the ceiling charted in MSL in parentheses.

Question 39Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

Class C airspace normally consists of

  1. A 5 NM core to 10,000 MSL plus a 10 NM shelf
  2. A 3 NM core to 2,500 AGL plus a 5 NM shelf
  3. A 10 NM core to 4,000 AGL plus a 5 NM shelf
  4. A 5 NM core to 4,000 AGL plus a 10 NM shelf Correct answer.

Explanation

Class C typically has an inner core with a 5 nautical mile radius from the surface to 4,000 feet AGL, surrounded by an outer shelf with a 10 nautical mile radius from 1,200 to 4,000 feet AGL.

Question 40Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

In the conterminous United States, a federal Victor airway is

  1. 8 NM wide, 4 NM each side Correct answer.
  2. 4 NM wide, 2 NM each side
  3. 10 NM wide, 5 NM each side
  4. 16 NM wide, 8 NM each side

Explanation

Victor airways are 8 nautical miles wide, extending 4 nautical miles either side of the centerline. Their base is normally 1,200 feet AGL unless a higher base is charted.

Question 41Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

The VHF frequency designated for emergency communications and monitored by ATC is

  1. 121.5 MHz Correct answer.
  2. 122.0 MHz
  3. 123.45 MHz
  4. 122.75 MHz

Explanation

121.5 MHz is the VHF emergency frequency, often called guard, and is monitored by ATC facilities and many aircraft. Pilots should use it only for emergencies or when directed.

Question 42Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

A shaded magenta vignette on a sectional chart indicates that Class E airspace begins at

  1. The surface
  2. 1,200 feet AGL
  3. 14,500 feet MSL
  4. 700 feet AGL Correct answer.

Explanation

A faded magenta vignette shows Class E airspace with a floor at 700 feet AGL, typically surrounding airports without an operating control tower. A faded blue vignette indicates Class E beginning at 1,200 feet AGL.

Question 43Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

Flight by VFR aircraft within a military operations area is

  1. Permitted only during daylight hours
  2. Permitted only with prior ATC authorization
  3. Prohibited at all times
  4. Permitted, but extreme caution is advised Correct answer.

Explanation

A MOA separates certain military training activities from IFR traffic, but VFR aircraft may fly through it. Pilots should exercise extreme caution because of the high-speed and acrobatic maneuvers conducted there.

Question 44Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

A warning area is special use airspace that is located

  1. Over domestic land areas near military bases
  2. Only above 10,000 feet MSL inside the United States
  3. Over international waters and coastal areas Correct answer.
  4. Only within Class A airspace above 18,000 feet

Explanation

Warning areas begin about 3 nautical miles off the U.S. coast and extend outward over international waters, where hazards to nonparticipating aircraft may exist. They are not prohibited areas, but pilots should avoid them when activities are in progress.

Question 45Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

At or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 nautical miles of a Class C primary airport, the maximum indicated airspeed is

  1. 250 knots
  2. 156 knots
  3. 230 knots
  4. 200 knots Correct answer.

Explanation

A 200-knot limit applies within the airspace underlying Class B and within Class C or Class D surface areas within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport at or below 2,500 feet AGL. Elsewhere below 10,000 feet MSL the limit is 250 knots.

Question 46Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

In areas where no higher class of airspace overlies it, Class G airspace extends upward to

  1. 14,500 feet MSL Correct answer.
  2. 12,500 feet MSL
  3. 18,000 feet MSL
  4. 10,000 feet MSL

Explanation

Where Class E does not overlie it, Class G extends from the surface up to 14,500 feet MSL. Above that level Class E airspace begins and continues up to the floor of Class A.

Question 47Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

A terminal radar service area provides

  1. Mandatory separation for every VFR aircraft
  2. Automatic IFR clearances for every aircraft
  3. Radar service for VFR aircraft that request it Correct answer.
  4. Traffic advisories given only to IFR aircraft

Explanation

TRSA service provides radar sequencing and traffic advisories to participating VFR aircraft in addition to normal IFR separation. Participation by VFR pilots is encouraged but remains voluntary.

Question 48Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

A transponder with Mode C altitude reporting is required when operating

  1. Only when ATC requests that the pilot turn it on
  2. Only while operating inside Class B airspace
  3. In Class A, B, and C airspace and above 10,000 MSL Correct answer.
  4. Anywhere above 5,000 feet MSL in controlled airspace

Explanation

Regulations require a Mode C or ADS-B equipped transponder in Class A, B, and C airspace, within the Mode C veil, and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL.

Question 49Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

VFR flight in Class E airspace at 12,500 feet MSL requires a flight visibility and cloud clearance of at least

  1. 3 statute miles with 1,000 above, 500 below, and 2,000 feet horizontal
  2. 3 statute miles and clear of clouds
  3. 1 statute mile and clear of clouds
  4. 5 statute miles with 1,000 above, 1,000 below, and 1 mile horizontal Correct answer.

Explanation

At or above 10,000 feet MSL, the VFR minimums increase to 5 statute miles visibility with 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 statute mile horizontally from clouds.

Question 50Airspace and Air Traffic Control Procedures

For entry into Class C airspace, two-way radio communication is considered established when

  1. The pilot transmits the initial radio call
  2. The pilot has received the ATIS broadcast
  3. The aircraft's transponder appears on the controller's radar scope
  4. The controller responds using the aircraft's call sign Correct answer.

Explanation

Radio communication is established only when the controller replies using the aircraft's call sign, confirming the transmission was received. Hearing no response, or merely transmitting, does not authorize entry.