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CPIT InfoSec study materials
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CPIT InfoSec practice questions

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Question 1Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

Which document, approved by senior management, establishes the organization's overall intentions and direction for protecting information?

  1. The information security policy Correct answer.
  2. The change management procedure
  3. The asset register
  4. The business continuity plan

Explanation

An information security policy is the top-level management statement of intent and direction, and it authorizes the supporting standards, procedures, and controls beneath it. Lower-level documents derive their authority from this policy rather than creating it.

Question 2Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

In a typical information security governance structure, who holds ultimate accountability for the organization's information risk?

  1. The help desk supervisor
  2. The board of directors or equivalent governing body Correct answer.
  3. The external penetration testing vendor
  4. The IT operations manager

Explanation

Governance places ultimate accountability at the top: the board or equivalent governing body is answerable for risk appetite and oversight. Operational roles execute and advise but do not hold ultimate accountability.

Question 3Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A risk assessment team rates a threat as likely and an asset as highly valuable, then multiplies these factors to produce a score. Which risk analysis approach does this describe?

  1. Qualitative analysis
  2. Quantitative analysis Correct answer.
  3. Baseline comparison
  4. Gap analysis

Explanation

Quantitative analysis assigns numeric values to probability and impact and combines them arithmetically to produce a measurable risk figure, often in monetary terms. Qualitative analysis instead uses descriptive scales such as high, medium, and low.

Question 4Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

Which term describes the level of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives?

  1. Residual risk
  2. Risk appetite Correct answer.
  3. Inherent risk
  4. Risk register

Explanation

Risk appetite expresses the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to pursue or retain. It guides treatment decisions and is set by senior management.

Question 5Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

An organization must comply with a regulation requiring customer data to be encrypted at rest. Which category of control does encryption at rest represent?

  1. Corrective
  2. Compensating
  3. Detective
  4. Preventive Correct answer.

Explanation

Encryption at rest prevents unauthorized parties from reading stored data, so it is classified as a preventive control. Detective controls reveal events after they occur, and corrective controls restore conditions afterward.

Question 6Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

What is the primary purpose of segregating duties in an information security process?

  1. To reduce the cost of licensing security tools
  2. To speed up approval of change requests
  3. To eliminate the need for audit logging
  4. To prevent one person from both committing and concealing an error or fraud Correct answer.

Explanation

Segregation of duties splits sensitive tasks so that no single individual controls an entire process end to end, which reduces the chance of undetected error or fraud. It complements, rather than replaces, logging and monitoring.

Question 7Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

Which statement best distinguishes an information security standard from a procedure?

  1. A standard specifies mandatory requirements, while a procedure gives step-by-step instructions to meet them Correct answer.
  2. A standard is optional guidance, while a procedure is mandatory
  3. A standard is written by auditors, while a procedure is written by users
  4. A standard applies only to IT staff, while a procedure applies to everyone

Explanation

Standards set mandatory, measurable requirements that support the policy, whereas procedures describe the specific steps and sequence used to carry out those requirements. Both sit beneath the policy in the document hierarchy.

Question 8Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

An auditor asks for evidence that security awareness training occurred during the year. Which artifact best satisfies this request?

  1. A completed attendance and completion report for the training sessions Correct answer.
  2. The training policy signed by the CEO
  3. The vendor proposal for a new learning platform
  4. A memo stating that training is important

Explanation

Audit evidence must demonstrate that the control actually operated, so completion records showing who attended and when are the appropriate proof. Policy documents and proposals show intent or planning, not execution.

Question 9Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A company identifies a risk, decides to purchase cyber insurance, and transfers the financial consequence to the insurer. Which risk treatment option has been applied?

  1. Risk mitigation
  2. Risk acceptance
  3. Risk avoidance
  4. Risk transfer Correct answer.

Explanation

Risk transfer shifts the financial impact of a risk to a third party, commonly through insurance or contractual arrangements. The underlying risk still exists, but its financial consequence is shared or moved.

