FAA Private Pilot - Glider (PGL) flashcards

32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.

Private pilot glider minimum hours

At least 10 hours of glider flight time including 20 flights, with a minimum of 2 hours of solo flight time in gliders, before the practical test.

Medical certificate for gliders

A third-class medical certificate is required for the first solo unless the pilot holds a current student pilot certificate and complies with 14 CFR 61.23(b); gliders are exempt for most operations under 61.3.

90-day passenger currency

To carry passengers in a glider, the pilot must have made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in the preceding 90 days; the clock resets after each qualifying flight.

Aerobatic flight restrictions

Aerobatic flight is prohibited within lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D, and E airspace designated for airports and below 1,500 feet AGL under FAR 91.319 and 91.309.

Best glide speed

The airspeed that yields the maximum lift-to-drag ratio, maximizing distance in still air; it increases with wing loading and is published in the POH.

Load factor at 45 degrees bank

At 45 degrees of bank, load factor is 1.41 G; at 60 degrees, it is 2.0 G. Stall speed rises by the square root of the load factor.

Water ballast effect

Water ballast increases wing loading and best glide speed; it must be jettisonable and is often prohibited near the aft CG limit.

Density altitude formula

Density altitude equals pressure altitude plus 120 times the difference between outside air temperature and ISA temperature at that altitude; high density altitude degrades launch and climb performance.

Dry adiabatic lapse rate

The dry adiabatic lapse rate is 3 degrees Celsius per 1,000 feet, or 5.4 degrees Fahrenheit per 1,000 feet; thermals form when surface air is warmer than the environment.

Cumulus base estimate

Estimate cumulus cloud base by multiplying the difference between surface temperature and dew point in Fahrenheit by 400 feet; this approximates the convective condensation level.

Mountain wave indicators

Lenticular clouds and a strong wind perpendicular to a ridge signal mountain wave conditions, producing strong up- and downdrafts and rotor turbulence in the lee.

Gust factor on approach

Add half the gust factor to the approach speed to maintain a safe margin above stall when wind shear or gust fronts are present.

Wind correction angle

Wind correction angle equals arcsin of (wind speed times sine of wind angle) divided by true airspeed; apply heading into the wind to track the desired course.

MacCready speed-to-fly

The speed-to-fly ring uses expected thermal strength (MacCready setting) to balance thermalling time against cruise speed, optimizing cross-country speed; 2 knots is typical in moderate conditions.

Dead reckoning formula

Distance equals groundspeed times time; groundspeed equals true airspeed plus or minus the wind component along the course.

Badge flight evidence

Cross-country badge flights such as 50 km or 300 km require a barograph or flight recorder and a declared task or turnpoint evidence for validation.

Aerotow position

The standard aerotow position is slightly below and behind the towplane; the towplane signals a turn with a wing rock, and the glider releases with a slack rope by pulling the release.

Winch launch cable break

If the cable breaks on winch launch, lower the nose immediately and land ahead; turn back only above 200 feet AGL with sufficient altitude and airspeed.

Spin recovery sequence

Power off, ailerons neutral, full opposite rudder, then ease the stick forward to break the stall and recover from the dive.

Airbrake function

Airbrakes and spoilers increase drag and sink rate without significantly changing stall speed; use them to control glidepath on final approach.

Class B airspace entry

Class B airspace requires an explicit ATC clearance; Class C and D require established two-way radio communication before entry.

VFR cloud clearance Class E

In Class E airspace, VFR requires 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

Class G day VFR minimums

Below 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace, day VFR requires 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds; at night, 3 statute miles and standard cloud clearance.

Transponder codes

Squawk 1200 for VFR, 7700 for emergency, 7600 for radio failure, and 7500 for hijacking; gliders are generally exempt from transponder requirements in certain airspace.

IMSAFE checklist

Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion; any yes answer means do not fly.

Hypoxia onset

Hypoxia symptoms include euphoria, impaired judgment, and cyanosis; onset is insidious above 10,000 feet, and supplemental oxygen is required above 12,500 feet for more than 30 minutes.

DECIDE model

Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate; a structured decision-making process for in-flight emergencies.

Carbon monoxide poisoning

Carbon monoxide from cabin heat or engine exhaust causes headache, dizziness, and confusion; shut off the heat and open vents immediately.

Annual condition inspection

A glider must have a current airworthiness certificate, registration, and weight and balance data, and an annual condition inspection every 12 calendar months documented in the airframe logbook.

Tow hook release test

The tow hook release must be tested for proper operation before each aerotow; a weak link of the correct strength, typically 80 percent of glider weight, is required.

Pitot tube obstruction

A blocked pitot tube causes erroneous airspeed indications; check the static system and pitot tube for obstructions before flight.

ELT exemption for gliders

Gliders are generally exempt from ELT requirements under 14 CFR 91.207, but a personal locator beacon is recommended for cross-country flights.