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Israel CAA PPL Theory Exam study materials
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Israel CAA PPL Theory Exam practice questions

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Question 1Air Law and ATC Procedures

Under the Israeli Air Navigation Regulations, what minimum horizontal distance must a VFR flight maintain from cloud when flying in controlled airspace at an altitude above 3,000 ft AMSL?

  1. 2,000 m
  2. 1,500 m Correct answer.
  3. 1,000 m
  4. 500 m

Explanation

Israeli VFR meteorological minima require a horizontal distance from cloud of at least 1,500 m when operating above 3,000 ft AMSL in controlled airspace. Below that altitude the required distance is reduced. Pilots must also satisfy the associated flight visibility and vertical distance requirements simultaneously.

Question 2Air Law and ATC Procedures

In Israel, which body is responsible for issuing the Civil Aviation Regulations and for the safety oversight of civil aviation?

  1. The Israel Defense Forces Air Force
  2. The Israel Airports Authority
  3. The Ministry of Transport's maritime division
  4. The Civil Aviation Authority of Israel (CAAI) Correct answer.

Explanation

The Civil Aviation Authority of Israel is the national regulator responsible for civil aviation safety oversight and for administering the civil aviation regulations. It derives its authority from the Ministry of Transport but operates as the dedicated aviation authority. The Airports Authority manages airport infrastructure rather than regulatory oversight.

Question 3Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft on a VFR flight in Israel finds itself inadvertently in IMC. According to the applicable rules, what is the primary required action?

  1. Continue to the destination while climbing above the cloud layer
  2. Notify ATC immediately and request assistance, considering an instrument approach if qualified Correct answer.
  3. Maintain the last assigned heading until visual conditions return
  4. Descend below the cloud base to regain visual reference

Explanation

When a VFR flight inadvertently enters instrument meteorological conditions, the pilot must inform ATC at once and obtain assistance, and may only continue under instrument flight rules if properly qualified and the aircraft is equipped. ATC can provide vectors and separation to a suitable approach. Descending without knowing the terrain and obstacle situation is hazardous.

Question 4Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Security Restricted Area at an Israeli airport?

  1. An apron area where refuelling is prohibited at all times
  2. A zone reserved for military aircraft parking and dispersal
  3. An area where aircraft maintenance is performed under customs supervision
  4. A defined area to which access is controlled in order to protect civil aviation from unlawful interference Correct answer.

Explanation

A security restricted area is a defined portion of an airport to which access is controlled, established to protect civil aviation from acts of unlawful interference. Entry is limited to authorised persons and often subject to screening. This concept forms part of the national civil aviation security programme.

Question 5Air Law and ATC Procedures

Under ICAO rules reflected in Israeli practice, an aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft should normally respond by rocking its wings. What does this action signify to the intercepting crew?

  1. The pilot intends to descend and land at the nearest aerodrome
  2. The pilot is declaring an emergency and requires immediate assistance
  3. The pilot requests the intercepting aircraft to break away
  4. The pilot acknowledges the interception and will comply with instructions Correct answer.

Explanation

Rocking the wings is the standard acknowledgement that the intercepted aircraft has understood the intercept and will follow the intercepting aircraft's instructions. It is one of a series of internationally agreed visual signals. Failure to respond may lead the intercepting crew to use further signals or manoeuvres.

Question 6Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the standard unit and reference used for reporting altitude in Israeli controlled airspace?

  1. Feet above ground level
  2. Metres above mean sea level
  3. Flight levels at all times regardless of altitude
  4. Feet above mean sea level, with the altimeter set to the appropriate pressure setting Correct answer.

Explanation

Altitude is reported in feet above mean sea level, with the altimeter set to the pressure setting specified for the phase of flight, such as QNH below the transition altitude. Flight levels are used at and above the transition altitude. Above ground level is used for height, not altitude.

Question 7Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot plans a VFR flight from a controlled aerodrome in Israel. When must the flight plan be submitted?

  1. Before departure, allowing sufficient time for processing, as required by the authority Correct answer.
  2. Only if the flight will cross an international border
  3. Only after airborne, by radio to the departure tower
  4. It is never required for domestic VFR flights

Explanation

A flight plan for a controlled VFR flight must be filed before departure with enough lead time for ATC to process it. Filing after airborne is not the normal procedure for a planned flight from a controlled aerodrome. International flights have additional requirements but the domestic rule still applies.

Question 8Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does a steady red light directed at an aircraft in flight from the control tower signify?

