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GA General Contractor practice questions

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Question 1Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

In a stipulated-sum (lump-sum) contract, the contractor agrees to do which of the following?

  1. complete the defined scope of work for a fixed price Correct answer.
  2. charge the owner on a cost-plus-percentage basis
  3. perform work on an hourly basis plus the cost of materials
  4. receive reimbursement of costs plus a negotiated fee

Explanation

A stipulated-sum contract fixes the price for a defined scope of work before construction begins, so the contractor bears the risk of cost overruns within that scope. Cost-reimbursement arrangements such as cost-plus-fee and time-and-materials shift that risk back to the owner.

Question 2Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

A written change order that alters the contract sum or the contract time must normally be authorized by which party?

  1. the subcontractor performing the affected scope of work
  2. any field superintendent working on the affected portion of the work
  3. the building inspector having jurisdiction over the project
  4. the owner or the owner's authorized representative Correct answer.

Explanation

Only the owner, acting directly or through a representative given written authority, can commit the owner's funds and change the contract terms. Field personnel and subcontractors may request changes, but their requests do not modify the contract.

Question 3Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

What is the primary purpose of a request for information (RFI) on a construction project?

  1. to obtain an interpretation or clarification of the contract documents Correct answer.
  2. to record the contractor's daily manpower and equipment
  3. to notify the owner that the project is falling behind schedule
  4. to formally demand additional payment for extra work

Explanation

An RFI is the formal channel for the contractor to ask the design professional to clarify or interpret the drawings, specifications, or other contract documents. The written response becomes part of the project record and may later support a change order if cost or time is affected.

Question 4Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

Which of the following best describes what a contractor's daily report should document?

  1. the architect's design intent for each drawing sheet
  2. site conditions, work performed, and resources used each day Correct answer.
  3. the contractor's invoice to the owner for that day
  4. a substitute for the project schedule

Explanation

The daily report is a contemporaneous record of weather, site conditions, trades on site, equipment, deliveries, inspections, and work accomplished. It becomes critical evidence when delay, extra work, or differing conditions are later disputed.

Question 5Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

What is the principal purpose of withholding retainage from progress payments?

  1. to prepay the contractor's overhead and profit
  2. to pay the design professional's construction administration fees
  3. to fund the building permit and inspection fees
  4. to give the owner funds to draw on if the work is incomplete or defective Correct answer.

Explanation

Retainage holds back a percentage of earned amounts until the work is complete and accepted, giving the owner leverage and a fund to correct deficiencies or satisfy claims. It is released according to the contract terms, typically at substantial completion and final completion.

Question 6Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

Which statement best defines substantial completion?

  1. the date the contractor's last invoice is paid in full
  2. the date all subcontractors have demobilized from the site
  3. the stage when the owner can use the work as intended Correct answer.
  4. the date the certificate of occupancy is framed and displayed

Explanation

Substantial completion occurs when the work is sufficiently complete in accordance with the contract documents that the owner can occupy or use it for its intended purpose. It typically triggers release of retainage, start of warranty periods, and assessment of liquidated damages.

Question 7Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

What is the purpose of a punch list at the end of a project?

  1. the list of minor items to be corrected before final payment Correct answer.
  2. the log of change orders issued after the contract was signed
  3. the roster of subcontractors still working after turnover
  4. the schedule of values used to support the final payment application

Explanation

The punch list identifies minor incomplete or defective items observed at substantial completion that the contractor must correct before final completion and final payment. It is generated during the completion inspection and tracked to closeout.

Question 8Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

Under OSHA construction standards, a competent person is best described as which of the following?

  1. any worker holding a current first-aid certification
  2. the licensed design professional responsible for designing site safety
  3. the owner's representative who signs the pay applications
  4. a person who can identify hazards and is authorized to correct them Correct answer.

Explanation

A competent person is one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings and who has authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them. Many specific standards, such as excavation and scaffolding, require designation of a competent person.

