I85PREP
⌘ K
TR-C study materials
TR-C study resources

TR-C practice questions

One question at a time. Build your TR-C understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Fundamentals and Core Concepts

In the TR-C fundamentals, the term 'transducer' most precisely refers to a device that does which of the following?

  1. Stores electrical charge between two conductive plates
  2. Amplifies a low-level signal without altering its waveform
  3. Rectifies alternating current into pulsating direct current
  4. Converts one form of energy into another for measurement or control Correct answer.

Explanation

A transducer is defined by energy conversion: it changes a physical quantity such as pressure, temperature, or displacement into an electrical signal, or the reverse. Amplification, charge storage, and rectification are functions of other components, not the defining role of a transducer.

Question 2Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A sensing element produces a very small voltage that must be conditioned before digitization. Which characteristic of the conditioning stage most directly determines the smallest input change the system can resolve?

  1. Its enclosure rating
  2. Its resolution and noise floor Correct answer.
  3. Its output impedance
  4. Its power-supply ripple frequency

Explanation

Resolvable input change is limited by the smallest step the conditioning chain can represent and by the noise below which a change cannot be distinguished. Output impedance affects loading and drive capability, and enclosure rating affects environmental protection, but neither sets the minimum detectable change.

Question 3Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A measurement chain is described as having 'span' of 0 to 10 bar with a 'zero' at 0 bar. Which pair of terms correctly names these two calibration references?

  1. Span is the lower reference; zero is the upper reference
  2. Zero is the lower reference; span is the upper reference Correct answer.
  3. Both zero and span refer to the lower reference
  4. Both zero and span refer to the upper reference

Explanation

In calibration terminology, zero (or lower range value) is the input at which the output is set to its low reference, while span (upper range value) is the input at the high reference. The difference between them is the range, so zero and span are distinct endpoints, not the same reference.

Question 4Fundamentals and Core Concepts

An engineer needs to detect the presence of a ferrous target without physical contact and without generating a magnetic field of her own. Which sensing principle fits this requirement?

  1. Hall-effect sensing Correct answer.
  2. Capacitive proximity sensing
  3. Inductive proximity sensing
  4. Photoelectric sensing

Explanation

A Hall-effect sensor responds to an existing magnetic field, so it can detect a magnetized or ferrous target by the field it distorts without the sensor energizing a coil. Inductive and capacitive sensors actively generate a field, and photoelectric sensing relies on light interruption rather than magnetic properties.

Question 5Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which statement best distinguishes an active sensor from a passive sensor in TR-C fundamentals?

  1. An active sensor is always wireless, while a passive sensor is always wired
  2. An active sensor measures only digital quantities, while a passive sensor measures only analog quantities
  3. An active sensor contains a microprocessor, while a passive sensor contains only resistors
  4. An active sensor requires an external excitation source to produce its output, while a passive sensor generates output from the measured quantity itself Correct answer.

Explanation

The active/passive distinction concerns excitation: active sensors need an external supply or excitation to operate, whereas passive sensors such as thermocouples or piezoelectric elements derive output energy from the measurand. Digital versus analog, processing hardware, and communication method are unrelated classification criteria.

Question 6Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A pressure transmitter is specified as 0.25% of full scale accuracy over a 0 to 400 kPa range. What is the maximum permissible error in pressure units?

  1. 1.0 kPa Correct answer.
  2. 4.0 kPa
  3. 2.5 kPa
  4. 0.25 kPa

Explanation

Percent-of-span accuracy is applied to the full-scale span: 0.25% of 400 kPa equals 0.01 times 400, or 1.0 kPa. The error scales with the span, not with the instantaneous reading, so the answer is a fixed value across the range.

Question 7Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which phenomenon describes a sensor output that continues to change after the measured input has stopped changing, returning only slowly to a stable value?

  1. Creep Correct answer.
  2. Dead band
  3. Drift
  4. Hysteresis

Explanation

Creep is the continued change of output over time under constant input, typically due to material deformation or thermal relaxation. Hysteresis is a difference between ascending and descending readings, drift is a slow baseline shift, and dead band is an input range producing no output change.

Question 8Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A 4-20 mA current loop is preferred over a 0-5 V voltage signal for transmitting an analog measurement across a long factory run. Which property of the current loop best explains this preference?

  1. Current loops carry digital data more reliably
  2. Current loops eliminate the need for a power supply at the transmitter
  3. Loop current is unaffected by series voltage drops and induced noise along the cable Correct answer.
  4. Current loops always provide galvanic isolation

Explanation

In a series current loop the same current flows through all elements, so resistive voltage drops in long cables and modest induced voltages do not change the transmitted value. Voltage signals attenuate and pick up noise over distance, which is why current transmission is favored for long runs.