Question 10Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

After implementing a new access control, the risk team recalculates the risk level and finds it has dropped from high to medium but is still above appetite. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. Apply additional controls or escalate the residual risk to management for a decision Correct answer.
  2. Reclassify the risk as a compliance issue and stop tracking it
  3. Remove the risk from the register because it has been reduced
  4. Close the risk and record it as fully treated

Explanation

Residual risk above the stated appetite requires further treatment or a documented management decision to accept it. Closing or deleting the risk would misrepresent the remaining exposure.

Question 11Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

Which metric is the most meaningful indicator of whether a vulnerability management program is effective?

  1. The total count of open vulnerabilities of all severities
  2. The percentage of critical vulnerabilities remediated within the defined service level Correct answer.
  3. The number of vulnerabilities scanned per quarter
  4. The number of scanning tools deployed

Explanation

An effective metric ties remediation to a defined timeframe for the highest-risk findings, showing whether the program actually reduces exposure. Raw counts and tool inventories measure activity, not outcomes.

Question 12Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A regulator issues a requirement that all financial records be retained for seven years. Which type of control is this requirement?

  1. A directive control Correct answer.
  2. A preventive control
  3. A corrective control
  4. A detective control

Explanation

Directive controls establish rules and expected behavior, telling people what must be done, such as retention requirements. Preventive, detective, and corrective controls describe how safeguards act on events rather than setting the rule itself.

Question 13Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

An organization adopts a control framework and then measures its current practices against each control to identify shortfalls. What activity is this?

  1. Business impact analysis
  2. Threat modeling
  3. Risk appetite setting
  4. Gap analysis Correct answer.

Explanation

A gap analysis compares the current state of controls with a target framework or requirement and documents the differences. The resulting gaps feed remediation planning and risk treatment.

Question 14Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

Who is typically assigned as the risk owner for a risk affecting a customer-facing web application?

  1. The external auditor
  2. The firewall administrator
  3. The security analyst who discovered the risk
  4. The business executive accountable for the application and its outcomes Correct answer.

Explanation

A risk owner is the individual with accountability and authority to manage the risk, usually the business leader responsible for the affected asset or process. Analysts and administrators contribute data but do not own the business outcome.

Question 15Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

Which statement best describes the principle of least privilege in a governance context?

  1. Users receive the maximum access needed to avoid support tickets
  2. Access rights are granted permanently to reduce administrative effort
  3. All administrators share a single privileged account to simplify auditing
  4. Users receive only the access required to perform their assigned duties for the time needed Correct answer.

Explanation

Least privilege limits access to what is necessary for the assigned tasks and only for as long as required, reducing the blast radius of misuse or compromise. It is a governance expectation that access reviews and provisioning processes must enforce.

Question 16Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A company uses a cloud provider that is certified against a recognized security standard. How should the company treat this in its own compliance program?

  1. It must still assess the provider's controls against its own requirements and retain evidence Correct answer.
  2. It can assume full compliance because the provider is certified
  3. It should rely solely on the provider's marketing materials
  4. It should ignore the certification because third parties are out of scope

Explanation

A provider's certification offers useful assurance but does not automatically satisfy the customer's obligations; the customer must map provider controls to its own requirements and keep evidence. Shared responsibility means some controls remain with the customer.

Question 17Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

Which element is essential for a risk register entry to be actionable?

  1. A description of the risk, an owner, an assessment, and a treatment status Correct answer.
  2. A full copy of every security policy
  3. The names of all employees who use the affected system
  4. The vendor's pricing history

Explanation

An actionable risk entry records what could happen, who is accountable, how the risk was assessed, and what is being done about it. This structure supports tracking, reporting, and management decisions.

Question 18Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

An organization's policy states that all production changes require approval, but a team routinely deploys hotfixes without review. What does this situation most directly indicate?

  1. The policy is a guideline rather than a standard
  2. The control objective is unnecessary
  3. The risk has been transferred
  4. The control is designed well but operating ineffectively Correct answer.

Explanation

When a documented control exists but practice deviates from it, the control is operating ineffectively even if its design is sound. This distinction between design and operating effectiveness is central to control assessment.