Question 9Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

An activity on the critical path method schedule has 10 days of total float. A 5-day delay occurs on that activity with no other impacts. What is the effect on the project completion date?

  1. No change; the delay is absorbed by the activity's float Correct answer.
  2. The activity becomes critical and the project slips 10 days
  3. The project completion date is extended by 5 days
  4. The project completion date is extended by 15 days

Explanation

Total float is the amount of time an activity can slip without delaying the project completion date. A 5-day delay consumes only half of the available 10 days of float, so the completion date is unaffected, although the remaining float is reduced to 5 days.

Question 10Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

Which statement best describes a valid liquidated damages provision?

  1. the interest charged on unpaid progress payments
  2. an automatic fine levied by the building department
  3. a set sum per day of delay representing estimated owner loss Correct answer.
  4. a bonus paid to the contractor for finishing early

Explanation

Liquidated damages fix in advance the amount the owner will recover for each day of unexcused delay. To be enforceable the amount must be a reasonable forecast of anticipated loss at the time of contracting rather than a penalty.

Question 11Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

What does a performance bond provide to the owner?

  1. guarantees payment to subcontractors and suppliers
  2. covers the architect's errors in the construction documents
  3. insures the contractor against fire loss on the project
  4. assures the owner of the contractor's performance Correct answer.

Explanation

A performance bond is a surety's guarantee that the contractor will complete the contract; if the contractor defaults, the surety must complete the work or pay the owner for the loss. Payment protection for subcontractors and suppliers comes from a separate payment bond.

Question 12Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

The architect returns a shop drawing marked "reviewed." Who remains responsible for the accuracy and contract conformity of the fabricated item?

  1. the architect, because the review constitutes approval
  2. the contractor, whose responsibility is not relieved by the review Correct answer.
  3. the owner, who accepted the submittal
  4. the building official who permitted the work

Explanation

Submittal review is a check for general conformity with the design concept and contract requirements; it does not transfer design or means-and-methods responsibility to the reviewer. The contractor remains responsible for the accuracy, completeness, and conformity of the submitted item.

Question 13Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

What is a schedule of values?

  1. the list of subcontractor bid prices received at bid time
  2. an itemized breakdown of the contract sum for progress payments Correct answer.
  3. the contractor's internal cost estimate never shown to the owner
  4. the schedule showing when each subcontractor will mobilize

Explanation

The schedule of values allocates the entire contract sum among the work items and is used to evaluate progress payment requests. It must be consistent with the schedule and supported by the contractor's cost breakdown, and it is submitted for the architect's review.

Question 14Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

A contract requires written notice of a claim within 7 days of the event. The contractor gives notice after 30 days. What is the most likely result?

  1. The claim is valid because notice clauses are advisory only
  2. The claim becomes a change order automatically by law
  3. The claim may be denied because the notice period was not met Correct answer.
  4. The claim is automatically paid because the delay was excusable

Explanation

Contractual notice provisions are enforceable conditions precedent, allowing the owner to investigate conditions and mitigate impacts promptly. Because the contractor failed to give timely written notice, the owner may reject the claim even if the underlying delay or cost was otherwise compensable.

Question 15Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

When two contract documents conflict, which general principle usually governs the resolution?

  1. the contractor chooses which document to follow
  2. specific provisions govern over general provisions Correct answer.
  3. the lowest bid governs
  4. the drawings always govern over the specifications

Explanation

Order-of-precedence clauses typically resolve conflicts in favor of the more specific requirement, because a targeted provision reflects the parties' more deliberate intent for that item. Other typical rules include having the contractor request clarification before proceeding with the conflicting work.

Question 16Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

Which describes the record (as-built) drawing set?

  1. the design drawings used to obtain the building permit
  2. the architect's original drawings issued for bidding
  3. the marked-up drawings recording actual installed conditions Correct answer.
  4. the shop drawings returned by the fabricator

Explanation

The contractor maintains a field set marked to reflect actual dimensions, routing, and deviations from the contract drawings, including changes and substitutions. At closeout these record documents are delivered to the owner to support future maintenance and renovation.

