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Question 1Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

What is the main purpose of a pre-placement health assessment?

  1. To provide a general health check unrelated to the proposed employment
  2. To diagnose any chronic medical condition present at the time of recruitment
  3. To judge fitness for the specific job and identify necessary adjustments Correct answer.
  4. To decide whether the employer should offer permanent employment on medical grounds

Explanation

Pre-placement assessment is job-focused: it considers whether the person can do the task safely and what adjustments may be needed. It is not a general diagnostic screen or a substitute for employment-law decision-making.

Question 2Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

How is health surveillance best described in occupational health practice?

  1. A substitute for the employer's duty to control workplace hazards
  2. Early detection of work-related ill health in exposed workers Correct answer.
  3. A treatment service for employees with non-occupational illness
  4. A one-off medical examination before the worker starts employment

Explanation

Health surveillance is a systematic process for detecting early signs of work-related ill health where a residual risk remains after controls. It supports prevention but does not replace hazard control.

Question 3Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which of the following is a reportable occupational disease under RIDDOR?

  1. Low back pain after lifting at home
  2. Occupational asthma confirmed by a physician Correct answer.
  3. Migraine affecting a computer programmer
  4. Seasonal influenza affecting an office worker

Explanation

RIDDOR requires reporting of specified occupational diseases, including occupational asthma confirmed by a doctor, when the case meets the reporting criteria. Ordinary infections and non-occupational musculoskeletal pain are not reportable in this way.

Question 4Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which audiometric pattern is most characteristic of noise-induced hearing loss?

  1. A symmetrical loss centred on 8 kHz
  2. A conductive hearing loss at 250 Hz
  3. A sensorineural notch at 3–6 kHz Correct answer.
  4. A rising audiogram towards high frequencies

Explanation

Noise-induced hearing loss typically produces a sensorineural notch centred around 3–6 kHz, often with recovery at 8 kHz. Conductive or low-frequency patterns suggest other causes.

Question 5Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which symptom is most characteristic of early hand-arm vibration syndrome?

  1. Swelling of the wrist after keyboard use
  2. A persistent tremor of the whole arm
  3. Pain in the shoulder on overhead work
  4. Tingling and numbness in the fingers Correct answer.

Explanation

Early HAVS commonly causes intermittent tingling and numbness in the fingers, later followed by vascular blanching attacks. Shoulder pain and wrist swelling suggest other musculoskeletal problems.

Question 6Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

After a percutaneous needlestick injury from a contaminated needle, what should the worker do first?

  1. Apply a tight tourniquet above the injury
  2. Scrub the wound vigorously with bleach
  3. Wait for the source patient's blood results before washing
  4. Wash with soap and water and encourage bleeding Correct answer.

Explanation

Immediate first aid is to wash the wound with soap and water and encourage bleeding, then report the incident promptly for risk assessment and post-exposure management. Caustic agents and tourniquets are not appropriate.

Question 7Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which control is most appropriate for preventing musculoskeletal problems in display screen equipment users?

  1. Routine annual lumbar spine X-rays for all users
  2. Workstation adjustment and regular breaks Correct answer.
  3. A mandatory gym programme for all staff members
  4. Providing wrist splints for every user

Explanation

DSE risks are managed mainly through ergonomic assessment, workstation adjustment and breaks. Routine imaging and blanket use of splints are not indicated.

Question 8Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

When an employee informs her employer that she is pregnant, what should the employer do first?

  1. Suspend her on full pay until maternity leave
  2. Require her to obtain a fitness certificate from her GP before every shift
  3. Move her to night work to reduce daytime exposure
  4. Review her risk assessment and consider workplace adjustments Correct answer.

Explanation

The employer should review the risk assessment for the pregnant worker and make adjustments where needed. Automatic suspension or routine shift changes are not appropriate first steps.

Question 9Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A worker has new wheeze and nasal symptoms that improve on days away from work. Which investigation most usefully confirms work-related asthma?

