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Dental Council Ireland Exam study materials
Dental Council Ireland Exam study resources

Dental Council Ireland Exam practice questions

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Question 1General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

A patient attends with a firm, painless, fluctuant swelling at the buccal sulcus adjacent to a non-vital upper premolar. Which diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?

  1. Acute apical periodontitis
  2. Lateral periodontal abscess
  3. Radicular cyst Correct answer.
  4. Periapical granuloma

Explanation

A radicular cyst arises from epithelial remnants stimulated by pulpal necrosis and typically presents as a slow-growing, painless, fluctuant swelling of the buccal sulcus associated with a non-vital tooth. The lesion is often detected incidentally and may displace adjacent roots. Pulpal necrosis is the essential prerequisite, so vitality testing is central to the diagnosis.

Question 2General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which local anaesthetic agent is contraindicated in a patient with a documented genuine allergy to ester-type anaesthetics?

  1. Lidocaine
  2. Prilocaine
  3. Benzocaine Correct answer.
  4. Articaine

Explanation

Benzocaine is an ester-type local anaesthetic, and patients with a documented ester allergy must avoid all ester agents. Amide agents such as lidocaine, articaine and prilocaine are metabolised differently and are generally safe in ester-allergic patients. Cross-reactivity between esters and amides is not expected because the two groups have distinct structures.

Question 3General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which tooth surface is most commonly affected by early enamel caries in a permanent first molar shortly after eruption?

  1. Occlusal pit and fissure Correct answer.
  2. Smooth buccal surface
  3. Proximal contact area
  4. Cervical lingual surface

Explanation

The occlusal pit and fissure system of newly erupted molars is the most caries-susceptible site because plaque stagnates in narrow fissures that are difficult to clean. Immature enamel with incomplete mineralisation further increases risk in the early post-eruptive period. Smooth and proximal surfaces become relatively more important later as approximal plaque accumulates.

Question 4General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

During a periodontal examination, a probe reading of 4 mm is recorded with the gingival margin 2 mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. What is the clinical attachment level at this site?

  1. 8 mm
  2. 6 mm Correct answer.
  3. 2 mm
  4. 4 mm

Explanation

Clinical attachment level equals the probing depth plus the distance from the cementoenamel junction to the gingival margin when the margin is apical to the CEJ. Here 4 mm plus 2 mm gives a clinical attachment level of 6 mm. This value reflects true historical attachment loss rather than reversible gingival enlargement.

Question 5General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which radiographic feature best distinguishes a dentigerous cyst from a radicular cyst?

  1. Presence of a sclerotic border
  2. Location in the anterior maxilla
  3. Association with a non-vital tooth
  4. Association with the crown of an unerupted tooth Correct answer.

Explanation

A dentigerous cyst characteristically encloses the crown of an unerupted tooth and attaches at the cementoenamel junction. A radicular cyst, by contrast, is always associated with a non-vital tooth and arises at the apex. Both lesions may show a well-defined sclerotic border, so that feature alone is not discriminating.

Question 6General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

A 10-year-old child presents with a permanent maxillary central incisor that has sustained a complicated crown fracture with pulp exposure. The tooth is immature with open apices. Which management best preserves continued root development?

  1. Application of a desensitising varnish only
  2. Full pulpotomy or partial pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide or MTA Correct answer.
  3. Extraction and prosthetic replacement
  4. Immediate root canal treatment to the apex

Explanation

In an immature permanent tooth with an open apex and recent pulp exposure, vital pulp therapy such as partial or full pulpotomy aims to preserve pulp vitality and allow continued root development. Materials such as mineral trioxide aggregate or calcium hydroxide support healing and dentine bridge formation. Extraction or immediate full canal treatment would arrest apexogenesis.

Question 7General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which antibiotic is recommended as first-line for a patient with a spreading odontogenic infection who requires systemic antibiotics alongside drainage, assuming no allergy?