Question 9Fundamentals and Core Concepts

In a two-wire 4-20 mA transmitter, why is the live zero of 4 mA used rather than 0 mA?

  1. It increases the maximum measurable span by 25%
  2. It permits the transmitter to output negative values
  3. It allows the transmitter to be powered by the loop while distinguishing a valid zero reading from a broken wire Correct answer.
  4. It reduces the loop supply voltage requirement to zero

Explanation

The 4 mA offset provides operating current for the electronics and creates a detectable difference between a legitimate zero measurement and an open circuit at 0 mA. This live-zero convention enables fault detection, which a true 0 mA zero could not provide.

Question 10Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which measurement principle underlies a resistance temperature detector (RTD)?

  1. The emission of infrared radiation from a surface
  2. The change in capacitance of a dielectric with temperature
  3. The predictable change of a metal's resistance with temperature Correct answer.
  4. The Seebeck effect at a junction of dissimilar metals

Explanation

An RTD exploits the well-characterized, nearly linear increase of resistance in a pure metal such as platinum as temperature rises. The Seebeck effect belongs to thermocouples, capacitive change to some humidity or pressure sensors, and infrared emission to non-contact pyrometry.

Question 11Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A thermocouple is connected to a signal conditioner, but the technician neglects reference-junction compensation. What error will the reading contain?

  1. No error, because thermocouples are self-compensating
  2. An error equal to the voltage the cold junction would generate at ambient temperature Correct answer.
  3. An error proportional to the square of the hot-junction temperature
  4. An error caused solely by lead-wire resistance

Explanation

A thermocouple output depends on the temperature difference between its measuring and reference junctions, so the ambient reference junction contributes a voltage that must be subtracted. Without cold-junction compensation, the reading is offset by the equivalent of the ambient junction temperature.

Question 12Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which device converts a mechanical displacement into a change in electrical capacitance, making it suitable for measuring small movements?

  1. Capacitive displacement sensor Correct answer.
  2. Piezoelectric accelerometer
  3. Linear variable differential transformer
  4. Strain gauge

Explanation

A capacitive displacement sensor varies the plate separation or overlap area, changing capacitance in proportion to movement and enabling high-resolution position measurement. Strain gauges measure strain via resistance change, LVDTs use inductive coupling, and piezoelectric devices respond to dynamic force or acceleration.

Question 13Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A Wheatstone bridge with a single active strain gauge is used to measure bending strain. What is the main benefit of the bridge configuration over measuring the gauge resistance directly?

  1. It allows the gauge to measure both strain and temperature simultaneously
  2. It converts a small resistance change into a measurable differential voltage while rejecting common effects such as temperature Correct answer.
  3. It removes the need for any excitation voltage
  4. It multiplies the gauge output by a factor of ten

Explanation

The bridge produces a differential output voltage proportional to the small fractional resistance change, which is far easier to amplify than an absolute resistance. A dummy or compensating arm also cancels temperature-induced resistance changes common to both arms, improving accuracy.

Question 14Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which flow-measurement principle determines flow rate from the pressure drop created across a restriction in the pipe?

  1. Electromagnetic flow
  2. Coriolis mass flow
  3. Ultrasonic transit-time flow
  4. Differential pressure flow Correct answer.

Explanation

Differential pressure flow meters, such as orifice plates and venturis, infer flow from the square-root relationship between flow and the pressure drop across a restriction. Coriolis uses tube vibration, electromagnetic uses Faraday induction, and ultrasonic uses acoustic transit time.

Question 15Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A technician observes that an orifice-plate flow measurement reads 50% of span. What percentage of maximum flow does this correspond to, assuming the standard square-root relationship?

  1. 100%
  2. 25%
  3. 70.7% Correct answer.
  4. 50%

Explanation

For a differential pressure flow element, flow varies with the square root of the differential pressure, so flow fraction equals the square root of the DP fraction. The square root of 0.50 is approximately 0.707, or 70.7% of maximum flow.

Question 16Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which level-measurement technique uses the time of flight of a reflected acoustic pulse to determine the distance to a liquid surface?

  1. Guided-wave radar
  2. Ultrasonic level Correct answer.
  3. Hydrostatic pressure level
  4. Capacitance level

Explanation

Ultrasonic level sensors emit an acoustic pulse and time its echo from the surface, converting time of flight to distance. Hydrostatic methods infer level from pressure head, capacitance methods from dielectric change, and guided-wave radar uses electromagnetic pulses along a probe.