  1. A chest radiograph taken on the first day of symptoms
  2. A single spirometry test at the pre-employment examination
  3. Serial peak expiratory flow measurements during work and rest periods Correct answer.
  4. Total serum IgE measured once while the worker is asymptomatic

Explanation

Serial peak expiratory flow recordings across periods at work and away from work can demonstrate a work-related pattern. A single test or chest radiograph does not establish work-relatedness.

Question 10Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which biological monitoring test is used in routine surveillance of lead-exposed workers?

  1. Blood lead concentration Correct answer.
  2. Serum aluminium concentration
  3. Hair mercury concentration
  4. Urinary cadmium concentration

Explanation

Blood lead is the standard biological monitoring measure for lead exposure and is used to compare against occupational exposure limits. Urinary cadmium, aluminium and hair mercury assess different exposures.

Question 11Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which malignancy is strongly associated with asbestos exposure and characteristically has a long latency?

  1. Renal cell carcinoma
  2. Mesothelioma Correct answer.
  3. Thyroid papillary carcinoma
  4. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

Explanation

Mesothelioma is strongly linked to asbestos exposure and may present decades after exposure. The other tumours listed are not classically asbestos-related in this way.

Question 12Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A stonemason exposed to respirable crystalline silica is at increased risk of which condition?

  1. Occupational asthma from latex
  2. Byssinosis
  3. Silicosis with an increased risk of tuberculosis Correct answer.
  4. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis from metalworking fluid

Explanation

Respirable crystalline silica causes silicosis and increases susceptibility to tuberculosis. Byssinosis is linked to cotton dust, and metalworking fluid or latex cause different respiratory problems.

Question 13Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which measure best reduces fatigue risk in a 24-hour control room?

  1. Allowing workers to swap shifts without any restriction
  2. Forward-rotating shifts with adequate rest Correct answer.
  3. Longer shifts without scheduled breaks
  4. Rapid backward rotation every two days

Explanation

Forward-rotating shifts with adequate rest between duties align better with circadian adaptation and reduce fatigue. Rapid backward rotation, long shifts without breaks and unmanaged swapping increase fatigue risk.

Question 14Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

According to ergonomic principles, what is the first step in managing manual handling risks?

  1. Avoid manual handling where reasonably practicable Correct answer.
  2. Train workers to lift with a straight back
  3. Set a maximum weight that all workers must lift
  4. Issue back belts to all workers

Explanation

The hierarchy of control starts with avoiding manual handling where reasonably practicable, then using mechanical aids and redesign before relying on training. A single maximum weight is not a reliable control for all workers.

Question 15Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which approach is consistent with the HSE management standards for work-related stress?

  1. Assessing and managing psychosocial risk areas in the workplace Correct answer.
  2. Providing resilience training as the only control
  3. Requiring employees to disclose all personal problems to managers
  4. Referring all stressed employees to occupational health for counselling

Explanation

The HSE standards focus on assessing and managing workplace psychosocial risks such as demands, control, support, relationships, role and change. Individual counselling alone does not address organizational causes.

Question 16Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A UK employee with a musculoskeletal injury is likely to be off work for several weeks. What is the main purpose of a fit note?

  1. To replace the employer's risk assessment
  2. To certify that the employee is permanently unfit for all work
  3. To transfer liability for absence to the GP
  4. To record fitness and advice on adjustments Correct answer.

Explanation

A fit note records whether the person is fit for work and, if not, may advise on adjustments that could help them return. It does not replace the employer's risk assessment or transfer liability.

Question 17Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

For DVLA Group 2 licensing, which visual standard applies?

  1. 6/12 in each eye without correction
  2. No visual field testing if acuity is normal
  3. 6/7.5 in the better eye and 6/60 in the worse eye Correct answer.
  4. A visual field of at least 90 degrees in total

Explanation

Group 2 standards require a minimum acuity of 6/7.5 in the better eye and 6/60 in the worse eye, with an adequate visual field. Field testing is required, and correction may be worn.

Question 18Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A food handler has diarrhoea and vomiting. When may they normally return to handling open food?