  1. Amoxicillin Correct answer.
  2. Erythromycin
  3. Metronidazole alone
  4. Tetracycline

Explanation

Amoxicillin is widely recommended as first-line for odontogenic infections because it has appropriate spectrum activity against oral streptococci and anaerobes and good tissue penetration. Metronidazole is often used as an adjunct or in penicillin allergy with a suitable alternative. Antibiotics are always an adjunct to definitive drainage or removal of the source.

Question 8General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which clinical finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of temporomandibular joint disc displacement without reduction?

  1. Painless clicking on opening
  2. Bilateral crepitus on lateral excursion
  3. Limited mouth opening with deviation to the affected side Correct answer.
  4. Wide opening with reciprocal click

Explanation

Disc displacement without reduction typically presents with limited mouth opening because the displaced disc obstructs condylar translation. The mandible deviates towards the affected side on opening. Clicking is more characteristic of displacement with reduction, where the disc reduces during opening.

Question 9General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which property of a dental amalgam restoration is primarily improved by increasing the copper content?

  1. Setting expansion
  2. Colour match
  3. Marginal seal
  4. Compressive strength and reduced creep Correct answer.

Explanation

Higher copper content in high-copper amalgams reduces the gamma-2 phase, which improves compressive strength and reduces creep. It also enhances early strength development and marginal stability. Colour match is unrelated, as amalgam is inherently metallic and non-aesthetic.

Question 10General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

A patient with a history of infective endocarditis is scheduled for a dental extraction. According to current guidance, which regimen is recommended for prophylaxis when indicated?

  1. No prophylaxis is ever required
  2. Metronidazole 400 mg preoperatively
  3. Amoxicillin 2 g orally one hour before the procedure Correct answer.
  4. Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for seven days

Explanation

Current guidance recommends a single 2 g oral dose of amoxicillin one hour before the procedure for patients at highest risk of infective endocarditis undergoing invasive dental procedures. This applies to those with a history of endocarditis, prosthetic valves or certain congenital heart conditions. Prolonged courses or routine prophylaxis for all patients are not recommended.

Question 11General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which tooth is most frequently impacted in the permanent dentition?

  1. Maxillary canine
  2. Maxillary central incisor
  3. Mandibular third molar Correct answer.
  4. Mandibular second premolar

Explanation

The mandibular third molar is the most commonly impacted tooth in the permanent dentition, largely because of insufficient space in the retromolar region. Maxillary canines are the second most commonly impacted. Premolars and central incisors are impacted far less often.

Question 12General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which is the most appropriate initial management for a patient presenting with a dry socket three days after extraction?

  1. Prescription of a prolonged course of antibiotics alone
  2. Immediate surgical re-exploration under general anaesthesia
  3. Re-suturing the socket to close it completely
  4. Gentle irrigation and placement of a medicated dressing Correct answer.

Explanation

Alveolar osteitis is managed by gently irrigating the socket to remove debris and placing a medicated dressing such as a zinc oxide-eugenol or other obtundent dressing to relieve pain. Analgesics are used as required. Antibiotics are not routinely indicated unless there is evidence of spreading infection.

Question 13General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of fluoride in caries prevention?

  1. It eliminates cariogenic bacteria from the mouth
  2. It removes established enamel caries
  3. It promotes remineralisation and inhibits demineralisation Correct answer.
  4. It sterilises the oral cavity permanently

Explanation

Fluoride works primarily by promoting remineralisation of early lesions, inhibiting demineralisation and forming fluorapatite, which is more acid-resistant. It also has some antibacterial effect but does not sterilise the mouth or remove established caries. Its action is topical and continuous rather than a one-off sterilisation.

Question 14General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

A patient reports a sudden onset of severe, lancinating pain in the distribution of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve, lasting seconds and triggered by touching the face. Which diagnosis is most likely?

