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FAA Instrument Rating practice questions

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Question 1Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

Under IFR, what minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds applies to operations in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during the day?

  1. 1 statute mile visibility and 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal Correct answer.
  2. 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds
  3. 3 statute miles visibility and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal
  4. 3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds

Explanation

In Class G airspace at or below 1,200 feet AGL during the day, IFR requires at least 1 statute mile visibility and cloud clearance of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal. Class G is the only airspace where IFR visibility minimums drop below 3 statute miles.

Question 2Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot plans an IFR flight and the destination airport has only a GPS-based approach with no alternate required by the 1-2-3 rule. What minimum weather must the destination forecast show to file without naming an alternate?

  1. Ceiling at least 2,000 feet and visibility at least 3 statute miles at ETA only
  2. Ceiling at least 2,000 feet and visibility at least 3 statute miles from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA Correct answer.
  3. Ceiling at least 1,500 feet and visibility at least 3 statute miles at ETA only
  4. Ceiling at least 1,000 feet and visibility at least 2 statute miles from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA

Explanation

The 1-2-3 rule requires the destination forecast to show a ceiling of at least 2,000 feet and visibility of at least 3 statute miles for the period 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival. If that standard is not met, an alternate must be listed on the flight plan.

Question 3Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

When an alternate airport is required, what standard weather minimums must the alternate forecast meet at the estimated time of arrival?

  1. Ceiling 1,000 feet and visibility 3 statute miles for any approach
  2. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles for a precision approach, or 800 feet and 2 statute miles for a nonprecision approach Correct answer.
  3. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles for a precision approach, or 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles for a nonprecision approach
  4. Ceiling 1,000 feet and visibility 2 statute miles for a precision approach, or 800 feet and 2 statute miles for a nonprecision approach

Explanation

Standard alternate minimums are 600 feet ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility for a precision approach, and 800 feet ceiling and 2 statute miles for a nonprecision approach. The airport must also have an approved instrument approach procedure the pilot can use.

Question 4Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing an approach chart and sees the note 'NA at night' beside a procedure. What does this indicate?

  1. The procedure has higher minimums after sunset
  2. The procedure may be flown at night only with an operating autopilot
  3. The procedure requires a night currency endorsement
  4. The procedure is not authorized at night Correct answer.

Explanation

'NA at night' means the procedure is not authorized during the hours of darkness, typically because of terrain, lighting, or obstacle concerns. Pilots must plan an alternate procedure or arrival time when this note appears.

Question 5Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What is the primary purpose of a Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) circle depicted on an instrument approach chart?

  1. To set the missed approach climb gradient
  2. To define the final approach segment altitude
  3. To provide terrain clearance within 25 nautical miles of the primary navaid at 100 feet per nautical mile
  4. To provide obstacle clearance of 1,000 feet within 25 nautical miles of the primary navaid in the sector shown Correct answer.

Explanation

An MSA provides at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within 25 nautical miles of the primary navaid, typically divided into sectors. It is an emergency/terrain reference and does not authorize descent for an approach.

Question 6Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot notes the departure airport has a published Diverse Departure. Under what condition may the pilot use it?

  1. Only when the aircraft can climb at 200 feet per nautical mile
  2. Only when ATC issues a diverse departure clearance
  3. Only when the runway has a published minimum climb gradient
  4. Only when the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and visibility at least 3 statute miles Correct answer.

Explanation

A Diverse Departure may be used only when the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and visibility at least 3 statute miles. If those conditions are not met, an ODP or other procedure is required.

Question 7Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

When a takeoff minimum is not published for a Part 91 operation, what minimum visibility applies for a twin-engine airplane?

  1. One statute mile
  2. Three-quarters statute mile
  3. Standard takeoff minimums do not apply to Part 91 Correct answer.
  4. One-half statute mile

Explanation

Part 91 operators are not subject to standard takeoff minimums unless the procedure specifies them. However, the pilot must still ensure the aircraft can safely climb and clear obstacles, and many operators adopt company minimums.

Question 8Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is checking a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) and sees 'Climb to 4,000 then left turn to 180.' What must the pilot do if unable to comply?

  1. Request a different clearance before departure Correct answer.
  2. Fly the SID but advise ATC after takeoff
  3. Depart VFR and pick up the clearance airborne
  4. Climb to 4,000 then turn right

Explanation

If a pilot cannot comply with a published SID, they must request an alternate clearance before departure. Departing and then advising ATC is unsafe because obstacle clearance depends on following the procedure.