  1. After taking an antidiarrhoeal agent
  2. After being symptom-free for 48 hours Correct answer.
  3. Immediately after a single negative stool sample
  4. As soon as they feel well, even if symptoms persist

Explanation

Food handlers with acute diarrhoea and vomiting should normally stay away from open food until 48 hours after symptoms have settled. Antidiarrhoeal medication or a single stool sample does not shorten this exclusion.

Question 19Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A healthcare worker is a hepatitis B surface antigen carrier. What is the most appropriate occupational health action?

  1. No action, as hepatitis B is not transmitted in healthcare
  2. Require antiviral treatment before returning to work
  3. Assess duties and advise on restrictions if indicated Correct answer.
  4. Redeploy them permanently away from all patient contact

Explanation

Management depends on the worker's infectivity and whether duties involve exposure-prone procedures. Occupational health should assess duties and advise on any necessary restrictions rather than impose blanket redeployment.

Question 20Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

For a classified radiation worker, what is the annual whole-body dose limit under UK ionising radiation regulations?

  1. 5 mSv
  2. 20 mSv Correct answer.
  3. 50 mSv
  4. 1 mSv

Explanation

The annual whole-body dose limit for classified radiation workers is 20 mSv. The 1 mSv figure applies to members of the public, and higher figures are not the classified-worker limit.

Question 21Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which spirometry finding most strongly suggests a restrictive pattern in an occupational lung disease assessment?

  1. Increased FEV1 after bronchodilator
  2. Reduced FEV1 with a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio
  3. Reduced FVC with a normal or high FEV1/FVC ratio Correct answer.
  4. Normal FVC with a reduced peak flow

Explanation

A restrictive pattern is suggested by reduced forced vital capacity with a preserved or raised FEV1/FVC ratio. Obstructive disease typically lowers the ratio, and bronchodilator response suggests reversible airflow obstruction.

Question 22Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

In a worker with suspected occupational contact dermatitis, what is the most appropriate initial investigation?

  1. Total IgE and eosinophil count
  2. Skin biopsy from the affected area
  3. Serum IgE to common food allergens
  4. Patch testing to relevant allergens Correct answer.

Explanation

Patch testing is the key investigation for allergic contact dermatitis and should use allergens relevant to the workplace. Biopsy is rarely needed initially, and IgE tests do not diagnose contact allergy.

Question 23Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A 55-year-old HGV driver has obstructive sleep apnoea and is starting CPAP. What advice should occupational health give about fitness to drive?

  1. He must stop driving permanently and surrender his licence
  2. Not drive until control is confirmed and DVLA guidance is met Correct answer.
  3. He can drive if he uses caffeine before journeys
  4. He may drive immediately if he feels less sleepy

Explanation

A driver with obstructive sleep apnoea and excessive sleepiness must not drive until treatment control is confirmed and DVLA guidance is satisfied. Caffeine or subjective improvement alone is insufficient.

Question 24Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which statement about biological monitoring of toluene exposure is correct?

  1. Urinary hippuric acid is unaffected by dietary intake
  2. Urinary S-benzylmercapturic acid reflects recent exposure Correct answer.
  3. Blood toluene concentration reflects cumulative exposure over months
  4. Hair toluene is the standard test for regulatory compliance

Explanation

Urinary S-benzylmercapturic acid is a relatively specific metabolite used to assess recent toluene exposure. Hippuric acid is influenced by diet, and blood toluene reflects recent rather than cumulative exposure.

Question 25Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A worker with insulin-treated type 1 diabetes applies for a Group 2 (HGV) licence. What is the correct DVLA approach?

  1. The worker must switch to a non-insulin drug before applying
  2. A licence can be issued without review if HbA1c is below 75 mmol/mol
  3. Insulin-treated diabetes is an absolute bar to Group 2 licensing
  4. Individual assessment of hypoglycaemia awareness and control Correct answer.

Explanation

Group 2 licensing with insulin-treated diabetes requires individual assessment, including hypoglycaemia awareness, control and risk of severe hypoglycaemia. It is not an absolute bar, and a single HbA1c value is not sufficient for licensing.