Question 17Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A radar level gauge is mounted above a tank containing a liquid with a low dielectric constant. Which factor most limits the gauge's ability to detect the surface reliably?

  1. The viscosity of the liquid
  2. The weak reflection caused by the low dielectric contrast Correct answer.
  3. The ambient humidity inside the tank
  4. The color of the liquid

Explanation

Radar reflection strength depends on the dielectric contrast between the liquid and the vapor above it; a low-dielectric liquid reflects little energy, reducing signal-to-noise and reliability. Color, humidity, and viscosity do not govern electromagnetic reflection at the surface.

Question 18Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A PNP-type inductive proximity sensor is wired to a controller input. What output behavior should the technician expect when a target is detected?

  1. The output reverses polarity to produce an alternating signal
  2. The output switches to a high-impedance state permanently
  3. The output sinks current from the load to ground
  4. The output sources current to the load, connecting it to the positive supply Correct answer.

Explanation

A PNP sensor uses a transistor that sources current, so on detection the output is pulled toward the positive supply and drives the load to common. Sinking behavior is characteristic of NPN (current-sinking) outputs, and the sensor does not alternate polarity.

Question 19Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which statement correctly describes the purpose of a shield in a signal cable carrying a low-level analog measurement?

  1. It increases the current-carrying capacity of the conductors
  2. It reduces capacitive and inductive pickup from external electrical noise Correct answer.
  3. It converts the analog signal into a digital signal
  4. It provides mechanical strain relief at the connector

Explanation

A cable shield intercepts electric fields and, when properly grounded, diverts induced noise currents away from the signal conductors, reducing interference on low-level signals. It does not increase conductor ampacity, digitize signals, or serve as strain relief.

Question 20Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A shielded twisted-pair cable carries a low-level analog signal, and the shield is grounded at both ends. What problem is most likely to result?

  1. The shield will lose all conductivity
  2. The signal will be attenuated to zero
  3. The cable will become an antenna that radiates the signal
  4. Ground-loop currents will flow in the shield and inject noise into the signal Correct answer.

Explanation

Grounding the shield at both ends creates a closed path between points at different ground potentials, so ground-loop current flows through the shield and couples noise magnetically into the signal pair. Best practice is single-point grounding of the shield, often at the instrument end.

Question 21Fundamentals and Core Concepts

In a control loop, which element compares the measured process variable with the setpoint and produces an error signal for the controller?

  1. The final control element
  2. The summing junction or comparator Correct answer.
  3. The transmitter
  4. The actuator

Explanation

The comparator, often represented as a summing junction, subtracts the feedback measurement from the setpoint to generate the error that drives the controller. The transmitter measures the variable, and the final control element or actuator carries out the corrective action.

Question 22Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A proportional-only controller exhibits a persistent offset when the process reaches steady state. Which action is most appropriate to eliminate this offset?

  1. Reduce the derivative time to zero
  2. Increase the proportional gain substantially
  3. Reverse the controller action
  4. Add integral action to the controller Correct answer.

Explanation

Integral action accumulates the error over time and continues to adjust the output until the error reaches zero, removing steady-state offset. Increasing gain only reduces offset without eliminating it, and reversing action or changing derivative time does not address the residual error.

Question 23Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A control valve is specified with 'fail-closed' action. What does this mean for the valve's behavior on loss of actuating signal or power?

  1. The valve moves to the fully open position
  2. The valve oscillates between open and closed
  3. The valve remains in its last position
  4. The valve moves to the fully closed position Correct answer.

Explanation

Fail-closed indicates that the valve returns to the closed position when the actuating force is lost, typically through spring return. Fail-open returns to open, and fail-last (or fail-in-place) holds the last position; oscillation is not a defined failure mode.

Question 24Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A process variable is measured with a transmitter whose response lags the true process change by several seconds. How does this lag most directly affect closed-loop control?

  1. It eliminates steady-state offset automatically
  2. It increases the controller's proportional gain without limit
  3. It has no effect because controllers respond only to setpoint
  4. It reduces the loop's stability margin, forcing slower controller tuning Correct answer.

Explanation

Measurement lag adds phase delay in the feedback path, which reduces phase margin and can cause instability if the controller is tuned aggressively. The loop must therefore be detuned, trading speed for stability; lag does not remove offset or alter gain limits automatically.

