MDCG Dental Exam study materials
MDCG Dental Exam study resources

MDCG Dental Exam cheat sheet

MDCG Dental Exam · Keep the key ideas within reach.

Quick reference

Anatomy and Physiology (Head and Neck)

  • Trigeminal nerve (CN V) has three divisions: V1 ophthalmic (superior orbital fissure), V2 maxillary (foramen rotundum), V3 mandibular (foramen ovale); V3 is the only division carrying motor fibers to muscles of mastication.

  • Facial nerve (CN VII) exits the skull via the stylomastoid foramen; branches within the parotid gland are temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical (TZBMC).

  • The mandibular foramen lies on the medial surface of the ramus, its position roughly at the level of the occlusal plane in adults; inferior alveolar nerve block targets just above and behind the lingula.

  • Lingual nerve lies anterior and medial to the inferior alveolar nerve in the pterygomandibular space; it carries chorda tympani fibers for taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

  • The maxillary artery's third part gives the middle meningeal, inferior alveolar, and buccal arteries; the inferior alveolar artery enters the mandibular foramen with the nerve.

  • Muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid) are all supplied by V3; the lateral pterygoid opens and protrudes the mandible, while the other three elevate it.

  • The pterygoid venous plexus communicates with the cavernous sinus through emissary veins; this is the anatomical basis for spread of dental infection to intracranial sites.

  • The temporomandibular joint is a bilateral synovial joint with a fibrocartilaginous disc; the lower compartment performs rotation and the upper compartment performs translation during opening.

  • The carotid triangle is bounded by the posterior belly of digastric, superior belly of omohyoid, and anterior border of sternocleidomastoid; it contains the carotid bifurcation and internal jugular vein.

Quick reference

Oral Anatomy, Histology, and Embryology

  • Enamel is 96% mineral by weight, formed by ameloblasts, and is acellular and incapable of regeneration; its structural units are rods (prisms) and interrod enamel.

  • Dentin is about 70% mineral, 20% organic (mostly type I collagen), and 10% water; it is formed by odontoblasts that retreat pulpally, leaving dentinal tubules.

  • Cementum is avascular and about 45-50% mineral; acellular extrinsic fiber cementum covers the cervical third and provides attachment of principal fibers.

  • The dental lamina appears at about 6 weeks in utero; the bud stage occurs around 8 weeks, cap stage at 9-10 weeks, and bell stage at 11-12 weeks.

  • The reduced enamel epithelium and oral epithelium fuse to form the dentogingival junction; the junctional epithelium attaches via hemidesmosomes and internal basal lamina.

  • Permanent tooth eruption times: first molar 6 years, central incisor 7, lateral incisor 8, first premolar 10, second premolar 11, canine 11-12, second molar 12.

  • Primary teeth erupt from about 6 months (mandibular central incisor) to 24-30 months (second molars); the primary dentition comprises 20 teeth.

  • The pulp contains odontoblasts, fibroblasts, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells, and the subodontoblastic cell-free and cell-rich zones (Weil and Höhl layers).

  • Salivary glands: parotid is serous, submandibular is mixed predominantly serous, sublingual is mixed predominantly mucous; minor glands are mostly mucous except von Ebner glands.

Quick reference

Oral Pathology and Oral Medicine

  • Leukoplakia is a clinical diagnosis of a white patch that cannot be characterized as any other disease; dysplasia is confirmed only histologically, and the risk of malignant transformation increases with dysplasia grade.

  • Erythroplakia has a much higher malignant transformation rate than leukoplakia and should be biopsied promptly.

  • Squamous cell carcinoma of the lip most commonly affects the lower lip at the vermilion border; the tongue lateral border is the most common intraoral site.

  • Ameloblastoma is a locally aggressive odontogenic tumor of the posterior mandible, often multilocular 'soap bubble' radiolucency; treatment is resection with margins.

  • Odontoma is the most common odontogenic tumor; compound type shows tooth-like structures, complex type shows disordered dental hard tissue.

  • Dentigerous cyst encloses the crown of an unerupted tooth and attaches at the CEJ; it is the most common developmental odontogenic cyst.