  1. Atypical odontalgia
  2. Trigeminal neuralgia Correct answer.
  3. Acute sinusitis
  4. Temporomandibular joint arthralgia

Explanation

Trigeminal neuralgia is characterised by brief, paroxysmal, lancinating pain in the distribution of one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch or chewing. The pain is typically severe but short-lived. Atypical odontalgia is a persistent, dull pain without a clear trigger.

Question 15General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which is the recommended management for a permanent tooth that has been avulsed and stored dry for 60 minutes?

  1. Discard the tooth and plan for prosthetic replacement
  2. Replant after extraoral root canal treatment and splinting Correct answer.
  3. Soak in water for 24 hours before replanting
  4. Replant immediately without any preparation

Explanation

For an avulsed permanent tooth with prolonged extraoral dry time, the periodontal ligament is unlikely to survive, so extraoral root canal treatment before replanting reduces the risk of inflammatory resorption. The tooth is then replanted and splinted. Immediate replantation without preparation is appropriate only when the tooth has been stored in a suitable medium and dry time is short.

Question 16General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which factor most strongly increases the risk of osteoradionecrosis following extraction in a patient who has received head and neck radiotherapy?

  1. Use of local anaesthetic without vasoconstrictor
  2. High radiation dose to the mandible Correct answer.
  3. Patient's age under 40 years
  4. Use of a rubber dam during the procedure

Explanation

Osteoradionecrosis risk is strongly related to the radiation dose delivered to the mandible, with higher doses causing greater vascular compromise. Other risk factors include the time since radiotherapy and the extent of surgery. Local anaesthetic choice, rubber dam use and younger age are not established major risk factors.

Question 17General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which is the most appropriate initial management for a patient with a suspected anaphylactic reaction to a local anaesthetic during a dental procedure?

  1. Give oral antihistamine and continue treatment
  2. Administer intramuscular adrenaline and call for emergency help Correct answer.
  3. Wait for symptoms to resolve spontaneously
  4. Place the patient supine and give a hot drink

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is a medical emergency requiring immediate intramuscular adrenaline, typically into the anterolateral thigh, along with calling for emergency assistance. The patient should be positioned appropriately and airway, breathing and circulation monitored. Antihistamines are adjuncts and are not the first-line treatment.

Question 18General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which radiographic appearance is characteristic of a calcifying odontogenic cyst?

  1. A multilocular radiolucency with a soap-bubble pattern
  2. A unilocular radiolucency with scattered radiopaque flecks Correct answer.
  3. A well-defined radiolucency at the apex of a non-vital tooth
  4. A generalised ground-glass appearance of the jaws

Explanation

A calcifying odontogenic cyst typically appears as a well-defined unilocular radiolucency that may contain scattered radiopaque flecks representing calcifications. It can occur in both jaws and may be associated with an unerupted tooth. The soap-bubble pattern and ground-glass appearance are characteristic of other lesions.

Question 19General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which is the principal advantage of a resin-bonded bridge over a conventional fixed bridge for replacing a single missing anterior tooth?

  1. It is always preferred in patients with parafunction
  2. It has greater long-term survival than any other option
  3. It requires less removal of sound tooth structure Correct answer.
  4. It eliminates the need for any tooth preparation

Explanation

A resin-bonded bridge conserves sound tooth structure because it relies on minimal or no preparation of the abutment teeth. This makes it attractive for replacing a single missing tooth, particularly in the anterior region. It does not eliminate preparation entirely and may be less suitable in patients with heavy parafunction.

Question 20General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

A patient with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents for a dental extraction. Which preoperative consideration is most important?

  1. Ensuring the appointment is scheduled when blood glucose is well controlled Correct answer.
  2. Routine antibiotic prophylaxis
  3. Postponing treatment until the patient is over 65 years old
  4. Withholding all food before the appointment

Explanation

In patients with diabetes, treatment should ideally be scheduled when glycaemic control is good to reduce the risk of impaired healing and infection. Morning appointments after medication and food are often preferred. Routine antibiotic prophylaxis is not indicated solely because of diabetes.