Question 19Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a statement of applicability in an information security management system?

  1. It lists which framework controls apply to the organization and justifies inclusions and exclusions Correct answer.
  2. It replaces the need for a risk assessment
  3. It defines the salaries of security staff
  4. It records every security incident from the past year

Explanation

The statement of applicability documents the chosen controls, explains why each is included or excluded, and links them to risk treatment decisions. It is a governance artifact that demonstrates justification, not a substitute for assessment.

Question 20Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A board wants assurance that security spending delivers value. Which approach best aligns reporting with that goal?

  1. Mapping security investments to reduced risk exposure and business objectives Correct answer.
  2. Reporting the total hours spent in meetings
  3. Reporting the number of security staff hired
  4. Listing every security tool purchased

Explanation

Value-oriented reporting connects spend to outcomes such as reduced likelihood or impact and to business objectives. Activity counts do not demonstrate whether exposure actually changed.

Question 21Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

An organization must choose between two controls with similar risk reduction. Control A costs far less but requires rare specialist skills; Control B costs more but uses widely available skills. Which analysis is most appropriate?

  1. Compare total cost of ownership, including operational feasibility and skill availability, alongside risk reduction Correct answer.
  2. Select B solely because it is more expensive
  3. Defer the decision indefinitely to avoid cost
  4. Select A solely because it has the lowest purchase price

Explanation

Risk treatment decisions should weigh full lifecycle cost and operational practicality against the risk reduction achieved. A cheaper control that cannot be sustained due to scarce skills may cost more in the long run.

Question 22Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A risk assessment uses a five-point likelihood and five-point impact scale, and a risk scoring 12 is treated as acceptable. A new finding scores 12 but affects safety-critical operations. What is the soundest governance response?

  1. Reduce the score by lowering the impact rating
  2. Accept it automatically because the score is at the threshold
  3. Ignore the finding because the scale is only indicative
  4. Escalate for review because the scoring model may not capture the severity of safety consequences Correct answer.

Explanation

Numeric scales can understate consequences that fall outside their calibration, so findings with exceptional characteristics warrant escalation and expert judgment. Adjusting ratings to fit a threshold would corrupt the assessment.

Question 23Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

An auditor finds that access reviews are performed quarterly as required, but reviewers approve every account without examining usage. How should this be characterized?

  1. Effective, because approvals were documented
  2. Effective, because the review occurred on schedule
  3. Ineffective in operation, because the review lacks substantive scrutiny Correct answer.
  4. Not applicable, because access reviews are optional

Explanation

Operating effectiveness requires that the control achieve its objective, not merely that it was performed. Rubber-stamping approvals provide no assurance that inappropriate access is removed.

Question 24Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A multinational must satisfy conflicting data protection obligations in two jurisdictions. Which governance approach is most defensible?

  1. Suspend operations in both jurisdictions
  2. Apply the least stringent requirement everywhere to minimize cost
  3. Apply different undocumented practices in each country
  4. Map obligations to a common control set that meets the strictest applicable requirement where feasible Correct answer.

Explanation

Harmonizing obligations into a common control baseline that satisfies the strictest applicable requirement reduces complexity while maintaining compliance. Undocumented local variation creates legal and audit exposure.

Question 25Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A risk register shows a high inherent risk that, after strong controls, has a low residual score. Management proposes removing the control to save cost. What is the most rigorous argument against this proposal?

  1. Residual risk is fixed and cannot change
  2. Controls never affect risk levels
  3. Inherent risk is irrelevant once it has been recorded
  4. The inherent risk would re-emerge because residual risk depends on the control continuing to operate Correct answer.

Explanation

Residual risk is low only because the controls operate effectively; removing them returns exposure toward the inherent level. The decision must therefore weigh savings against the reinstated risk, not against the already-mitigated figure.

Question 26Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

Which document typically sits at the top of the information security policy hierarchy and establishes management's overall intent and direction for security?