Question 17Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

A contractor proposes an alternate detail that reduces cost while preserving the required function. This proposal is best described as which of the following?

  1. a clause that lets the owner terminate for convenience
  2. a method of substituting cheaper materials after installation
  3. a contractor proposal that lowers cost without reducing function Correct answer.
  4. an appraisal used to set the property's resale value

Explanation

Value engineering is a structured proposal, usually submitted in writing for the designer's and owner's review and approval, that reduces cost or improves quality while maintaining the required function. Savings are typically shared as the contract provides.

Question 18Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

A prime contractor pays a supplier directly to release a material lien caused by a subcontractor. The cost is then deducted from the subcontractor's next payment. This deduction is called what?

  1. the retainage held on the prime contract
  2. a deduction from a sub's payment for costs that sub caused Correct answer.
  3. a fee paid to the surety for issuing a bond
  4. a bonus paid to a subcontractor who finishes the work ahead of schedule

Explanation

A backcharge shifts to the responsible subcontractor the cost the prime contractor incurred to correct that subcontractor's deficiency, such as paying off a lien or redoing defective work. Contract provisions authorizing backcharges and giving written notice are necessary to support the deduction.

Question 19Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

Which statement best describes a pay-when-paid clause in a subcontract?

  1. a clause making the sub's payment due after the owner pays Correct answer.
  2. a clause requiring the owner to pay subcontractors directly
  3. a guarantee that the owner will pay the contractor
  4. a clause allowing the contractor to keep retainage permanently

Explanation

Pay-when-paid makes the owner's payment to the prime contractor a condition that triggers the subcontractor's right to payment. It is generally read as a timing mechanism giving the contractor a reasonable period, not as a permanent forfeiture of the subcontractor's right to be paid.

Question 20Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

On a project with multiple prime contracts and no construction manager, who has the primary duty to coordinate and sequence the trades performing the work?

  1. the prime contractor, who is responsible for coordinating the work Correct answer.
  2. the architect, who directs the trades in the field
  3. the owner, who holds all subcontracts
  4. each subcontractor independently, without prime oversight

Explanation

The prime contractor is responsible for means, methods, sequencing, and coordination of the work under its contract, including the activities of its subcontractors. The architect administers the contract and observes progress but does not direct or supervise the trades.

Question 21Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

The owner rejects a well-documented request for a time extension caused by an excusable delay and demands the original completion date. The contractor adds crews and overtime to comply. What can the contractor generally recover?

  1. nothing at all, because the contractor made a voluntary decision to work overtime
  2. liquidated damages, because the original completion date was threatened
  3. profit only, because schedule compression is a contractor risk
  4. the acceleration cost, since a justified time extension was denied Correct answer.

Explanation

Refusing an excusable time extension while insisting on the original date constitutes constructive acceleration, and the contractor may recover the reasonable costs of compressing the schedule. The contractor should document the directive and provide written notice that the work is being accelerated under protest.

Question 22Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

Which best describes a cardinal change?

  1. a change refused by the surety under the performance bond
  2. a minor field adjustment that is documented only on a daily report
  3. a change far outside the contract scope, amounting to breach Correct answer.
  4. any change order exceeding ten percent of the contract sum

Explanation

A cardinal change alters the work so drastically that it is outside the scope the contractor originally agreed to perform, exceeding the owner's right to order changes under the changes clause. The contractor may treat it as a breach and seek damages rather than performing under protest.

Question 23Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

What is a conditional waiver of lien?

  1. a waiver effective only when the stated payment is received Correct answer.
  2. a waiver that applies only to retainage
  3. a waiver that is effective forever regardless of payment
  4. a waiver that becomes effective when the waiver is signed and notarized

Explanation

A conditional waiver is contingent on the claimant actually receiving the amount identified in the waiver document. If the payment is not received, the waiver does not take effect and the lien right survives, unlike an unconditional waiver.