Question 21General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which statement about the pharmacokinetics of lidocaine with adrenaline is correct?

  1. Adrenaline increases systemic absorption of lidocaine
  2. Adrenaline has no effect on bleeding
  3. Adrenaline prolongs the duration and reduces systemic absorption Correct answer.
  4. Adrenaline shortens the duration of action

Explanation

Adrenaline is a vasoconstrictor that reduces local blood flow, slowing systemic absorption of lidocaine and prolonging its duration of action. This also reduces the risk of systemic toxicity and improves haemostasis. It does not increase absorption or shorten the effect.

Question 22General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which occlusal scheme is most appropriate for a complete denture opposing natural teeth in the mandible?

  1. Monoplane or non-anatomic teeth Correct answer.
  2. Zero overjet with edge-to-edge incisors
  3. Cross-bite arrangement in all quadrants
  4. Fully anatomic teeth with steep cusps

Explanation

When a complete denture opposes natural teeth, non-anatomic or monoplane posterior teeth are often preferred because they reduce lateral forces and accommodate the differing wear and movement between the prosthesis and natural dentition. This helps to minimise destabilising forces on the denture. Steep cusps increase lateral stress and are generally avoided in this situation.

Question 23General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's caries risk before planning preventive care?

  1. The patient's age alone
  2. A single bitewing radiograph alone
  3. A structured caries risk assessment combining diet, oral hygiene and past caries experience Correct answer.
  4. The number of restorations present at the first visit only

Explanation

Caries risk assessment should be structured and multifactorial, incorporating diet, oral hygiene, fluoride exposure, salivary factors and past caries experience. A single radiograph or age alone is insufficient. Repeated assessment over time allows preventive care to be tailored and monitored.

Question 24General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

During administration of an inferior alveolar nerve block, the patient suddenly reports a sharp electric shock sensation radiating to the tongue. What is the most likely cause?

  1. Intravascular injection into an artery
  2. Injection into the parotid gland
  3. Needle fracture within the pterygomandibular space
  4. Needle contact with the lingual nerve Correct answer.

Explanation

A sharp electric shock radiating to the tongue during an inferior alveolar block suggests the needle has contacted the lingual nerve, which lies close to the target area. Withdrawing slightly and repositioning usually resolves the situation. Intravascular injection and gland penetration produce different clinical pictures.

Question 25General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which is the recommended first-line treatment for a patient with a localised chronic periodontal pocket of 6 mm that bleeds on probing after initial therapy?

  1. Systemic antibiotics alone without instrumentation
  2. Application of a desensitising agent
  3. Immediate extraction of the tooth
  4. Subgingival instrumentation with review of oral hygiene Correct answer.

Explanation

A persistent 6 mm pocket that bleeds on probing after initial therapy usually requires further subgingival instrumentation with reinforcement of oral hygiene. Surgical access may be considered if non-surgical therapy fails. Antibiotics alone are not a substitute for mechanical debridement.

Question 26General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

A 62-year-old patient attends for a routine examination. Which clinical finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of oral lichen planus rather than oral lichenoid drug reaction?

  1. Generalised mucosal erythema with widespread desquamation beginning two weeks after starting a new antihypertensive
  2. Solitary ulcerated nodule on the lateral border of the tongue persisting for eight weeks
  3. Unilateral white plaque confined to the buccal mucosa adjacent to a large amalgam restoration
  4. Bilateral, symmetrical white striae on the buccal mucosae with a history of skin lesions on the flexor wrists Correct answer.

Explanation

Oral lichen planus classically presents with bilateral, roughly symmetrical reticular white striae (Wickham striae) on the buccal mucosae, and a proportion of patients have concurrent cutaneous lesions such as the violaceous, pruritic papules on flexor surfaces. Lichenoid drug reactions tend to be unilateral and temporally related to a new medication, while a persistent solitary ulcer demands biopsy to exclude malignancy.