Question 9Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'MAA' mean on an instrument chart?

  1. Minimum Authorized Altitude
  2. Missed Approach Altitude
  3. Maximum Authorized Altitude Correct answer.
  4. Minimum Approach Altitude

Explanation

MAA stands for Maximum Authorized Altitude, the highest altitude at which a navaid or airway is usable. Operating above it may result in unreliable signal reception or loss of course guidance.

Question 10Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot determines the freezing level is at 6,000 feet and the planned cruise altitude is 10,000 feet in visible moisture. What is the most appropriate planning action?

  1. Increase airspeed to reduce ice accumulation
  2. Select an altitude below the freezing level or delay the flight Correct answer.
  3. Proceed as planned; icing is unlikely at 10,000 feet
  4. File IFR and rely on pitot heat

Explanation

Visible moisture at temperatures below freezing creates a risk of airframe icing. The safest planning action is to choose an altitude below the freezing level or postpone the flight if the aircraft is not certified for known icing.

Question 11Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'MOCA' represent on an airway chart?

  1. Mandatory Obstacle Clearance Altitude
  2. Maximum Obstacle Clearance Altitude
  3. Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude Correct answer.
  4. Minimum Operating Clearance Altitude

Explanation

MOCA is the Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude, which guarantees terrain clearance along an airway segment. It may not guarantee navaid reception, so pilots must also consider MEA.

Question 12Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is planning an IFR flight and the departure airport has no published ODP. What minimum climb gradient is assumed for obstacle clearance?

  1. 500 feet per nautical mile
  2. 200 feet per nautical mile Correct answer.
  3. 300 feet per nautical mile
  4. 400 feet per nautical mile

Explanation

When no ODP is published and a diverse departure applies, the standard assumption is a 200 feet per nautical mile climb gradient. If the aircraft cannot meet it, the pilot must arrange an alternate procedure.

Question 13Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What is the significance of an 'M' suffix on an approach minimums line, such as '1,200-1'?

  1. Minimums apply only to circling approaches
  2. Minimums are for a specific aircraft category Correct answer.
  3. Military minimums apply
  4. Minimums require a special endorsement

Explanation

A letter or category designation on an approach minimums line indicates that those minimums apply to a specific aircraft approach category based on Vref/Vso speeds. Pilots must use the line matching their category.

Question 14Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot reviews a TAF and sees 'BECMG 1012/1014 3SM -RA BKN008.' What does BECMG indicate?

  1. A rapid change occurring at a specific time
  2. A change that has already occurred
  3. A gradual change expected during the stated period Correct answer.
  4. A temporary fluctuation lasting less than an hour

Explanation

BECMG indicates a gradual change in conditions expected during the stated period, typically within a two-hour window. It differs from TEMPO, which describes temporary fluctuations.

Question 15Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'RVR' represent on an approach chart or in a weather report?

  1. Runway Visual Range Correct answer.
  2. Required Visual Reference
  3. Runway Visibility Reference
  4. Reduced Visibility Restriction

Explanation

RVR stands for Runway Visual Range, the distance a pilot can see down the runway from the touchdown zone. It is measured by instruments and reported in feet.

Question 16Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing an approach chart and sees a 'TDZE' of 645 feet and a DA of 845 feet. What does this indicate?

  1. The MDA is 845 feet AGL
  2. The DA is 200 feet above the runway end elevation
  3. The touchdown zone elevation is 645 feet and decision altitude is 845 feet MSL Correct answer.
  4. The touchdown zone elevation is 845 feet and decision altitude is 645 feet MSL

Explanation

TDZE is the touchdown zone elevation, and DA is the decision altitude referenced to MSL. The difference between them (200 feet) is the height above touchdown.

Question 17Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'MEL' refer to in preflight planning for an IFR flight?

  1. Mandatory Equipment Log
  2. Minimum Equipment List Correct answer.
  3. Maximum Enroute Level
  4. Minimum Engine Limit

Explanation

The Minimum Equipment List specifies equipment that may be inoperative while the aircraft remains airworthy under specified conditions. It is used during preflight to determine whether a flight can proceed with inoperative items.

Question 18Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing a departure procedure and sees 'Climb in visual conditions to 3,000 then proceed on course.' What is the pilot's responsibility?