Question 25Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which of the following best describes the function of a signal isolator in an instrumentation installation?

  1. It converts AC power to DC for the instrument
  2. It filters only high-frequency noise from the signal
  3. It amplifies the signal to drive long cables without any isolation
  4. It breaks galvanic paths between circuits while passing the measurement signal Correct answer.

Explanation

A signal isolator transfers the measurement across an isolation barrier, typically via transformer or optical coupling, preventing ground loops and protecting equipment from fault currents. It may also condition or filter the signal, but its defining role is galvanic separation.

Question 26Fundamentals and Core Concepts

In a process instrumentation diagram, a transmitter is tagged 'PT 101'. Which variable does this instrument measure?

  1. Temperature
  2. Pressure Correct answer.
  3. Flow
  4. Level

Explanation

Instrument tag letters follow a standard convention in which the first letter identifies the measured variable and the following letters identify the function. 'P' denotes pressure and 'T' denotes transmitter, so PT 101 is a pressure transmitter. The loop number 101 identifies the specific loop, not the variable.

Question 27Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A control loop is described as closed loop. Which statement describes its defining behavior?

  1. The operator manually positions the final control element based on a gauge reading.
  2. The controller output is adjusted automatically using feedback of the measured process variable. Correct answer.
  3. The measurement signal is recorded for reporting but never used for control.
  4. The controller drives the output to a fixed value and ignores the measurement.

Explanation

A closed loop continuously compares the measured process variable with the setpoint and uses the resulting error to adjust the controller output. The measurement is fed back to the controller, which is why the loop is described as closed. An open loop has no such feedback path.

Question 28Fundamentals and Core Concepts

An engineer must select a level instrument for a tank containing a corrosive liquid that also forms heavy foam on its surface. Which selection approach best fits these process conditions?

  1. Rely on the transmitter's accuracy specification alone, since materials and foam are installation details.
  2. Select a float switch because foam will not affect a mechanical float.
  3. Confirm the wetted materials resist the liquid and choose a principle unaffected by foam, such as guided-wave radar. Correct answer.
  4. Choose the lowest-cost ultrasonic transmitter and mount it as high as possible above the tank.

Explanation

Instrument selection must first satisfy the process wetted-material requirement, because corrosion destroys the sensor regardless of its accuracy. Foam is a known limitation for non-contact ultrasonic and radar level measurement, since the foam scatters or absorbs the pulse. A guided-wave device keeps the signal on a probe and is far less affected by surface foam.

Question 29Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which document in an instrumentation project defines the calibration range, output signal, and process connection for each field transmitter?

  1. The loop tuning record
  2. The instrument index and specification datasheets Correct answer.
  3. The piping and instrumentation diagram alone
  4. The maintenance work order history

Explanation

The instrument index lists every tagged instrument, and the associated specification datasheets give the detailed requirements such as range, output signal, and process connection. The P&ID shows relationships and tag numbers but omits that level of detail. Tuning records and work-order history describe operation, not the specified configuration.

Question 30Fundamentals and Core Concepts

An existing 4-20 mA pressure loop is to be extended with a new indicator wired in series in the same current loop. What is the primary effect on the loop?

  1. The indicator adds resistance, so the total loop load rises and must remain within the transmitter's allowable load. Correct answer.
  2. The live zero shifts from 4 mA to a lower value.
  3. The 4-20 mA signal is converted to a voltage and the loop stops working.
  4. The loop current increases in proportion to the number of devices connected.

Explanation

In a series current loop the same current flows through every device, so the transmitter must be able to drive the total resistance of all receivers plus the wiring. Adding an indicator increases that load, and the sum must stay below the transmitter's maximum rated load at the supply voltage. The current itself is set by the process variable, not by the number of devices.

Question 31Planning and Design

In TOGAF's Architecture Development Method, which phase establishes the architecture vision and obtains management approval for the Statement of Architecture Work?

  1. Phase C
  2. Phase B
  3. Phase A Correct answer.
  4. Phase D

Explanation

Phase A (Architecture Vision) defines the scope, identifies stakeholders, and secures executive endorsement via the Statement of Architecture Work. Business, information systems, and technology architectures are developed later in Phases B through D.

Question 32Planning and Design

Which TOGAF deliverable describes the scope of an architecture project and the approach, roles, and schedule agreed between the sponsor and the architecture team?

  1. Statement of Architecture Work Correct answer.
  2. Architecture Definition Document
  3. Architecture Roadmap
  4. Architecture Requirements Specification

Explanation

The Statement of Architecture Work is the formal agreement covering scope, plan, deliverables, and acceptance criteria, and it is produced in Phase A. It acts as the contract between the sponsoring organization and the architecture function.