  1. Airport is unsafe; land immediately
  2. Do not land; continue circling or take other instructed action Correct answer.
  3. Give way and continue circling
  4. Cleared to land

Explanation

A steady red light shown to an aircraft in flight means the aircraft must not land and should continue circling while awaiting further instructions. It is part of the standard light signals used when radio communication fails. A steady red light on the ground has a different meaning.

Question 9Air Law and ATC Procedures

In Israel, what is the general rule concerning the minimum age for the issue of a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)?

  1. 16 years
  2. 18 years
  3. 21 years
  4. 17 years Correct answer.

Explanation

The minimum age for issue of a private pilot licence is 17 years, consistent with ICAO Annex 1 standards adopted in Israeli licensing rules. A student pilot may begin training at a younger age. Commercial and airline licences carry higher minimum ages.

Question 10Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft is approaching to land while another aircraft is on final approach ahead. Under the right-of-way rules, which aircraft has priority?

  1. The higher aircraft
  2. The aircraft at the lower altitude Correct answer.
  3. The faster aircraft
  4. The aircraft that first established radio contact

Explanation

When two aircraft are approaching to land, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way, provided it does not cut in front of or overtake the other aircraft. This rule reflects the practical reality that the lower aircraft is closer to touchdown. The higher aircraft must give way.

Question 11Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which condition must be met before an aircraft may be dispatched on a flight under IFR in accordance with Israeli operational rules?

  1. The destination weather must be VMC at the estimated time of arrival
  2. The pilot must hold a current class 1 medical certificate regardless of licence type
  3. The aircraft must be equipped and the crew qualified for instrument flight, and the required alternate minima satisfied Correct answer.
  4. The flight must remain within radar coverage at all times

Explanation

An IFR flight requires an appropriately equipped aircraft, a qualified crew, and compliance with the applicable weather minima including alternate requirements. Destination weather need not be VMC. Radar coverage and medical class are separate matters not forming this dispatch condition.

Question 12Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the meaning of the abbreviation ATIS in air traffic services?

  1. Air Traffic Identification System
  2. Automatic Terminal Information Service Correct answer.
  3. Aerodrome Traffic Information Summary
  4. Approach and Terminal Instrument Service

Explanation

ATIS stands for Automatic Terminal Information Service, a continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information such as weather, runway in use, and approach aids. Pilots normally obtain ATIS before contacting approach or tower. Each update is identified by a letter code.

Question 13Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot receives the instruction 'hold short of runway 26' while taxiing. What does this require?

  1. Stop before the runway holding position markings and do not enter the runway without further clearance Correct answer.
  2. Cross the runway quickly to clear the taxiway
  3. Continue taxiing on the runway until the next exit
  4. Enter the runway and hold at the centreline awaiting take-off clearance

Explanation

A hold short instruction requires the aircraft to stop before the runway holding position markings and remain clear of the runway until an explicit clearance is issued. It is a clearance limitation, not a suggestion. Entering the runway without clearance creates a serious runway incursion risk.

Question 14Air Law and ATC Procedures

In Israeli airspace, what is the transition altitude generally used for setting the altimeter to standard pressure?

  1. The transition altitude is always 10,000 ft
  2. The transition altitude is specified in the national AIP and may vary by location Correct answer.
  3. There is no transition altitude in Israel
  4. The transition altitude is fixed at 5,000 ft everywhere in Israel

Explanation

The transition altitude is published in the national Aeronautical Information Publication and may differ between locations or terminal areas. At and above it, pilots set the altimeter to standard pressure and report flight levels. Below it, the local pressure setting is used.

Question 15Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which of the following is a correct description of a 'controlled aerodrome'?

  1. An aerodrome where air traffic control is provided for aerodrome traffic Correct answer.
  2. An aerodrome with no radio communication facilities
  3. An aerodrome used exclusively for military operations
  4. An aerodrome that is privately owned and closed to the public

Explanation

A controlled aerodrome is one where air traffic control service is provided for aerodrome traffic, typically by a tower. Pilots must obtain clearances to operate on the manoeuvring area and in the traffic circuit. The presence of a control tower is the defining feature.

Question 16Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft experiences radio failure in VMC while in controlled airspace. According to standard procedures, what should the pilot do?

  1. Climb to the highest available flight level and squawk 7700
  2. Land immediately at the nearest suitable surface
  3. Circle the last known position indefinitely
  4. Continue under VFR, remain clear of controlled airspace if possible, and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome Correct answer.

Explanation

In VMC with radio failure, the pilot should continue under visual flight rules, remain clear of controlled airspace where practicable, and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, reporting arrival by the fastest means. Setting the transponder to the communication failure code aids identification. Climbing blindly or circling indefinitely is not prescribed.