Question 26Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Under UK Working Time Regulations, what health assessment must an employer offer to a worker who regularly works nights?

  1. A single audiogram at the point of recruitment
  2. Annual lung function testing by a trained technician
  3. No assessment unless the worker requests it in writing
  4. A free health assessment before starting and periodically Correct answer.

Explanation

The Working Time Regulations require employers to offer night workers a free health assessment before they start night work and at regular intervals thereafter. Its purpose is to identify health problems that may be caused by or worsened by night work.

Question 27Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which audiometric pattern is most characteristic of chronic occupational noise-induced hearing loss?

  1. A bilateral rising sensorineural loss
  2. A unilateral mixed loss at 8 kHz only
  3. A unilateral low-frequency conductive loss
  4. Bilateral sensorineural notch at 3–6 kHz Correct answer.

Explanation

Chronic noise exposure damages cochlear hair cells and typically produces a bilateral, roughly symmetrical sensorineural dip centred at 3–6 kHz. Conductive and unilateral patterns suggest other causes.

Question 28Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

What is the main purpose of health surveillance for workers exposed to a substance hazardous to health under COSHH?

  1. To detect early signs of work-related ill health Correct answer.
  2. To confirm that engineering controls are working
  3. To provide evidence for the employer's insurance policy
  4. To measure the airborne concentration of the substance

Explanation

COSHH health surveillance is intended to detect early adverse health effects related to exposure and to provide feedback on the effectiveness of controls. Measuring airborne concentration is exposure monitoring, not health surveillance.

Question 29Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which symptom is most typical of the early sensorineural component of hand-arm vibration syndrome?

  1. Wasting of the thenar eminence
  2. White blanching of the fingertips in the cold
  3. Dupuytren's contracture of the palm
  4. Intermittent tingling and numbness in the fingers Correct answer.

Explanation

The sensorineural component of HAVS commonly begins with intermittent tingling and numbness in the fingers. Blanching indicates the vascular component, while wasting is a late finding.

Question 30Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A worker with epilepsy wants to enter confined spaces using self-contained breathing apparatus. What is the most appropriate occupational health advice?

  1. Only a doctor's note from the GP is required before entry
  2. Confined space work is acceptable if seizures are fully controlled for one month
  3. Individual assessment is needed because seizures may impair escape Correct answer.
  4. The worker may enter if a colleague stays at the entrance

Explanation

Confined space work with breathing apparatus requires the ability to escape unaided if conditions deteriorate. A seizure disorder may therefore be incompatible with the role, but the decision requires individual risk assessment.

Question 31Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A healthcare worker develops urticaria and wheeze soon after wearing powdered latex gloves. What is the most appropriate initial occupational health action?

  1. Remove from latex exposure and arrange allergy assessment Correct answer.
  2. Reassure the worker that symptoms will settle with antihistamines
  3. Provide alcohol hand rub as a substitute for glove use
  4. Advise continued use of powdered gloves with a cotton liner

Explanation

Urticaria and wheeze shortly after latex exposure suggest a type I immediate hypersensitivity reaction. The worker should be removed from latex exposure and assessed, with latex-free equipment provided.

Question 32Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

In a worker with non-specific low back pain, which factor is a yellow flag for delayed return to work?

  1. Pain radiating below the knee
  2. A positive straight-leg raise test
  3. Age over 50 years
  4. Fear that activity causes harm Correct answer.

Explanation

Yellow flags are psychosocial factors, such as fear-avoidance beliefs, that predict poorer recovery and delayed return to work. Radiating pain and a positive straight-leg raise are clinical findings rather than yellow flags.

Question 33Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Several foundry workers develop headache, dizziness and nausea during a shift; symptoms improve at weekends. Which occupational exposure is most likely?

  1. Respirable crystalline silica dust
  2. Hydrogen sulphide at a low airborne concentration
  3. Welding fume particulates
  4. Carbon monoxide from a faulty heater Correct answer.

Explanation

Carbon monoxide causes headache, dizziness and nausea, and symptoms often improve when away from the exposure. A cluster of affected workers suggests a shared source such as combustion equipment.