  • Radicular cyst is inflammatory, arises from epithelial rests of Malassez at the apex of a non-vital tooth, and is the most common odontogenic cyst overall.

  • Recurrent aphthous stomatitis presents as painful, recurrent, round ulcers with a yellow fibrinous base and erythematous halo; minor aphthae heal in 7-14 days without scarring.

  • Oral lichen planus shows Wickham striae, a band-like lymphocytic infiltrate, and basal cell liquefaction degeneration; it carries a small malignant transformation risk and is managed as a chronic condition.

  • Periapical radiograph findings: widened PDL, loss of lamina dura, and periapical radiolucency indicate apical periodontitis; a sinus tract indicates a chronic apical abscess.

Quick reference

Microbiology, Immunology, and Infection Control

  • Streptococcus mutans is the principal cariogenic organism; it produces glucosyltransferases that synthesize insoluble glucans and adheres to the pellicle.

  • Lactobacillus species are associated with progression of existing carious lesions rather than initiation.

  • Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia, and Treponema denticola form the 'red complex' associated with periodontitis.

  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is associated with aggressive (stage III/IV grade C) periodontitis and produces leukotoxin.

  • Dental unit waterlines must meet ≤500 CFU/mL heterotrophic bacteria; flushing and independent water reservoirs or filters are used to control biofilm.

  • Sterilization by autoclave is validated with biological indicators (Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores) and chemical indicators for each load.

  • Spore-forming organisms such as Bacillus and Clostridium are the reference challenge for sterilization; prions are not reliably inactivated by standard autoclave cycles.

  • Standard precautions apply to all patients regardless of diagnosis; gloves, masks, eye protection, and hand hygiene are minimum requirements.

  • Hepatitis B is the most transmissible bloodborne pathogen percutaneous exposure (risk up to 30% from a needlestick with HBeAg-positive blood); hepatitis C is about 3% and HIV about 0.3%.

  • Immunoglobulins: IgA is the predominant secretory antibody in saliva, IgG dominates in gingival crevicular fluid during inflammation, and IgE mediates type I hypersensitivity.

Quick reference

Pharmacology and Therapeutics

  • Lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 epinephrine: maximum recommended dose is 7 mg/kg (4.4 mg/kg for a 70 kg adult ≈ 300 mg; about 8 cartridges of 1.8 mL).

  • Articaine 4% with 1:100,000 epinephrine: maximum dose 7 mg/kg; 1.8 mL cartridge contains 72 mg articaine.

  • Mepivacaine 3% plain maximum dose is 6.6 mg/kg; bupivacaine 0.5% with 1:200,000 epinephrine provides the longest duration (up to 8-12 hours pulpal).

  • Epinephrine limit in a healthy patient is about 0.2 mg per appointment; a 1:100,000 cartridge of 1.8 mL contains 0.018 mg epinephrine.

  • Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic for odontogenic infection; dose 500 mg every 8 hours or 875 mg every 12 hours; penicillin allergy alternatives are clindamycin, azithromycin, or cephalexin (with caution).

  • Antibiotics are adjuncts to drainage and source control; they are not indicated for localized, self-limiting infections without systemic involvement.

  • NSAIDs such as ibuprofen inhibit COX-1 and COX-2; aspirin irreversibly acetylates platelet COX-1, and bleeding risk persists 7-10 days after stopping.

  • Paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose causes hepatic necrosis through the NAPQI metabolite; N-acetylcysteine is the antidote.

  • Chlorhexidine 0.12-0.2% is a cationic bisbiguanide; it binds to oral tissues with substantivity of about 12 hours and can cause staining and taste alteration.

  • Fluoride varnish (5% NaF, 22,600 ppm) is applied to caries-active surfaces; systemic fluoride supplements are indicated only when water fluoride is deficient.

Quick reference

Restorative Dentistry and Endodontics

  • Root canal working length is typically 0.5-1.0 mm short of the radiographic apex; the apical constriction is the reference point for obturation.

  • The apical foramen is usually located 0.5-1.0 mm from the anatomic apex and often deviates from the long axis of the root.