Question 33Planning and Design

The TOGAF Architecture Repository separates content into which of the following logical partitions?

  1. Baseline Architecture, Target Architecture, and Transition Architectures
  2. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Standards Information Base, Reference Library, and Governance Log Correct answer.
  3. Business, Data, Application, and Technology domains
  4. Metadata Repository, Governance Log, and Capability Assessment

Explanation

The Architecture Repository is partitioned into the Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Standards Information Base, Reference Library, and Governance Log. Each partition stores a distinct class of assets used and produced by the architecture capability.

Question 34Planning and Design

A team is defining architecture principles. Which pair of qualities must each principle exhibit to be usable in governance?

  1. Verbose and aspirational
  2. Optional and advisory
  3. Confidential and time-bound
  4. Specific and measurable Correct answer.

Explanation

Well-formed principles must be specific enough to guide decisions and measurable enough to be enforced through compliance reviews. Vague or purely aspirational statements cannot be used to arbitrate design disputes.

Question 35Planning and Design

In TOGAF, what is the primary purpose of the Architecture Governance function?

  1. To ensure architecture compliance and manage architectural change through defined processes and accountability Correct answer.
  2. To procure hardware from approved vendors
  3. To write application source code
  4. To approve the annual IT budget

Explanation

Architecture Governance provides the practices, processes, and accountability for controlling architecture change and enforcing compliance. It operates through bodies such as the Architecture Board rather than through budgeting, coding, or procurement.

Question 36Planning and Design

Which stakeholder management technique does TOGAF recommend to identify and classify stakeholders by their influence and interest in the architecture?

  1. Gantt chart
  2. RACI matrix for coding tasks
  3. Burn-down chart
  4. Stakeholder map and power/interest grid Correct answer.

Explanation

TOGAF suggests using a stakeholder map and a power/interest grid in Phase A to identify stakeholders and plan engagement. These tools reveal who must be consulted, informed, or actively involved.

Question 37Planning and Design

When creating a baseline Business Architecture in Phase B, which artifact captures the business services, functions, and processes the organization currently performs?

  1. Technology Standards Catalog
  2. Data Entity/Data Component Catalog
  3. Business Service/Function Catalog Correct answer.
  4. Application Communication Diagram

Explanation

The Business Service/Function Catalog is a Phase B artifact that lists the business services and functions the enterprise provides. Data and application catalogs belong to Phase C, and technology catalogs belong to Phase D.

Question 38Planning and Design

Which TOGAF technique is used to assess the readiness of an organization to undergo an architecture transformation across factors such as culture, skills, and capacity?

  1. Interoperability Requirements Analysis
  2. Risk Management
  3. Gap Analysis
  4. Business Transformation Readiness Assessment Correct answer.

Explanation

The Business Transformation Readiness Assessment evaluates the organization's ability to absorb change across readiness factors. Its output feeds migration planning so that transformation risk is managed explicitly.

Question 39Planning and Design

In the TOGAF Architecture Content Framework, what distinguishes a building block from a deliverable?

  1. A building block is a reusable component of the architecture, while a deliverable is a work product that documents the architecture Correct answer.
  2. A building block is a governance body, while a deliverable is a meeting minute
  3. A building block is a stakeholder, while a deliverable is a requirement
  4. A building block is a project schedule, while a deliverable is a budget

Explanation

Building blocks represent reusable architecture components, such as an application or a service, that can be combined to deliver capability. Deliverables are the documented outputs of ADM phases, such as a definition document or roadmap.

Question 40Planning and Design

A candidate solution requires reuse of an existing enterprise service rather than building a new one. Which architecture principle does this decision most directly enact?

  1. Business continuity
  2. Buy before build Correct answer.
  3. Service orientation
  4. Data is an asset

Explanation

The principle 'buy before build' (or reuse before build) directs teams to consume existing or purchased capabilities rather than developing new ones. It reduces duplication and total cost of ownership.

Question 41Planning and Design

Which Phase E activity in the ADM produces the initial Architecture Roadmap and transition architectures?

  1. Conducting the Architecture Compliance Review
  2. Defining the Statement of Architecture Work
  3. Consolidating gaps between baseline and target into work packages and prioritizing them Correct answer.
  4. Developing the Technology Architecture

Explanation

Phase E, Opportunities and Solutions, groups the gaps and changes into work packages and groups them into transition architectures. This creates the initial roadmap that later feeds migration planning.