  1. Climb on instruments regardless of visibility
  2. Turn immediately after liftoff
  3. Maintain visual reference to terrain until reaching 3,000 feet Correct answer.
  4. Request a new clearance before takeoff

Explanation

When a departure procedure requires visual conditions to a specified altitude, the pilot must maintain visual reference to terrain and obstacles until reaching that altitude. If visibility prevents this, the procedure cannot be used.

Question 19Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'MEA' represent on an airway chart?

  1. Maximum Enroute Altitude
  2. Mandatory Enroute Altitude
  3. Minimum Enroute Altitude Correct answer.
  4. Minimum Emergency Altitude

Explanation

MEA is the Minimum Enroute Altitude, the lowest altitude that ensures both obstacle clearance and acceptable navigational signal coverage along an airway. It is typically higher than MOCA.

Question 20Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot plans an IFR flight and the destination airport has a published instrument approach, but the alternate airport has only a GPS approach without vertical guidance. Which alternate minimums apply?

  1. 800 feet ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility Correct answer.
  2. 600 feet ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
  3. 1,200 feet ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility
  4. 1,000 feet ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility

Explanation

A GPS approach without vertical guidance is a nonprecision approach, so standard alternate minimums of 800 feet ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility apply. The pilot must also confirm the approach is authorized for the planned use.

Question 21Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What is the purpose of the 'MDA' on a nonprecision approach chart?

  1. The altitude at which the approach may begin
  2. The altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated
  3. The altitude below which descent is not permitted unless required visual references are in sight Correct answer.
  4. The altitude of the final approach fix

Explanation

The MDA is the lowest altitude to which descent is authorized on a nonprecision approach until the required visual references are in sight. Descending below MDA without those references is prohibited.

Question 22Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing a chart and sees 'MRA 5,000' on an airway segment. What does this indicate?

  1. Minimum Required Altitude is 5,000 feet
  2. Mandatory Route Altitude is 5,000 feet
  3. Minimum Reception Altitude for the navaid is 5,000 feet Correct answer.
  4. Maximum Route Altitude is 5,000 feet

Explanation

MRA is the Minimum Reception Altitude, the lowest altitude at which the navaid signal can be received reliably along that segment. Operating below it may result in loss of course guidance.

Question 23Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot notes that the aircraft's altimeter system has not been tested within the required period for IFR flight. What is the correct action?

  1. Request a waiver from ATC
  2. Fly only in VFR conditions until the next annual
  3. Proceed if the altimeter reads within 75 feet of field elevation
  4. Complete the required altimeter system and static pressure test before IFR flight Correct answer.

Explanation

For IFR flight, the altimeter system must have been tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months, including the static pressure system. The pilot must verify this during preflight.

Question 24Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'ODP' refer to in departure planning?

  1. Operational Departure Plan
  2. Obstacle Departure Procedure Correct answer.
  3. Optional Departure Procedure
  4. Obstacle Designated Path

Explanation

ODP stands for Obstacle Departure Procedure, a published procedure designed to provide obstacle clearance during departure. It may be flown without ATC clearance unless a SID is assigned.

Question 25Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is planning an IFR flight and the forecast shows a stationary front with widespread embedded thunderstorms along the route. What is the most appropriate preflight decision?

  1. Delay or reroute the flight to avoid the hazard Correct answer.
  2. Proceed if the aircraft has weather radar
  3. File IFR and plan to deviate around cells
  4. Increase altitude to fly over the storms

Explanation

Embedded thunderstorms along the entire route present an unacceptable hazard that cannot be reliably avoided by airborne deviation alone. The safest preflight decision is to delay or reroute to avoid the hazard.

Question 26Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is planning an IFR flight and the destination airport has no published instrument approach procedure. What minimum visibility and ceiling must the destination forecast provide for the flight to be legal without naming an alternate?

  1. A ceiling of at least 2,000 feet and visibility of at least 3 statute miles Correct answer.
  2. A ceiling of at least 1,500 feet and visibility of at least 3 statute miles
  3. A ceiling of at least 3,000 feet and visibility of at least 5 statute miles
  4. A ceiling of at least 1,000 feet and visibility of at least 2 statute miles

Explanation

Under Part 91, an alternate is required unless the destination has an instrument approach and the forecast at the estimated time of arrival plus one hour either side is at least 2,000 feet ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility. An airport with no published approach can never satisfy that exemption, so an alternate must be filed.

Question 27Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot reads that the destination alternate forecast contains a temporary condition of 1,800 feet ceiling and 2 statute miles. How should this TEMPO group be treated when deciding whether the alternate qualifies?