Question 17Air Law and ATC Procedures

Under Israeli rules, what does the term 'commercial air transport' operation generally require that a private operation does not?

  1. A private pilot licence only
  2. An air operator certificate and operations conducted under the applicable commercial regulations Correct answer.
  3. No maintenance programme
  4. Operation exclusively in VMC

Explanation

Commercial air transport requires an air operator certificate and compliance with the commercial operations regulations, including more stringent crew, maintenance, and operational control requirements. A private pilot licence alone is insufficient. Commercial operations are not restricted to VMC and do require an approved maintenance programme.

Question 18Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the purpose of a 'clearance limit' in an IFR air traffic control clearance?

  1. The minimum fuel required at destination
  2. The maximum altitude the aircraft may climb to
  3. The point to which the aircraft is cleared to proceed Correct answer.
  4. The time at which the clearance expires

Explanation

The clearance limit is the point to which an IFR aircraft is cleared, such as an aerodrome or a navigation fix. Beyond that point a further clearance is required. Altitude limits, expiry times, and fuel requirements are separate elements of the clearance or flight planning.

Question 19Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft is flying VFR at night in Israel. Which additional requirement typically applies compared with day VFR?

  1. The aircraft and pilot must meet night qualification and equipment requirements, and the flight must remain within the applicable night VFR minima Correct answer.
  2. No additional requirements apply
  3. The pilot must hold an instrument rating
  4. Night VFR is prohibited in all Israeli airspace

Explanation

Night VFR requires the pilot to hold the appropriate night qualification and the aircraft to carry the required equipment, while the flight must comply with the night VFR meteorological minima. An instrument rating is not automatically required. Night VFR is permitted in defined circumstances rather than universally prohibited.

Question 20Air Law and ATC Procedures

In the event of an unlawful interference (hijack) situation, what is the pilot's primary responsibility?

  1. To shut down all radio communication to avoid detection
  2. To control the aircraft safely, squawk the appropriate code, and follow notified procedures while informing ATC when able Correct answer.
  3. To continue the flight to the planned destination regardless of instructions
  4. To immediately land at any available aerodrome without notifying anyone

Explanation

During unlawful interference the pilot's priority is the safe control of the aircraft, setting the appropriate transponder code, and following the notified procedures while alerting ATC when possible. The aircraft may be forced to divert, so continuing to the planned destination is not guaranteed. Silence is not an appropriate response.

Question 21Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does a flashing red light directed at an aircraft on the ground signify?

  1. Cleared for take-off
  2. Return to starting point on the aerodrome
  3. Stop Correct answer.
  4. Cleared to taxi

Explanation

A flashing red light shown to an aircraft on the ground means stop. It is part of the standard light signal set used when radio communication is not possible. Other signals, such as a flashing green, authorise taxiing.

Question 22Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which of the following correctly describes the role of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) in Israel?

  1. It lists only airport restaurant and hotel facilities
  2. It is a commercial flight planning database maintained by airlines
  3. It is a military-only document not available to civil pilots
  4. It contains permanent aeronautical information essential to air navigation, published by the state Correct answer.

Explanation

The AIP is the state's official publication of permanent aeronautical information essential to air navigation, including regulations, procedures, and aerodrome data. It is issued under ICAO Annex 15 arrangements. It is available to civil pilots and is not a commercial or military-only document.

Question 23Air Law and ATC Procedures

Two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, one from the right and one from the left. Which must give way?

  1. Both must turn right simultaneously
  2. The faster aircraft gives way
  3. The aircraft on the right gives way
  4. The aircraft on the left gives way Correct answer.

Explanation

When two aircraft converge at approximately the same altitude, the aircraft that has the other on its right must give way. This means the aircraft on the left yields to the one on the right. The rule prevents both aircraft from turning into each other.

Question 24Air Law and ATC Procedures

In Israel, what is the significance of a 'prohibited area' designated in the AIP?

  1. Flight is permitted only with a transponder code
  2. Flight is permitted only at night
  3. Flight is prohibited at all times under the conditions published Correct answer.
  4. Flight is permitted only for military aircraft

Explanation

A prohibited area is airspace within which flight is prohibited under the conditions published in the AIP, typically for security or safety reasons. Restricted areas differ in that flight may be permitted subject to conditions or permission. Pilots must check the AIP before planning a route near such areas.

Question 25Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

On a light aeroplane with a fixed-pitch propeller, what happens to engine RPM when the throttle is opened in level flight at constant altitude?