Question 24Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

A contractor encounters subsurface conditions that differ materially from those indicated in the contract documents. This situation is best classified as which of the following?

  1. an increase in material prices after bid opening
  2. a shortage of skilled labor in the local market
  3. a delay caused by unusually severe weather that could not have been anticipated
  4. subsurface conditions materially different from those indicated in the documents Correct answer.

Explanation

A differing site condition exists when actual physical conditions differ materially from those shown or indicated in the contract documents, entitling the contractor to notice, an adjustment, and typically an equitable price and time adjustment. Prompt written notice before the condition is disturbed is normally required.

Question 25Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

The owner terminates the contractor for convenience. The contractor's recovery is generally limited to which of the following?

  1. nothing at all, because termination ends all of the contractor's rights
  2. payment for work done and closeout costs, excluding unearned profit Correct answer.
  3. only the retainage already withheld on completed work
  4. the entire unpaid contract balance, including profit on all remaining unperformed work

Explanation

Termination for convenience compensates the contractor for work performed and accepted, plus reasonable costs of demobilization, closeout, and any allowed overhead and profit on work done. Anticipated profit on work never performed is generally not recoverable unless the contract provides otherwise.

Question 26Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

What is the primary purpose of a Request for Information (RFI) in construction administration?

  1. To document the contractor's proposed substitution of a specified product
  2. To certify that installed work conforms with the approved submittals
  3. To resolve an ambiguity or confirm the interpretation of the contract documents Correct answer.
  4. To authorize a change in the contract price or contract time

Explanation

An RFI is the formal written channel through which the contractor asks the design team to clarify, interpret, or confirm information in the contract documents so that work can proceed correctly. It documents the question and the answer for the project record. Changes in price or time, substitutions, and conformance certifications are handled by other instruments with their own approval requirements.

Question 27Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

A monthly pay application includes $85,000 of electrical switchgear stored in an off-site warehouse and not yet delivered to the project, and the contract documents are silent about off-site storage. Which action by the architect is most appropriate?

  1. Certify nothing at all, since no materials may be billed until they are physically installed in place
  2. Withhold that item until the owner's interest is protected by a bill of sale and insurance Correct answer.
  3. Certify the full amount, since the equipment has already been purchased and invoiced to the contractor
  4. Reject the entire application and require the contractor to resubmit the following month

Explanation

Payment for stored materials is a matter of protecting the owner's investment; where the contract is silent, the architect should not certify value for material the owner does not yet control. The item can be included once the owner's title and risk are secured through documentation such as a bill of sale, evidence of insurance, and appropriate storage safeguards. Withholding only that item, rather than the whole application, is the proportionate response.

Question 28Project Management, Supervision, and Contract Administration

A contract permits the owner to occupy a completed wing of a building before the project as a whole is substantially complete. When does the contractor's one-year correction period for that wing generally begin?

  1. When the building department issues the certificate of occupancy
  2. When the entire project reaches substantial completion
  3. When final payment is made
  4. When the owner occupies that portion Correct answer.

Explanation

Occupying a portion of the work generally constitutes acceptance of that portion as substantially complete, so the correction period for that portion starts then rather than at project-wide completion. The owner gains the benefit of the space earlier, and the contractor's warranty exposure for it begins correspondingly earlier. Model contract language ties these consequences to the date of occupancy of the portion.

Question 29Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

A laboratory test is performed on a representative sample of proposed engineered fill to establish its maximum dry density and optimum moisture content. Which test provides these values?

  1. Atterberg limits test
  2. Sieve analysis with hydrometer
  3. Standard Proctor test Correct answer.
  4. California Bearing Ratio test

Explanation

The Standard Proctor test (ASTM D698) compacts soil in a mold at several moisture contents to develop a moisture-density curve, and the peak of that curve gives maximum dry density and optimum moisture content. Those values become the laboratory reference against which field density tests are compared. Gradation, plasticity, and bearing strength are separate properties measured by other tests.