Question 27General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

During root canal treatment of a maxillary first molar, a file fractures in the apical third of the mesiobuccal canal and cannot be retrieved. The canal is otherwise patent to the working length and the tooth is restorable with a good periodontal prognosis. Which management is most appropriate?

  1. Leave the canal unfilled and review radiographically in twelve months
  2. Attempt to bypass the fragment using a larger file with aggressive apical pressure
  3. Complete chemomechanical preparation and obturation to the level of the fragment, then monitor Correct answer.
  4. Extract the tooth immediately and plan an implant replacement

Explanation

A separated instrument that cannot be retrieved does not automatically render the tooth untreatable; if the canal can be cleaned and filled to the fragment and the tooth is restorable, completion of treatment with radiographic monitoring is the accepted conservative approach. Aggressive attempts to remove or bypass the fragment risk perforation or further transportation of the canal.

Question 28General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

Which tooth is most commonly affected by dens invaginatus, and what clinical consequence should be anticipated?

  1. Mandibular first molar; pulpal necrosis from coronal caries
  2. Maxillary central incisor; external root resorption in the apical third
  3. Mandibular premolar; delayed eruption and impaction
  4. Maxillary lateral incisor; early pulpal involvement despite minimal coronal caries Correct answer.

Explanation

Dens invaginatus most frequently affects the maxillary lateral incisor, particularly the permanent dentition, because the invagination creates a channel through which bacteria reach the pulp. Pulpal necrosis can therefore occur early, even when the coronal surface appears intact, so these teeth warrant careful radiographic and clinical assessment.

Question 29General dentistry clinical knowledge and skills

A 45-year-old patient with a full upper denture and Kennedy Class I lower partially dentate arch reports that the upper denture dislodges during speech and mastication. Examination shows an adequate post-dam but a highly resorbed maxillary ridge. Which factor most directly limits retention of the upper denture in this situation?

  1. Increased vertical dimension of occlusion recorded at the try-in stage
  2. Use of a heat-cured rather than a light-cured acrylic base
  3. Presence of a balanced occlusal scheme on the denture teeth
  4. Reduced area of denture-bearing surface available for adhesion and cohesion Correct answer.

Explanation

Retention of a complete maxillary denture depends largely on the area and adaptation of the denture base to the denture-bearing tissues, which supports adhesion, cohesion and atmospheric pressure effects. Severe ridge resorption reduces this surface area and the peripheral seal, so the prosthesis is more easily displaced during function.

Question 30Dental ethics and professional conduct

Under the Dental Council of Ireland's ethical guidance, what is the primary duty a dentist owes to a patient when obtaining consent for treatment?

  1. To ensure the patient understands the proposed treatment, alternatives and material risks Correct answer.
  2. To secure a signature on a consent form before any procedure begins
  3. To obtain written consent only for treatments costing over a set threshold
  4. To delegate the explanation to a dental nurse to save clinical time

Explanation

Valid consent is a process of communication, not merely a signature. The dentist must ensure the patient understands the proposed treatment, reasonable alternatives and material risks before agreeing, and the discussion should be documented. Consent must be obtained by someone able to explain the treatment properly.

Question 31Dental ethics and professional conduct

A patient discloses to their dentist that they intend to seriously harm a named individual. How should the dentist respond under Irish professional obligations?

  1. Maintain absolute confidentiality in all circumstances without exception
  2. Disclose the information to the named individual directly and immediately
  3. Weigh the public interest in preventing serious harm against the duty of confidentiality and disclose only as necessary Correct answer.
  4. Report the disclosure to the Dental Council and take no further action

Explanation

Confidentiality is a strong duty but not absolute. Where there is a real risk of serious harm, the dentist may disclose information in the public interest, disclosing only what is necessary to protect the individual. Seeking advice where possible and documenting the reasoning is good practice.