  • Sodium hypochlorite (0.5-5.25%) dissolves organic tissue and is antimicrobial; EDTA (17%) removes the smear layer and chelates calcium.

  • Irrigant extrusion beyond the apex risks tissue necrosis and nerve injury; the needle should be loose-fitting and not wedged in the canal.

  • C-shaped canals are most common in mandibular second molars; the mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar frequently has two canals (MB1 and MB2).

  • Rubber dam isolation is the standard for endodontic treatment and is required for adhesive dentistry to control moisture.

  • Cementoenamel junction is the key landmark for restoration margins and endodontic access; enamel is thicker at cusps and thinnest at the cervical margin.

  • Composite resin bonding to enamel relies on acid etching (37% phosphoric acid) creating microporosity; dentin bonding uses etch-and-rinse or self-etch systems.

  • Posterior teeth with large MOD restorations are at risk of cusp fracture; cuspal coverage (onlay or crown) is indicated when remaining walls are thin.

Quick reference

Periodontology

  • Gingivitis is reversible inflammation confined to the gingiva; periodontitis involves attachment loss and alveolar bone loss.

  • Probing depth is measured from the gingival margin to the base of the sulcus; clinical attachment level is measured from the CEJ to the base of the sulcus.

  • Bleeding on probing has high sensitivity but low specificity for disease progression; absence of bleeding on probing has high negative predictive value for stability.

  • Periodontal staging (2018 classification): Stage I/II early/moderate, Stage III/IV advanced with tooth loss and complexity factors; grading (A, B, C) reflects rate of progression.

  • Non-surgical periodontal therapy (scaling and root planing) is the first-line treatment; re-evaluation occurs at 6-8 weeks before surgical decisions.

  • Furcation involvement is classified Glickman I-IV; grade IV indicates through-and-through involvement with gingival recession.

  • Aggressive periodontitis (now stage III/IV grade C) often presents with molar-incisor pattern in young patients and familial aggregation.

  • Risk factors for periodontitis include smoking, poorly controlled diabetes (HbA1c >7%), and genetic predisposition; smoking reduces bleeding and masks inflammation.

  • Peri-implant mucositis is reversible inflammation of soft tissue around an implant; peri-implantitis involves bone loss and is not fully reversible.

Quick reference

Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery and Anesthesia

  • Inferior alveolar nerve block landmarks: coronoid notch, pterygomandibular raphe, and occlusal plane; target is 6-10 mm above the occlusal plane, 1 mm above the lingula.

  • Positive aspiration rates are highest with the inferior alveolar nerve block (10-15%); aspirate in two planes before injecting.

  • Extraction of a mandibular third molar risks injury to the inferior alveolar nerve and lingual nerve; cone-beam CT is indicated when roots are close to the canal.

  • Dry socket (alveolar osteitis) presents 2-4 days post-extraction with severe pain and an empty socket; management is irrigation and a medicated dressing.

  • Ludwig's angina is a bilateral submandibular, submental, and sublingual cellulitis; it is a surgical emergency requiring airway assessment and incision and drainage.

  • Maxillary sinus communication after extraction is managed by avoiding nose-blowing and may require primary closure; a large defect needs a flap.

  • Local anesthetic maximum doses: lidocaine 7 mg/kg with epinephrine, 4.4 mg/kg plain; bupivacaine 1.3 mg/kg with epinephrine.

  • Syncope is the most common medical emergency in dental practice; management is supine position with legs elevated and airway monitoring.

  • Malignant hyperthermia is triggered by succinylcholine and volatile anesthetics; dantrolene is the specific treatment.

Quick reference

Orthodontics and Pediatric Dentistry

  • Class I molar relationship: mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar occludes in the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.

  • Class II molar relationship: mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar occludes mesial to the buccal groove; Class III occludes distal to the groove.

  • Angle's classification is based on the first permanent molars; canine relationship and incisor relationship are also recorded.

  • Cephalometric landmarks: Sella, Nasion, A-point, B-point; ANB angle indicates skeletal Class II (ANB >4°) or Class III (ANB <0°).