  1. The enterprise information security policy Correct answer.
  2. The firewall configuration baseline
  3. The privileged access request form
  4. The incident response runbook

Explanation

A policy hierarchy places the high-level enterprise security policy at the top, where senior management states intent, scope, and mandatory obligations. Lower layers such as standards, baselines, procedures, and forms translate that intent into specific requirements and steps.

Question 27Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A risk assessment team rates a threat as almost certain to occur and its impact as severe. Under a typical likelihood-by-impact matrix, how should this risk be treated?

  1. It is closed because the threat has not yet materialized.
  2. It is documented as a low risk and monitored annually.
  3. It is escalated as a high or critical risk requiring treatment decisions. Correct answer.
  4. It is accepted automatically because insurance is already in place.

Explanation

Risk matrices combine likelihood and impact so that high scores on both dimensions produce a high or critical rating. Such ratings are escalated to risk owners and management for a documented treatment decision, whether that is mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept.

Question 28Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

An organization wants to demonstrate that a third-party vendor's security controls meet its requirements before signing a contract. Which governance activity best provides this assurance?

  1. Requesting the vendor's marketing brochure and customer references
  2. Reviewing the vendor's independent audit report and completing a due diligence questionnaire Correct answer.
  3. Adding a clause that shifts all liability to the vendor
  4. Asking the vendor to sign a general confidentiality clause only

Explanation

Third-party risk management relies on evidence, such as independent audit reports and structured due diligence questionnaires, to assess whether a vendor's controls satisfy contractual and regulatory requirements. Legal clauses allocate responsibility but do not demonstrate that controls actually exist.

Question 29Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

A security manager must justify a control investment to executive leadership. Which framing best aligns the proposal with governance objectives?

  1. Committing to implement every control in a published framework
  2. Expressing the proposal in terms of reduced risk exposure and alignment with business objectives Correct answer.
  3. Comparing the proposal against competitors' security spending
  4. Listing the technical features of the proposed product in detail

Explanation

Governance decisions are made in business terms, so proposals should connect spending to reduced risk exposure, regulatory obligations, and strategic objectives. This lets executives weigh the investment against alternatives and the organization's risk appetite.

Question 30Security Governance, Risk Management and Compliance

An organization operates in a jurisdiction where a new regulation requires breach notification within 72 hours, but its current incident process has no defined notification trigger or timeline. Which governance action addresses this compliance gap most directly?

  1. Purchasing additional endpoint detection licenses to reduce the chance of a breach
  2. Delegating notification decisions entirely to the legal department without documented criteria
  3. Adding the regulation to a risk register entry without changing any process
  4. Updating the incident response plan to define notification criteria, roles, and the 72-hour timeline, then testing it Correct answer.

Explanation

A compliance gap in an obligation is closed by embedding the regulatory requirement into the governing process, here the incident response plan, with clear triggers, assigned roles, and a timeline that meets the deadline. The change should then be validated through exercises or tests to confirm it works.

Question 31Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

In a security architecture, which principle states that a subject should be granted only the minimum access rights needed to perform its function, and only for the period required?

  1. Least privilege Correct answer.
  2. Separation of duties
  3. Fail-safe defaults
  4. Defense in depth

Explanation

Least privilege limits each subject's rights to the minimum necessary for its task and constrains duration, reducing the blast radius of misuse or compromise. It is distinct from layering controls or splitting tasks among multiple people.

Question 32Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

Which security model uses a lattice of security labels and a no-read-up, no-write-down rule to protect confidentiality?

  1. Take-Grant model
  2. Biba integrity model
  3. Clark-Wilson model
  4. Bell-LaPadula model Correct answer.

Explanation

Bell-LaPadula enforces confidentiality with the simple security property (no read up) and the star property (no write down) across labeled subjects and objects. Biba addresses integrity with the inverse rules.

Question 33Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

A security engineer places a web application firewall, input validation, and parameterized queries at separate layers so a single failure does not expose the database. Which design principle is being applied?