  1. It applies only if it overlaps the estimated time of arrival
  2. It is averaged with the prevailing forecast to derive a mean condition
  3. It may be disregarded because only the prevailing condition is used for alternate planning Correct answer.
  4. It controls, so the alternate is not usable and another must be selected

Explanation

When applying the alternate weather minimums, the forecast conditions are those expected at the estimated time of arrival; temporary fluctuations are not used to disqualify or qualify the alternate. The prevailing forecast group is what governs.

Question 28Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing the takeoff obstacle analysis for a departure airport with no published departure procedure and no diverse departure. What responsibility does the pilot have for obstacle clearance after reaching 400 feet above the departure end of runway elevation?

  1. The pilot needs clearance only above 1,500 feet above ground level
  2. The pilot may rely on ATC radar to provide terrain advisories immediately after takeoff
  3. The pilot may assume standard clearance exists to the MEA along the on-course route
  4. The pilot must ensure obstacle clearance, since no published procedure guarantees it Correct answer.

Explanation

When no ODP or diverse departure is published, no obstacle assessment has been provided, so the pilot must plan and fly a route that ensures terrain and obstacle clearance. ATC is not responsible for terrain avoidance in that phase.

Question 29Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does a published climb gradient of 320 feet per nautical mile on a departure procedure require of a pilot flying at 120 knots ground speed?

  1. A climb rate of approximately 800 feet per minute
  2. A climb rate of approximately 480 feet per minute
  3. A climb rate of approximately 640 feet per minute Correct answer.
  4. A climb rate of approximately 320 feet per minute

Explanation

Climb gradient in feet per nautical mile is converted to a rate by multiplying by ground speed in nautical miles per minute. At 120 knots (2 NM per minute), 320 ft/NM yields about 640 feet per minute.

Question 30Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot notes that the aircraft's static pressure system and altimeter have not been inspected within the required period for IFR flight. What is the consequence for the planned IFR flight?

  1. The flight may proceed if a second altimeter is installed and operating
  2. The flight may proceed if ATC is advised of the overdue inspection
  3. The flight may proceed if the pilot remains in visual conditions
  4. The flight may not be conducted under IFR until the inspections are completed Correct answer.

Explanation

Instrument flight rules require that the altimeter system be tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months, and the static pressure system within the same period. If either is overdue, the aircraft is not airworthy for IFR operations.

Question 31Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is checking the aircraft's VOR receiver check before an IFR flight. Which result from a ground check at a designated test point indicates the receiver is within tolerance?

  1. The indicated bearing is within 4 degrees of the published radial Correct answer.
  2. The indicated bearing is within 6 degrees of the published radial
  3. The indicated bearing is within 2 degrees of the published radial
  4. The indicated bearing is within 10 degrees of the published radial

Explanation

A ground check at a designated VOR test facility or published test point must show an error no greater than plus or minus 4 degrees. This tolerance reflects the accuracy needed for IFR navigation.

Question 32Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

When a dual VOR check is used to satisfy the IFR receiver requirement, what maximum difference between the two receivers is acceptable?

  1. 6 degrees
  2. 10 degrees
  3. 4 degrees Correct answer.
  4. 2 degrees

Explanation

A dual VOR check compares two VOR receivers tuned to the same facility, and the allowable difference between their indications is 4 degrees. This is the same tolerance used for the ground check.

Question 33Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing the forecast for an alternate airport and finds only a probability group of thunderstorms during the arrival window. How should this be treated in alternate planning?

  1. A PROB group is used only when it exceeds 50 percent
  2. A PROB group requires the pilot to add one hour to the arrival time
  3. A PROB group is not a forecast condition and does not by itself disqualify the alternate Correct answer.
  4. A PROB group is treated as a prevailing condition and disqualifies the alternate

Explanation

Probability groups describe the chance of occurrence rather than the expected prevailing condition, so they are not used as the controlling forecast for alternate minimums. The prevailing forecast determines suitability.

Question 34Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'MVA' represent on an IFR area chart?

  1. The altitude at which a missed approach must begin
  2. The lowest altitude ATC may assign in a given sector while providing terrain clearance Correct answer.
  3. The lowest altitude that guarantees reception of navigation signals along an airway
  4. The minimum altitude for a diverse departure area

Explanation

Minimum vectoring altitude is the lowest altitude controllers may use when vectoring aircraft in a sector, based on radar and terrain analysis. It differs from the MEA, which relates to navigation signal and airway clearance.