Question 30Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

Under OSHA excavation standards, a protective system is required for a trench excavation in Type C soil at what minimum depth, unless a competent person determines there is no hazard?

  1. 4 feet
  2. 6 feet
  3. 8 feet
  4. 5 feet Correct answer.

Explanation

29 CFR 1926.651 requires a protective system for any excavation 5 feet or deeper when a competent person has not determined the ground is stable, and for shallower excavations where indications of instability exist. The 4-foot depth triggers a different requirement: a means of egress such as a ladder within 25 feet of lateral travel.

Question 31Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

A gravity sewer line is to be installed at a uniform 1 percent slope. What total fall results over a 200-foot run of pipe?

  1. 4.0 feet
  2. 2.0 feet Correct answer.
  3. 1.5 feet
  4. 1.0 foot

Explanation

A 1 percent grade drops 1 foot per 100 feet of horizontal run. Over 200 feet the fall is therefore 1 foot per 100 feet times 2, or 2.0 feet.

Question 32Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

Of the common soil types encountered in sitework, which one typically exhibits the lowest coefficient of permeability?

  1. Clay Correct answer.
  2. Silt
  3. Gravel
  4. Sand

Explanation

Permeability is governed mainly by pore size, and clay particles are so small that the interconnected voids between them are minute. Clay therefore transmits water extremely slowly, whereas gravel and sand have large connected pores and drain readily.

Question 33Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

What is the primary function of a French drain consisting of perforated pipe in a gravel-filled trench?

  1. To vent sewer gases above grade
  2. To distribute potable water around the site
  3. To intercept and remove subsurface water Correct answer.
  4. To store stormwater for later reuse

Explanation

A French drain collects groundwater moving through the surrounding soil, filters it through gravel and geotextile, and carries it away in the perforated pipe. Its purpose is to lower the water table or relieve hydrostatic pressure behind walls and under pavements, not to store or supply water.

Question 34Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

A sand cone field density test on compacted fill reports a dry unit weight of 118 pounds per cubic foot. The laboratory maximum dry density for the same soil is 125 pounds per cubic foot. What relative compaction does this represent?

  1. 90 percent
  2. 94 percent Correct answer.
  3. 106 percent
  4. 97 percent

Explanation

Relative compaction is the field dry unit weight divided by the laboratory maximum dry density: 118 divided by 125 equals 0.944, or about 94 percent. This value is then compared with the specification, commonly 90 to 95 percent depending on the fill location.

Question 35Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

For an excavation less than 20 feet deep in Type B soil, OSHA's maximum allowable slope is:

  1. 3/4:1 (H:V)
  2. 1:1 (H:V) Correct answer.
  3. 1-1/2:1 (H:V)
  4. 2:1 (H:V)

Explanation

Appendix B to 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P assigns maximum slopes by soil type: 3/4:1 for Type A, 1:1 for Type B, and 1-1/2:1 for Type C. A 1:1 slope for Type B soil means one foot of horizontal distance for each foot of vertical cut.

Question 36Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

A construction project will disturb 2.5 acres of land. Under EPA's Construction General Permit, what stormwater authorization is required?

  1. NPDES stormwater permit coverage with a SWPPP Correct answer.
  2. A Section 404 dredge-and-fill permit
  3. A state air-quality permit for diesel equipment
  4. A local building permit for the grading work

Explanation

Disturbing one acre or more of land requires coverage under the NPDES Construction General Permit, which obliges the operator to prepare and implement a Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan and file a notice of intent. The SWPPP documents erosion and sediment controls, stabilized construction entrances, and inspection procedures.

Question 37Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

A newly installed segment of gravity sanitary sewer between two manholes is ready for acceptance testing. Which test is standard practice for verifying the installed line?