  • The leeway space is the difference in mesiodistal width between primary canines and molars and their permanent successors; it is about 1.5 mm per side in the mandible.

  • Eruption of the first permanent molar at age 6 is the key event for occlusal development; space maintenance is indicated when primary teeth are lost early.

  • Fluoride toothpaste concentration: 1,000-1,500 ppm for children, 2,800-5,000 ppm for high caries risk; a smear or pea-sized amount is used for young children.

  • Pulpotomy is indicated for a vital pulp with coronal inflammation; pulpectomy is indicated when radicular pulp is involved.

  • Hand-over-mouth and papoose board are restrictive techniques requiring informed consent and documentation; tell-show-do is the first-line behavior guidance method.

Quick reference

Prosthodontics

  • Complete denture retention depends on adhesion, cohesion, surface tension, and atmospheric pressure; the post dam improves the posterior seal.

  • The neutral zone is the space where forces from the tongue, lips, and cheeks are balanced; teeth are positioned there in complete dentures.

  • Balanced occlusion in complete dentures requires bilateral simultaneous contacts in centric and eccentric positions to prevent tipping.

  • The curve of Spee and curve of Wilson are incorporated in denture tooth arrangement; the compensating curve helps maintain balanced occlusion.

  • Fixed partial denture abutment selection requires an anticlastic curve; a minimum of two abutments is needed, and the span should not exceed two pontics in most cases.

  • Ferrule effect: at least 1.5-2 mm of circumferential dentin above the crown margin improves resistance to fracture of endodontically treated teeth.

  • Implant success criteria include less than 0.2 mm annual bone loss after the first year, no mobility, and no peri-implant radiolucency.

  • Occlusal vertical dimension is assessed by freeway space (2-4 mm) and facial proportions; loss of vertical dimension can cause angular cheilitis.

  • Abutment preparation taper should be 6-10 degrees for optimal retention and resistance form.

Quick reference

Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging

  • Bitewing radiographs show crowns and alveolar crests; they are indicated for caries detection and crestal bone assessment.

  • Periapical radiographs show the entire tooth and periapical tissues; the paralleling technique reduces distortion compared with bisecting-angle technique.

  • Panoramic radiograph is a tomographic image with about 20-30% magnification; it is a screening tool, not a substitute for intraoral images.

  • Cone-beam CT provides three-dimensional imaging with lower dose than medical CT; it is indicated for implant planning, impacted teeth, and complex endodontics.

  • The ALARA principle (as low as reasonably achievable) governs dose optimization; collimation, filtration, and digital sensors reduce patient dose.

  • Radiolucent structures: enamel is the most radiopaque dental tissue, followed by dentin, cementum, and pulp (least radiopaque).

  • A radiolucency at the apex with loss of lamina dura suggests periapical pathology; a well-defined corticated radiolucency suggests a cyst.

  • Caries appears as a radiolucent area; occlusal caries is often underestimated on radiographs and requires clinical examination.

  • Anatomic landmarks on panoramic radiographs: mandibular canal, mental foramen, maxillary sinus, and nasal fossa; the ghost image of the opposite side appears above the contralateral ramus.

Quick reference

Professional Ethics, Jurisprudence, and Practice Management

  • Informed consent requires disclosure of diagnosis, proposed treatment, alternatives, risks, and consequences; it must be documented and obtained before treatment.

  • The four principles of biomedical ethics are autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice.

  • Confidentiality is a legal and ethical duty; disclosure is permitted with patient consent, legal requirement, or public health exception.

  • Mandatory reporting obligations vary by jurisdiction; suspected child abuse or neglect is reportable in most jurisdictions.

  • Negligence requires four elements: duty of care, breach of duty, causation, and damages.

  • Record retention requirements vary by jurisdiction; a common minimum is 7 years after last treatment, and longer for minors (until age of majority plus a period).

  • Scope of practice is defined by licensure; delegating procedures to unlicensed personnel is prohibited.

  • Fee splitting and kickbacks are generally prohibited; advertising must be truthful and not misleading.

  • Risk management includes thorough documentation, informed consent, and clear communication; adverse events should be disclosed to the patient.