Question 35Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is planning an IFR flight and notes the aircraft has a minimum equipment list. What is the purpose of the MEL?

  1. It replaces the airworthiness certificate during flight
  2. It allows operation with certain equipment inoperative under specified conditions Correct answer.
  3. It authorizes flight without any required inspections
  4. It lists the equipment that must always be operative with no exceptions

Explanation

An approved MEL permits operation with specific items inoperative, provided the associated conditions and limitations are met. It is derived from the master minimum equipment list and requires FAA approval.

Question 36Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing an approach chart and sees a note that the approach requires 'special pilot qualification.' What does this indicate?

  1. The approach may be flown only by airline crews
  2. The pilot must hold specific authorization before flying the procedure Correct answer.
  3. The pilot must have logged 100 hours of instrument time
  4. The approach may be flown only in visual conditions

Explanation

Special pilot qualification procedures, such as certain circling or high-performance approaches, require specific training and authorization beyond the standard instrument rating. The chart note alerts the pilot to that requirement.

Question 37Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot examines an approach chart and finds a 'cold temperature correction' note. What is the purpose of applying this correction?

  1. To raise the published minimum altitude because the altimeter overreads in cold air Correct answer.
  2. To correct the VOR receiver for temperature effects
  3. To adjust the missed approach point for wind
  4. To lower the published minimum altitude because the altimeter underreads in cold air

Explanation

In very cold temperatures the altimeter indicates higher than the true altitude, so flying the published minimum could place the aircraft below the intended height above terrain. Applying the cold temperature correction raises the minimum altitude to compensate.

Question 38Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'MRA' mean when it appears on an airway chart?

  1. The lowest altitude for obstacle clearance along the airway
  2. The maximum altitude for the airway
  3. The altitude at which ATC begins radar service
  4. The lowest altitude at which a navigation signal is received at a usable strength Correct answer.

Explanation

Minimum reception altitude is the lowest altitude at which the required navigation signal can be received with sufficient strength to identify the facility. It is distinct from the MEA, which also includes obstacle clearance.

Question 39Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is planning an IFR flight and the destination forecast is at the alternate minimums exactly, 2,000 feet ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility. May the pilot file without an alternate?

  1. Yes, provided the pilot has 100 hours of instrument time
  2. No, the forecast must exceed the minimums by a margin
  3. Yes, provided the destination has a published instrument approach and the forecast holds at ETA plus or minus one hour Correct answer.
  4. No, an alternate is always required for IFR flight

Explanation

The regulation permits omitting the alternate when the destination has an instrument approach and the forecast, at the estimated time of arrival plus or minus one hour, is at least 2,000 feet and 3 statute miles. Meeting the values exactly satisfies the rule.

Question 40Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing a chart and sees 'MAA 25,000' on an airway segment. What does this indicate?

  1. The maximum altitude authorized for the airway structure Correct answer.
  2. The altitude at which the airway changes frequency
  3. The minimum altitude for obstacle clearance
  4. The minimum reception altitude for the segment

Explanation

Maximum authorized altitude is the highest altitude at which the airway structure is protected and usable. Above it, navigation signal or traffic separation may not be assured.

Question 41Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot notes the aircraft has a known static leak and the altimeter system is not sealed. What effect does this have on IFR flight?

  1. The aircraft is not airworthy for IFR until the system is repaired and inspected Correct answer.
  2. The flight may proceed if the pilot uses the GPS altitude instead
  3. The flight may proceed if the leak is small and the pilot monitors the altimeter
  4. The flight may proceed if ATC is advised of the leak

Explanation

A static system that leaks cannot provide reliable altitude and airspeed information, and the required inspection cannot be satisfied with a known defect. The aircraft must be repaired and the system inspected before IFR flight.

Question 42Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing a TAF and sees 'FM1200 25015G25KT 5SM -SHRA SCT020 BKN035.' What does FM indicate?

  1. A temporary fluctuation that may occur during the period
  2. A gradual change over the following six hours
  3. A rapid change to the described conditions beginning at that time Correct answer.
  4. A probability of the described conditions

Explanation

FM indicates a rapid, usually within one hour, change to the conditions that follow, beginning at the stated time. It replaces the preceding conditions rather than describing a fluctuation.

Question 43Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is planning a flight and the forecast shows a freezing level at 4,000 feet with a planned cruise at 8,000 feet in visible moisture. What is the primary concern for the flight?