  1. Least common mechanism
  2. Open design
  3. Single point of failure
  4. Defense in depth Correct answer.

Explanation

Defense in depth layers independent controls so that compromise of one layer does not defeat the whole system. Each control here addresses injection at a different tier, providing redundancy.

Question 34Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

Which cryptographic property does a digital signature primarily provide to the recipient of a message?

  1. Compression of the message payload
  2. Confidentiality of the message contents
  3. Availability of the message over time
  4. Authentication of origin and integrity of the message Correct answer.

Explanation

A digital signature lets the recipient verify who signed the message and detect any alteration, providing origin authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation. It does not by itself hide the message contents.

Question 35Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

Which of the following best describes the role of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in platform integrity?

  1. It replaces the operating system's access control model
  2. It stores measured boot values in platform configuration registers for later attestation Correct answer.
  3. It provides a hardware firewall between VLANs
  4. It encrypts all network traffic leaving the host

Explanation

A TPM records integrity measurements of boot components in platform configuration registers and can attest those values to a remote party. It anchors trust in hardware but does not perform network or OS access control functions.

Question 36Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

An architect selects AES-256-GCM for data at rest. Which security service does the GCM mode add beyond confidentiality?

  1. Data compression
  2. Authenticated integrity Correct answer.
  3. Password hashing
  4. Key exchange

Explanation

GCM is an authenticated encryption mode that produces a tag enabling detection of tampering, so it provides integrity and authenticity in addition to confidentiality. Key exchange and hashing are separate functions.

Question 37Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

Which network segmentation approach places each host in its own isolated segment so that lateral movement requires passing through a policy enforcement point?

  1. Broadcast domain
  2. Microsegmentation Correct answer.
  3. Perimeter-only firewall
  4. Flat network

Explanation

Microsegmentation applies fine-grained policy between individual workloads, limiting lateral movement even inside a data center. Flat networks and perimeter-only controls allow unrestricted internal traffic.

Question 38Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

What does the principle of fail-safe defaults require of an access control decision when the system cannot determine authorization?

  1. Log the request and grant temporary access
  2. Defer to the user's stated role
  3. Grant access to preserve availability
  4. Deny access unless explicitly permitted Correct answer.

Explanation

Fail-safe defaults require that access be denied unless a rule explicitly permits it, so an undetermined state resolves to denial. This prevents errors from silently opening access.

Question 39Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

A company wants to allow staff to use personal laptops for email while ensuring only compliant devices reach the mail service. Which control best fits this requirement?

  1. Full-disk encryption on corporate servers
  2. Mandatory annual security awareness training
  3. Network access control with device posture assessment Correct answer.
  4. A static host-based intrusion detection sensor

Explanation

Network access control evaluates device posture, such as patch level and endpoint protection, before granting access to the mail service. It directly enforces the compliant-device condition for unmanaged endpoints.

Question 40Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

An application needs to verify a user's identity across multiple service providers without each provider storing the user's password. Which architecture best meets this?

  1. Shared password database replicated to each provider
  2. Per-provider local accounts with password reuse
  3. Static API keys embedded in each client
  4. Federated identity using an identity provider and assertions Correct answer.

Explanation

Federated identity centralizes authentication at an identity provider that issues assertions or tokens to service providers, so credentials are not stored everywhere. This reduces credential sprawl and reuse risk.

Question 41Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

A design must protect data processed in a public cloud where the provider administers the hypervisor. Which approach best preserves confidentiality against the provider's privileged access?

  1. Storing data in a provider-managed encrypted bucket
  2. Placing the workload behind a web application firewall
  3. Relying on the provider's internal access reviews
  4. Confidential computing with hardware memory encryption Correct answer.

Explanation

Confidential computing isolates data in hardware-protected enclaves so even the hypervisor administrator cannot read it in use. Provider-managed encryption and internal reviews still leave the provider able to access plaintext.

Question 42Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

Which change to a system best mitigates a supply chain attack that implants malicious code in a third-party library?

  1. Enabling compression on database backups
  2. Adding more verbose application logging
  3. Increasing the length of user passwords
  4. Verifying signed artifacts and pinning dependency versions Correct answer.