Question 32Dental ethics and professional conduct

Which of the following best describes the dentist's obligation regarding personal and professional boundaries with patients?

  1. Boundaries are optional once a patient has attended the practice for many years
  2. Dentists must maintain professional boundaries and avoid exploiting the trust inherent in the clinical relationship Correct answer.
  3. Boundaries only apply to physical contact during clinical procedures
  4. Personal relationships with patients are acceptable provided no treatment is billed

Explanation

The dentist-patient relationship is built on trust, and dentists must not exploit that trust for personal, financial or sexual gain. Professional boundaries apply to all interactions, not just physical contact during treatment. Entering a personal or sexual relationship with a current patient is generally inappropriate.

Question 33Dental ethics and professional conduct

A dentist is asked to provide a report for a patient's insurance claim. What is the most appropriate approach?

  1. Provide an accurate, honest report and obtain the patient's consent to disclose their information Correct answer.
  2. Decline to provide any report because it breaches confidentiality
  3. Exaggerate the clinical findings to help the patient obtain a higher settlement
  4. Provide only the information requested by the insurer without patient involvement

Explanation

Reports must be honest and accurate, and disclosure of patient information requires consent unless another legal basis applies. The dentist should confirm what the patient has agreed to disclose. Falsifying findings is fraudulent and breaches professional integrity.

Question 34Dental ethics and professional conduct

According to Irish dental ethics, which statement about the dentist's duty to keep clinical records is correct?

  1. Records may be destroyed immediately once the patient's treatment is complete
  2. Records should be contemporaneous, accurate and retained in line with legal and professional requirements Correct answer.
  3. Records should only be kept for patients who pay privately
  4. Records belong to the patient and must be handed over on request without any copy being kept

Explanation

Clinical records must be made promptly, be accurate and legible, and be retained for the period required by law and professional guidance. Records are the responsibility of the practice, and patients have rights of access under data protection law.

Question 35Dental ethics and professional conduct

A dentist suspects that a child patient is being physically abused. What is the correct professional response?

  1. Discuss the concern with the child's school before informing anyone else
  2. Follow child protection procedures, report concerns to the appropriate authorities and document the decision Correct answer.
  3. Investigate the family circumstances personally before taking any action
  4. Take no action because patient confidentiality overrides all other concerns

Explanation

Dentists have a duty to act on reasonable concerns about child abuse by following established child protection procedures and reporting to the relevant authorities. The child's welfare is paramount, and confidentiality does not prevent appropriate disclosure. The concern and actions taken should be documented.

Question 36Dental ethics and professional conduct

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the role of the Dental Council of Ireland in relation to professional conduct?

  1. It determines the fees that dentists may charge patients
  2. It sets standards of conduct and can investigate complaints about registrants Correct answer.
  3. It acts as an insurer for dental practices
  4. It provides legal representation to dentists facing complaints

Explanation

The Dental Council is the regulator: it maintains the register, sets standards of professional conduct and competence, and operates complaint and fitness-to-practise processes. It does not set fees, provide legal representation or act as an insurer.

Question 37Dental ethics and professional conduct

A dentist wishes to advertise a new cosmetic treatment. Which approach is consistent with professional standards?

  1. Using before-and-after images without patient consent
  2. Making claims that are truthful, not misleading and do not exploit patients' vulnerabilities Correct answer.
  3. Offering inducements that encourage patients to undergo unnecessary treatment
  4. Advertising that guarantees a superior result compared with other practices

Explanation

Advertising must be truthful and must not be misleading or exploit patients' anxieties. Claims of superiority or guarantees of results are inappropriate, and identifiable images require consent. Dentists must not encourage unnecessary treatment.

Question 38Dental ethics and professional conduct

When a dentist is uncertain about the correct ethical course of action in a difficult case, which step is most consistent with professional guidance?