  1. Structural icing is possible and must be planned for Correct answer.
  2. The VOR signal will be unreliable
  3. Turbulence will exceed the aircraft's limits
  4. The altimeter will underread at cruise altitude

Explanation

Flight in visible moisture above the freezing level can produce structural icing, so the pilot must consider anti-ice and deice capability and alternate routing. Temperature decreasing with altitude means the risk persists at cruise.

Question 44Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing an approach chart and sees a 'straight-in minimum' and a 'circling minimum.' What determines which minimum applies?

  1. Whether the aircraft is a twin-engine airplane
  2. Whether the final approach course is aligned within 30 degrees of the runway centerline Correct answer.
  3. Whether the pilot has logged circling approaches recently
  4. Whether the airport has radar service

Explanation

Straight-in minimums apply when the final approach course is aligned within 30 degrees of the runway centerline and the descent can be made with normal maneuvers. Otherwise, circling minimums apply.

Question 45Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot determines the destination airport has a published approach but the alternate airport has no published approach. What minimums must the alternate forecast meet?

  1. A ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility of 3 statute miles
  2. The standard 2,000 feet and 3 statute miles
  3. A ceiling of 800 feet and visibility of 2 statute miles above the standard alternate minimums Correct answer.
  4. A ceiling of 1,500 feet and visibility of 2 statute miles

Explanation

When the alternate has no published instrument approach, the required ceiling and visibility are 800 feet and 2 statute miles higher than the standard alternate minimums for the aircraft category. This accounts for the lack of a guided approach.

Question 46Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'MDA' mean when it appears on a nonprecision approach chart?

  1. The minimum altitude for radar vectoring
  2. The altitude at which a missed approach must be initiated
  3. The altitude at which the approach may be continued without visual reference
  4. The lowest altitude to which descent is authorized until the required visual reference is acquired Correct answer.

Explanation

The minimum descent altitude is the lowest altitude to which a pilot may descend on a nonprecision approach before acquiring the required visual reference. Descent below the MDA is not authorized unless the runway environment is in sight.

Question 47Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is reviewing a chart and sees 'MOCA 3,200' on an airway segment. What does this altitude guarantee?

  1. Navigation signal reception only
  2. Obstacle clearance along the segment, but not necessarily navigation signal reception Correct answer.
  3. Terrain clearance only within 4 nautical miles of the airway centerline
  4. Both obstacle clearance and navigation signal reception along the segment

Explanation

The minimum obstruction clearance altitude provides obstacle clearance along the airway segment, but signal reception is only assured at the MRA. Pilots must consider both values when planning.

Question 48Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

A pilot is planning an IFR flight and the departure airport has a published ODP requiring a climb gradient greater than the aircraft can achieve. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Do not use that ODP and plan an alternative departure method that ensures obstacle clearance Correct answer.
  2. Use the ODP anyway and advise ATC of the inability to comply
  3. Use the ODP only if the weather is visual
  4. Use the ODP and accept the reduced obstacle clearance

Explanation

If the aircraft cannot meet the published gradient, the procedure is not usable as published, and the pilot must plan another method, such as a diverse departure if available, that provides obstacle clearance. ATC cannot waive the terrain requirement.

Question 49Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

What does the term 'RVR' mean when it appears in a weather report or on an approach chart?

  1. The slant range visibility from the cockpit to the touchdown zone
  2. The distance at which runway lights become visible at night
  3. The horizontal distance a pilot can see down the runway from the approach end Correct answer.
  4. The vertical distance to the cloud base at the runway

Explanation

Runway visual range is the horizontal distance a pilot should be able to see down the runway from the approach end, based on transmissometer or comparable measurements. It is reported in feet and used for takeoff and landing minimums.

Question 50Preflight Preparation (Instrument Rating – Airplane ACS areas of operation)

During preflight, a pilot reviews a takeoff alternate requirement for an airport where the weather is below landing minimums. When is a takeoff alternate required?

  1. When the departure airport has no published departure procedure
  2. When the departure airport weather is below the landing minimums for a return approach Correct answer.
  3. When the departure airport has no radar service
  4. When the departure airport is above 5,000 feet elevation

Explanation

A takeoff alternate is required when the weather at the departure airport is below the landing minimums, so the aircraft can return to a suitable airport if an emergency occurs shortly after takeoff. The takeoff alternate must meet the specified weather criteria.