Explanation

Verifying signatures and pinning known-good versions ensures only authentic, expected artifacts are deployed, which detects or blocks tampered dependencies. The other options do not address artifact provenance.

Question 43Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

An architect must protect a database encryption key so that no single administrator can use it alone. Which control achieves this?

  1. Key splitting with dual control and split knowledge Correct answer.
  2. Using the same key across all environments
  3. Storing the key in the application source code
  4. Emailing the key to the DBA team for safekeeping

Explanation

Split knowledge divides key components among parties and dual control requires two or more to act together, so no single administrator can reconstruct or use the key alone. This is a standard requirement for sensitive key management.

Question 44Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

Which property distinguishes a covert channel from an overt communication path in a multilevel secure system?

  1. It always crosses a network boundary
  2. It is encrypted with a stronger cipher
  3. It requires two users to authenticate simultaneously
  4. It uses a mechanism not intended for communication to transfer information Correct answer.

Explanation

A covert channel exploits a shared mechanism, such as timing or storage, to signal information in a way the security policy did not intend to permit. Detecting it requires analyzing resource sharing rather than network topology.

Question 45Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

A system must remain available during a single data center outage while keeping recovery point objectives near zero. Which architecture best fits?

  1. A single site with redundant power supplies
  2. Synchronous replication across two sites with automated failover Correct answer.
  3. Weekly full backups to a local disk array
  4. Nightly tape backups stored offsite

Explanation

Synchronous replication keeps a second site continuously current, so failover loses little or no committed data and meets a near-zero recovery point objective. Backups alone leave a large data-loss window and slower recovery.

Question 46Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

Which control most directly limits the impact of a compromised service account used by an automated pipeline?

  1. Disabling audit logging for the account
  2. Short-lived credentials scoped to specific resources Correct answer.
  3. A longer, more complex static password
  4. Sharing the account across multiple pipelines

Explanation

Short-lived, narrowly scoped credentials reduce both the window and the blast radius if the account is compromised. Static long-lived secrets and shared accounts enlarge exposure.

Question 47Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

A security architect is choosing between an intrusion prevention system inline and an intrusion detection system out of band. Which trade-off correctly describes the inline placement?

  1. It requires no tuning to avoid false positives
  2. It cannot inspect encrypted traffic at all
  3. It eliminates the need for other security controls
  4. It can block malicious traffic but adds latency and a potential failure point Correct answer.

Explanation

An inline prevention device can drop malicious traffic, but sitting in the data path adds latency and means a failure or misconfiguration can disrupt availability. Out-of-band detection avoids that risk but cannot block in real time.

Question 48Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

Which design choice best reduces the attack surface of a public-facing web server?

  1. Running additional management daemons for convenience
  2. Storing configuration secrets in world-readable files
  3. Granting the web process administrative rights
  4. Disabling unused services and closing unnecessary ports Correct answer.

Explanation

Removing unused services and closing unneeded ports shrinks the set of reachable entry points an attacker can exploit. Extra daemons, elevated privileges, and exposed secrets all enlarge the attack surface.

Question 49Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

A zero trust architecture replaces implicit trust based on network location with which approach?

  1. Trusting all traffic from the internal VLAN
  2. Continuous verification of identity and device posture for every request Correct answer.
  3. Password-only authentication at the VPN gateway
  4. A single strong perimeter firewall

Explanation

Zero trust evaluates every request based on identity, device health, and context rather than assuming internal networks are safe. This requires continuous verification instead of one-time perimeter checks.

Question 50Security Architecture, Design and Engineering

An organization must prove to an auditor that only approved container images run in production. Which control provides the strongest evidence?

  1. Manual review of images by developers before release
  2. A firewall rule blocking outbound traffic from containers
  3. A wiki page listing approved image names
  4. Admission control that enforces image signature verification and records decisions Correct answer.

Explanation

Admission control enforces policy at deployment time and logs each decision, producing verifiable evidence that only signed, approved images were admitted. Documentation and manual review do not enforce or record runtime admission.