Question 34Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A healthcare worker has no history of chickenpox and is unsure whether they are immune. What is the appropriate pre-placement action?

  1. Perform a tuberculin skin test before deciding
  2. Assume immunity because the worker was born before 1980
  3. Exclude the worker from all patient contact indefinitely
  4. Check varicella-zoster antibody status and vaccinate if non-immune Correct answer.

Explanation

Non-immune healthcare workers are at risk of varicella-zoster infection and can transmit it to vulnerable patients. Antibody testing should be performed, and non-immune workers should be offered vaccination.

Question 35Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A worker with well-controlled epilepsy works at heights. What is the most appropriate approach?

  1. Allow height work only if the worker is seizure-free for two weeks
  2. Automatically declare the worker unfit for all height work
  3. Carry out an individual risk assessment considering seizure type and control Correct answer.
  4. Rely on the worker to decide whether height work is safe

Explanation

Fitness for height work depends on seizure type, frequency, control, and the consequences of a fall. A blanket exclusion is inappropriate, but the risk must be assessed individually with appropriate safeguards.

Question 36Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

In the ILO classification of radiographs for pneumoconiosis, what is recorded by the profusion category?

  1. Profusion of small opacities versus standard films Correct answer.
  2. The degree of lung function impairment
  3. The largest pleural plaque dimension
  4. The number of asbestos bodies in sputum

Explanation

The ILO profusion category compares the concentration of small lung opacities with standard reference radiographs. It is a radiological classification and does not measure lung function or sputum content.

Question 37Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

An employee with moderate depression has been off work for four weeks. What is the most appropriate occupational health approach?

  1. Recommend permanent redeployment to a less demanding role
  2. Ask the GP to certify the employee as permanently unfit for work
  3. Wait until the employee has fully recovered before making any contact
  4. Maintain early contact and plan a phased return with adjustments Correct answer.

Explanation

Early supportive contact and a phased return with workplace adjustments improve return-to-work outcomes in common mental health conditions. Permanent decisions should not be made early in the absence of a clear prognosis.

Question 38Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A healthcare worker has a positive interferon-gamma release assay but no symptoms and a normal chest radiograph. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Treat as active tuberculosis and notify public health immediately
  2. Exclude the worker from work until the test becomes negative
  3. Repeat the test annually and take no other action
  4. Refer for assessment and treatment of latent tuberculosis infection Correct answer.

Explanation

A positive IGRA with no symptoms and a normal chest radiograph suggests latent tuberculosis infection rather than active disease. The worker should be referred for assessment and consideration of latent TB treatment.

Question 39Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

Which biological monitoring parameter is most useful for detecting chronic cadmium exposure and its renal tubular effect?

  1. Urinary hippuric acid
  2. Urinary beta-2-microglobulin Correct answer.
  3. Blood lead concentration
  4. Serum cholinesterase activity

Explanation

Cadmium accumulates in the renal cortex and can cause tubular damage, which raises urinary beta-2-microglobulin. Blood lead, urinary hippuric acid and serum cholinesterase relate to other occupational exposures.

Question 40Occupational medicine clinical practice and health assessment

A worker grinding hard-metal tools develops interstitial lung disease. Which exposure is most strongly implicated?

  1. Aluminium welding fume
  2. Iron oxide fume
  3. Manganese contained in welding rod coatings
  4. Cobalt in hard-metal dust Correct answer.

Explanation

Hard-metal lung disease, a form of giant cell interstitial pneumonia, is associated with exposure to cobalt-containing hard-metal dust. Iron, aluminium and manganese have different pulmonary associations.

Question 41Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

Which occupational agent is a recognised cause of occupational asthma through IgE-mediated sensitisation?

  1. Carbon monoxide
  2. Isocyanates Correct answer.
  3. Lead fume
  4. Crystalline silica

Explanation

Isocyanates such as TDI and MDI are low-molecular-weight agents that can cause occupational asthma, often with an IgE-associated mechanism. Carbon monoxide and lead fume are not sensitisers, and crystalline silica causes silicosis rather than asthma.