  1. Follow the preference of the most senior staff member without discussion
  2. Delay indefinitely until the patient raises the issue again
  3. Proceed with the option that benefits the practice financially
  4. Seek advice from an appropriate source such as a colleague, indemnifier or the regulator, and document the reasoning Correct answer.

Explanation

When facing ethical uncertainty, dentists should seek advice from appropriate sources, including experienced colleagues, their indemnity organisation or the regulator. The decision and its rationale should be documented to demonstrate a considered approach.

Question 39Dental ethics and professional conduct

A patient lacks capacity to consent to a necessary dental extraction. What is the most appropriate course of action?

  1. Treat the patient under the best interests principle, considering any advance wishes and involving those close to the patient Correct answer.
  2. Obtain consent from any adult who accompanies the patient
  3. Proceed immediately without any assessment because capacity is presumed
  4. Refuse treatment until the patient regains capacity regardless of the consequences

Explanation

Where a patient lacks capacity, treatment should be provided in their best interests, taking account of any advance wishes and the views of people close to them where appropriate. Capacity must be properly assessed, and restraint or coercion is only permissible in limited circumstances.

Question 40Dental ethics and professional conduct

Which statement best reflects the dentist's duty regarding continuing professional development (CPD)?

  1. CPD only needs to be completed if the dentist changes specialty
  2. CPD is optional for dentists who have been registered for many years
  3. CPD records need only be kept for private patients
  4. Dentists must maintain and develop their competence throughout their careers, meeting CPD requirements Correct answer.

Explanation

Registered dentists are expected to maintain and develop their professional competence throughout their working lives. The Dental Council sets CPD requirements, and records should be kept to demonstrate compliance. This obligation applies regardless of seniority.

Question 41Dental ethics and professional conduct

A dentist is concerned that a colleague appears to be practising while impaired by alcohol. What is the most appropriate first step?

  1. Continue referring patients to the colleague until a formal complaint is made
  2. Ignore the concern to avoid damaging the colleague's career
  3. Raise the concern directly with the colleague and, if the risk persists, escalate through appropriate channels to protect patients Correct answer.
  4. Report the colleague anonymously to the media

Explanation

Patient safety takes priority, and dentists have a duty to act on concerns about a colleague's fitness to practise. The usual approach is to raise the concern directly where appropriate and, if the risk continues, escalate to management or the regulator. Protecting patients is the overriding consideration.

Question 42Dental ethics and professional conduct

A patient asks to see their dental records. What is the correct response under data protection principles?

  1. Charge an unlimited fee to discourage the request
  2. Provide only a verbal summary and refuse to give copies
  3. Refuse access because clinical records are confidential to the dentist
  4. Provide access in accordance with data protection law, subject to any lawful exemptions Correct answer.

Explanation

Patients have a right of access to their personal data, including dental records, under data protection law. The practice should respond within the statutory timeframe and may only withhold information where a lawful exemption applies. Any fee must be reasonable and lawful.

Question 43Dental ethics and professional conduct

Which of the following best describes the principle of acting in the patient's best interests when recommending treatment?

  1. Recommending treatment based solely on what the patient has read online
  2. Recommending the quickest option regardless of long-term outcomes
  3. Recommending the most expensive treatment available
  4. Recommending treatment based on the patient's clinical needs, informed by evidence, and free from inappropriate financial influence Correct answer.

Explanation

Recommendations should be clinically justified, evidence-informed and tailored to the patient's needs. Financial incentives or personal gain must not inappropriately influence clinical advice. Patients should be supported to make informed choices among reasonable options.

Question 44Dental ethics and professional conduct

A dentist is asked to treat a friend and feels the personal relationship may affect judgement. What is the most appropriate course of action?

  1. Refuse all treatment to friends in every circumstance without explanation
  2. Treat the friend but avoid documenting the personal relationship
  3. Ask another patient to observe the treatment
  4. Recognise the potential conflict, consider whether it is appropriate to treat, and if proceeding, maintain objectivity and clear records Correct answer.