  1. Hydrostatic pressure test at 150 psi for two hours
  2. Low-pressure air test or water exfiltration test Correct answer.
  3. CCTV inspection of the line from end to end
  4. Bacteriological sampling at the downstream manhole

Explanation

Gravity sewer acceptance testing normally uses a low-pressure air test or an exfiltration/infiltration test to confirm the pipe and joints are tight, since the line flows by gravity and cannot be pressure-tested like a force main. Deflection testing and televised inspection are complementary quality checks but do not by themselves demonstrate watertightness.

Question 38Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

Where should a silt fence be installed as a perimeter sediment control?

  1. At the top of the slope above the disturbed area
  2. Along the contour at the downslope edge of the disturbed area, with fabric trenched in Correct answer.
  3. Parallel to the direction of sheet flow
  4. In the bottom of a concentrated drainage channel

Explanation

A silt fence works as a permeability barrier to sheet flow, so it is placed on the contour along the downslope perimeter of the disturbed area with the fabric buried in a compacted trench. This allows sediment to pond and settle while clean water filters through. Concentrated flows must be handled by other devices because they quickly bypass or breach the fabric.

Question 39Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

A 15-foot-deep excavation in clean sand must be dug below the water table while keeping the base dry and stable. Which approach best accomplishes this?

  1. Chemical dust suppression applied by water trucks
  2. Wellpoints or deep wells to lower the water table Correct answer.
  3. Surface swales that divert offsite runoff around the dig
  4. Sump pumping from collection pits at the excavated subgrade

Explanation

Wellpoints or deep wells installed around the perimeter draw the groundwater table down before and during excavation, keeping the base dry and reducing the risk of boiling or base heave in sandy soil. Sump pumping alone removes water only after it has entered the excavation and does not stabilize the base.

Question 40Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

For a flexible PVC sewer pipe in a trench, what material and placement are required in the haunch zone of the initial backfill?

  1. Excavated clay clods compacted in 12-inch lifts
  2. Native soil screened to 6 inches, dumped directly on the crown
  3. Crushed rock up to 12 inches placed for drainage
  4. Clean granular material compacted in the pipe haunch zone Correct answer.

Explanation

Flexible pipe derives part of its support from the soil wedged under the pipe haunches, so the haunch zone must be filled with clean, stone-free granular material and compacted in thin lifts. This prevents the pipe from deflecting excessively under load. Dropping material on the crown or using large rock or clay clods leaves voids and point loads.

Question 41Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

A specification requires 95 percent relative compaction per ASTM D1557 (Modified Proctor) rather than per ASTM D698 (Standard Proctor). For the same soil, the D1557 requirement means the contractor must:

  1. Place the fill at a higher moisture content regardless of density
  2. Achieve a higher dry unit weight for the same soil Correct answer.
  3. Achieve a lower dry unit weight for the same soil
  4. Compact only the upper 95 percent of each lift

Explanation

The Modified Proctor test uses greater compactive effort, a heavier hammer dropped from a greater height in more layers, which produces a higher maximum dry density and a lower optimum moisture content than the Standard Proctor test. Specifying a percentage of the D1557 maximum therefore demands a denser fill than the same percentage of D698.

Question 42Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

A contractor excavates 5,000 cubic yards of bank soil that has a 30 percent swell and a 15 percent shrinkage factor. How many cubic yards of compacted fill will this material produce?

  1. 4,348 cubic yards
  2. 5,000 cubic yards
  3. 6,500 cubic yards
  4. 4,250 cubic yards Correct answer.

Explanation

Shrinkage describes the reduction from bank volume to compacted volume, so the compacted fill equals 5,000 cubic yards times 0.85, or 4,250 cubic yards. Swell describes the increase in volume when the soil is loosened for hauling and does not change the compacted volume placed in the fill.

Question 43Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

Using the Rational method Q = CiA, what is the peak runoff from a 3-acre drainage area with a runoff coefficient of 0.85 and a design rainfall intensity of 4 inches per hour?