Question 42Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

Mesothelioma typically develops how long after first asbestos exposure?

  1. 20 to 40 years Correct answer.
  2. 10 to 15 years
  3. 50 to 60 years
  4. 5 to 10 years

Explanation

Mesothelioma has a long latency, usually 20-40 years and often over 30 years from first exposure. Latencies under 10 years are unusual and should prompt review of the diagnosis or exposure history.

Question 43Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

Which infection is strongly associated with silicosis?

  1. Legionnaires' disease
  2. Tuberculosis Correct answer.
  3. Tetanus
  4. Hepatitis B

Explanation

Silica impairs alveolar macrophage function, increasing susceptibility to Mycobacterium tuberculosis; silicosis is a recognised risk factor for both active TB and atypical mycobacterial infection. Hepatitis B, tetanus and Legionnaires' disease are not classically linked to silicosis.

Question 44Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

A worker exposed to loud noise for one shift has a temporary hearing threshold shift. What does this indicate?

  1. The worker has age-related hearing loss
  2. It may recover after noise ceases Correct answer.
  3. Permanent cochlear damage has already occurred
  4. The noise exposure was above 85 dB(A)

Explanation

A temporary threshold shift is a reversible elevation in hearing threshold after noise exposure, often recovering over hours to days. Repeated episodes without adequate recovery can progress to permanent noise-induced hearing loss.

Question 45Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

Vibration white finger is a component of which condition?

  1. Dupuytren's contracture
  2. Raynaud's disease
  3. HAVS Correct answer.
  4. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Explanation

Vibration white finger is the vascular component of hand-arm vibration syndrome (HAVS), with episodic blanching of fingers after vibration exposure. Carpal tunnel syndrome and Dupuytren's contracture are separate upper-limb disorders.

Question 46Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

Which finding is classically described in acute carbon monoxide poisoning?

  1. Jaundice
  2. Cherry-red skin Correct answer.
  3. Pallor
  4. Cyanosis

Explanation

Carboxyhaemoglobin can impart a cherry-red colour to skin and mucous membranes, although this sign is insensitive and often absent. Cyanosis, jaundice and pallor are not characteristic.

Question 47Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

Metal fume fever is most commonly associated with exposure to fumes of which metal?

  1. Zinc Correct answer.
  2. Iron
  3. Aluminium
  4. Copper

Explanation

Metal fume fever classically follows inhalation of zinc oxide fume, for example during welding of galvanised steel. It causes flu-like symptoms that usually resolve within 24-48 hours.

Question 48Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

What is the main advantage of personal air sampling over fixed-area sampling?

  1. It measures the worker's actual exposure Correct answer.
  2. It is always cheaper to perform
  3. It avoids the need for analytical methods
  4. It measures only peak exposures

Explanation

Personal sampling places the sampler in the worker's breathing zone, so it estimates individual exposure across the shift. Fixed-area sampling characterises ambient air but may not reflect what the worker inhales.

Question 49Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

Which biomarker reflects recent lead exposure and is inhibited by lead?

  1. ZPP Correct answer.
  2. Carboxyhaemoglobin
  3. Urinary cotinine
  4. Serum creatinine

Explanation

Lead inhibits ferrochelatase in haem synthesis, causing accumulation of zinc protoporphyrin (ZPP) in erythrocytes; ZPP is used as a biomarker of recent lead exposure. Creatinine, cotinine and carboxyhaemoglobin reflect kidney function, nicotine exposure and carbon monoxide exposure respectively.

Question 50Occupational hazards, toxicology and exposure assessment

Chronic exposure to n-hexane classically causes which neurological effect?

  1. Cerebellar ataxia
  2. Optic neuritis
  3. Parkinsonism
  4. Neuropathy Correct answer.

Explanation

n-Hexane is metabolised to 2,5-hexanedione, which causes a distal symmetrical peripheral neuropathy. Cerebellar ataxia, optic neuritis and parkinsonism are not the classic picture.