Question 42Planning and Design

What is the main role of the Architecture Board in TOGAF governance?

  1. To perform day-to-day coding of systems
  2. To oversee architecture decisions, resolve conflicts, and grant dispensations from standards Correct answer.
  3. To negotiate vendor contracts
  4. To conduct internal financial audits

Explanation

The Architecture Board is the governing body that reviews and approves architecture decisions, arbitrates disputes, and can grant dispensations. It provides the accountability structure for compliance and change control.

Question 43Planning and Design

Which TOGAF technique supports identifying and resolving conflicting requirements among stakeholders during architecture development?

  1. Requirements Impact Assessment Correct answer.
  2. Business Scenarios
  3. Capability-Based Planning
  4. Architecture Maturity Assessment

Explanation

Requirements Impact Assessment analyzes the effect of new or changed requirements, including conflicts, and determines how they affect the architecture. It is part of the requirements management process that runs across the ADM.

Question 44Planning and Design

In the TOGAF ADM, which phase is primarily responsible for performing formal compliance reviews of implementations against the defined architecture?

  1. Phase G Correct answer.
  2. Phase A
  3. Phase E
  4. Phase C

Explanation

Phase G, Implementation Governance, sets up architecture contracts and performs compliance reviews of projects against the target architecture. It ensures implementations remain aligned with agreed architecture and standards.

Question 45Planning and Design

Which statement best describes the purpose of the Architecture Capability within an enterprise?

  1. It is the total budget allocated to IT projects
  2. It is the set of servers provisioned for production workloads
  3. It is the catalogue of approved software licenses
  4. It is the set of skills, processes, roles, and tools that enable the organization to perform architecture work effectively Correct answer.

Explanation

Architecture Capability covers the organizational ability to perform architecture work, including roles, skills, processes, and tools. It is distinct from infrastructure, budgets, and license inventories.

Question 46Planning and Design

Which of the following is a valid reason for adopting a federated architecture operating model in a large enterprise?

  1. To remove the requirement for architecture principles
  2. To eliminate the need for any architecture governance
  3. To balance enterprise-wide standards with the autonomy and responsiveness of business units Correct answer.
  4. To centralize all architectural decisions in a single team regardless of business unit needs

Explanation

A federated model distributes architecture authority to business units while retaining enterprise-wide standards and coordination. This balances consistency with local responsiveness, which a purely centralized or fully decentralized model cannot achieve.

Question 47Planning and Design

A team is building a Business Scenario in TOGAF. Which sequence correctly reflects the technique?

  1. Perform gap analysis, build the roadmap, and execute migration
  2. Gather requirements, deploy the solution, and retire legacy systems
  3. Identify problem and stakeholders, gather requirements, document the scenario, identify and document desired outcomes, and assess the results Correct answer.
  4. Define the data model, then select technology, then test

Explanation

The Business Scenario technique starts by identifying the business problem and stakeholders, then gathers requirements, documents the scenario, identifies desired outcomes, and assesses whether the solution achieves them. It is a requirements-elicitation technique, not a delivery or migration process.

Question 48Planning and Design

In the Architecture Content Framework, which relationship best describes how a work package relates to a transition architecture?

  1. A work package is a set of changes that, when implemented, realizes a transition architecture Correct answer.
  2. A work package is a data entity used in reporting
  3. A work package is a type of stakeholder
  4. A work package is a governance dispensation

Explanation

Work packages group the changes needed to move from one architecture state to another, and transition architectures describe those intermediate states. The roadmap sequences work packages to realize each transition architecture.

Question 49Planning and Design

Which TOGAF principle is most directly concerned with ensuring that architecture decisions can be traced back to approved requirements?

  1. Maximizing benefit to the enterprise
  2. Business continuity
  3. Vendor neutrality
  4. Traceability of decisions Correct answer.

Explanation

While TOGAF principles vary by enterprise, traceability is a common principle ensuring decisions map to requirements and rationale. It supports auditability and defensible governance of architecture choices.

Question 50Planning and Design

What is the main output of the Gap Analysis technique in TOGAF?

  1. A list of differences between baseline and target architectures and the actions needed to close them Correct answer.
  2. A list of approved technology vendors
  3. A schedule of project milestones
  4. A list of stakeholder communication preferences

Explanation

Gap Analysis compares baseline and target states to identify missing, changed, or removed elements and the actions needed to close the gaps. These results feed the work packages and roadmap in later phases.