  1. 12.0 cubic feet per second
  2. 3.4 cubic feet per second
  3. 8.5 cubic feet per second
  4. 10.2 cubic feet per second Correct answer.

Explanation

With the Rational method, Q equals C times i times A, using acres and inches per hour to yield cubic feet per second. Substituting gives 0.85 times 4 times 3, which equals 10.2 cubic feet per second.

Question 44Sitework, Earthwork, and Site Utilities

A nuclear density gauge reports a wet density of 130 pounds per cubic foot and a moisture content of 12 percent. What is the dry density of the compacted soil?

  1. 145.6 pounds per cubic foot
  2. 114.4 pounds per cubic foot
  3. 116.1 pounds per cubic foot Correct answer.
  4. 118.0 pounds per cubic foot

Explanation

Dry density equals wet density divided by one plus the moisture content expressed as a decimal: 130 divided by 1.12 equals about 116.1 pounds per cubic foot. Compaction is always evaluated on a dry-density basis so results are comparable to the laboratory moisture-density curve.

Question 45Concrete and Reinforcing

The slump test performed on fresh concrete is used primarily to evaluate which property?

  1. Consistency Correct answer.
  2. Compressive strength
  3. Entrained air content
  4. Chloride permeability

Explanation

The slump cone measures the vertical drop of a molded sample of fresh concrete, which indicates consistency and workability of the mixture. It does not measure strength, air content, or permeability, all of which require separate tests on hardened or freshly mixed concrete.

Question 46Concrete and Reinforcing

A No. 5 deformed reinforcing bar has a nominal diameter of:

  1. 1/2 in.
  2. 5/8 in. Correct answer.
  3. 3/4 in.
  4. 1 in.

Explanation

Bar numbers represent eighths of an inch of nominal diameter, so a No. 5 bar is 5/8 in. in diameter. The same numbering rule gives No. 4 as 1/2 in. and No. 8 as 1 in.

Question 47Concrete and Reinforcing

What is the primary purpose of curing newly placed concrete?

  1. Maintain moisture and temperature Correct answer.
  2. Allow earlier removal of the vertical formwork
  3. Prevent corrosion of embedded reinforcing steel
  4. Increase the slump of the delivered mixture

Explanation

Curing keeps the concrete moist and within a favorable temperature range so cement hydration can continue and the mixture can develop its intended strength and durability. Form removal and corrosion protection are separate concerns that curing does not control.

Question 48Concrete and Reinforcing

The standard concrete cylinder used for compressive strength acceptance testing in the United States is:

  1. 4 by 8 in.
  2. 6 by 6 in.
  3. 6 by 12 in. Correct answer.
  4. 3 by 6 in.

Explanation

Standard acceptance specimens are 6 in. in diameter and 12 in. high, giving the 2:1 length-to-diameter ratio required for an unbonded capped cylinder. Smaller 4 by 8 in. cylinders are permitted only under limited conditions and require correlation.

Question 49Concrete and Reinforcing

Air entrainment in concrete is used primarily to improve:

  1. Freeze-thaw durability Correct answer.
  2. Reduction of plastic shrinkage
  3. Early-age strength gain
  4. Resistance to sulfate attack

Explanation

Entrained microscopic air bubbles provide relief space for water as it expands on freezing, which greatly improves resistance to freeze-thaw damage. Air entrainment slightly reduces strength, so it is not used to gain early strength or control shrinkage.

Question 50Concrete and Reinforcing

For concrete cast against and permanently exposed to earth, the minimum specified cover over reinforcing steel is:

  1. 2 in.
  2. 3 in. Correct answer.
  3. 1 1/2 in.
  4. 2 1/2 in.

Explanation

Concrete placed directly against earth is subject to moisture and contaminant intrusion, so codes require a full 3 in. of cover for earth-cast surfaces. Lesser covers apply to formed surfaces that are not exposed to weather or in contact with ground.