Explanation

Treating people close to you can impair objectivity, so the dentist should consider whether it is appropriate to proceed. If treatment goes ahead, the dentist must maintain professional objectivity, obtain proper consent and keep clear records. Patients should be able to choose another practitioner.

Question 45Dental ethics and professional conduct

What does the term 'fitness to practise' most accurately refer to in the Irish regulatory context?

  1. The ability of a dentist to complete treatment within a set time
  2. A practice's compliance with building regulations
  3. A dentist's physical fitness level as measured by a medical examination
  4. A registrant's suitability to remain on the register, covering health, conduct and competence Correct answer.

Explanation

Fitness to practise concerns whether a registrant is suitable to remain registered, taking account of conduct, competence and health. It is assessed through the regulator's processes when concerns arise. It is broader than physical fitness or speed of treatment.

Question 46Dental ethics and professional conduct

A patient refuses a recommended treatment after a full discussion. How should the dentist proceed?

  1. Proceed with the treatment because it is clinically indicated
  2. Refuse to provide any further care to the patient
  3. Respect the informed refusal, document the discussion and continue to offer appropriate care Correct answer.
  4. Persuade the patient by withholding information about alternatives

Explanation

A competent patient has the right to refuse treatment even when the dentist considers it clinically necessary. The dentist should respect the decision, document the discussion and continue to offer appropriate care and monitoring. Coercion or withholding information is unethical.

Question 47Dental ethics and professional conduct

Which statement about the use of social media by dentists is most consistent with professional standards?

  1. Dentists may post identifiable patient images without consent if the patient's face is partly covered
  2. Dentists must avoid posting information that could identify patients without consent and must maintain professional standards online Correct answer.
  3. Dentists may comment on patients' cases publicly to seek advice
  4. Private social media accounts are entirely outside professional obligations

Explanation

Professional standards apply online as they do in person. Dentists must not disclose identifiable patient information without consent, and even partial anonymisation may not be sufficient. Public comments about patients' cases risk breaching confidentiality.

Question 48Dental ethics and professional conduct

A dentist discovers that a patient has been overcharged in error by the practice. What is the appropriate professional response?

  1. Wait for the patient to notice and raise the issue
  2. Keep the overpayment because the patient agreed to the quoted fee
  3. Apply the overpayment to future treatment without telling the patient
  4. Inform the patient, correct the error and refund the amount promptly Correct answer.

Explanation

Dentists must act honestly and transparently in financial dealings with patients. An error resulting in overcharging should be disclosed and corrected promptly, with a refund where appropriate. Concealing the error breaches professional integrity.

Question 49Dental ethics and professional conduct

Which of the following best describes the ethical approach to obtaining consent from a patient with a learning disability who may be able to make the decision with support?

  1. Delay all treatment indefinitely regardless of the patient's needs
  2. Assume the patient cannot consent and rely entirely on a relative
  3. Obtain a signature from a relative as the sole basis for treatment
  4. Provide support to maximise the patient's ability to decide, and assess capacity in relation to the specific decision Correct answer.

Explanation

Capacity is decision-specific and should not be assumed absent. Dentists should provide appropriate support to help the patient decide and assess capacity for the particular treatment. If the patient lacks capacity for that decision, the best interests framework applies.

Question 50Dental ethics and professional conduct

What is the primary purpose of the Dental Council's code of conduct for registrants?

  1. To set out the standards of conduct and behaviour expected of registrants in the interests of patient safety and public confidence Correct answer.
  2. To replace the need for clinical guidelines
  3. To establish the fee schedule for dental treatments
  4. To provide marketing guidance for dental practices

Explanation

The code of conduct articulates the ethical and professional standards expected of registrants, supporting patient safety and public confidence in the profession. It complements, rather than replaces, clinical guidelines and does not set fees.