  1. RPM remains exactly constant because blade angle is fixed
  2. RPM decreases because manifold pressure rises
  3. RPM increases until the propeller absorbs the increased power at a new balance point Correct answer.
  4. RPM increases only after the mixture is leaned

Explanation

With a fixed-pitch propeller the blade angle cannot change, so the only way the propeller can absorb more power is by turning faster. Opening the throttle increases power output and RPM rises until the propeller's power absorption curve again matches engine output. The new equilibrium is at a higher RPM and higher manifold pressure.

Question 26Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a four-stroke cycle aircraft engine, which stroke follows the power (combustion) stroke?

  1. Intake
  2. Compression
  3. Exhaust Correct answer.
  4. Ignition

Explanation

The four strokes occur in the order intake, compression, power, exhaust. After the piston is driven down by combustion, it rises on the exhaust stroke pushing burnt gases out through the open exhaust valve. Ignition is an event during the compression stroke, not a separate stroke.

Question 27Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the primary function of the magneto in a piston aero engine?

  1. To step battery voltage up for the starter motor
  2. To regulate the charging rate of the battery
  3. To generate the high-tension voltage that fires the spark plugs independently of the aircraft battery Correct answer.
  4. To rectify alternator output for the avionics bus

Explanation

A magneto is a self-contained, engine-driven generator of high voltage that supplies the spark plugs. Because it produces its own electricity, ignition continues even if the aircraft electrical system or battery fails. This independence is why magnetos, not battery-fed coils, are used.

Question 28Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

The red line on an airspeed indicator marks which speed?

  1. Never-exceed speed (VNE) Correct answer.
  2. Design manoeuvring speed (VA)
  3. Maximum structural cruising speed (VNO)
  4. Best angle of climb speed (VX)

Explanation

The red radial line on the dial corresponds to VNE, the never-exceed speed above which structural damage or loss of control may occur. The yellow arc begins at the upper limit of the green arc, which is VNO. Exceeding the red line is permitted in no circumstances.

Question 29Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which of the following describes the purpose of the fuel primer in a light aircraft piston engine?

  1. To enrich the mixture at high altitude
  2. To increase fuel pressure during take-off
  3. To purge water from the fuel lines in flight
  4. To deliver a small quantity of fuel directly to the cylinders for starting Correct answer.

Explanation

The primer is a hand pump that injects fuel directly into the induction system or cylinders to provide the rich charge needed for a cold start. It is used only for starting and is not a flight control for mixture or fuel pressure. Once the engine is running, the mixture control governs fuel/air ratio.

Question 30Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What does the ammeter in a light aircraft indicate?

  1. The voltage of the battery
  2. The RPM of the engine
  3. The current flowing into or out of the battery Correct answer.
  4. The fuel quantity in the tanks

Explanation

The ammeter shows the rate of charge or discharge of the battery, i.e. current flow in the charging circuit. A reading near zero in cruise indicates the battery is neither being charged nor drained significantly. Voltage is shown by a separate voltmeter where fitted.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which control surface produces the pitching movement of an aircraft about its lateral axis?

  1. Ailerons
  2. Elevator Correct answer.
  3. Flaps
  4. Rudder

Explanation

Pitch is rotation about the lateral (wing-to-wing) axis and is controlled by the elevator on the horizontal tailplane. The rudder controls yaw about the vertical axis and the ailerons control roll about the longitudinal axis. Flaps are lift/drag devices and are not primary pitch controls.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

During a pre-flight walk-around you notice that the alternator warning light stays on after start-up. Which response is most appropriate?

  1. Return to parking and investigate the charging system before flight Correct answer.
  2. Continue the flight because the battery will supply all systems for the whole flight
  3. Switch off the avionics to make the light extinguish
  4. Increase RPM to maximum and ignore the light if it dims

Explanation

A charging warning light after start indicates the alternator is not supplying current, so the battery alone is powering the electrical system and will eventually be exhausted. The safe course is to shut down and have the fault investigated before flight. Ignoring the indication risks losing electrical power, radio and lighting in flight.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

An aircraft is climbing at a constant indicated airspeed. What does the altimeter do if the static port becomes partially blocked?

  1. It will freeze at the altitude at which the blockage occurred, then lag as the aircraft climbs Correct answer.
  2. It will over-read progressively as the aircraft climbs
  3. It will under-read progressively as the aircraft climbs
  4. It will continue to indicate correctly because total pressure is unaffected

Explanation

The altimeter uses static pressure only. If the static port is blocked, the pressure inside the instrument case is trapped at the value when the blockage occurred, so the altimeter stops responding to real altitude changes. It will indicate the altitude at the moment of blocking and only lag or drift slightly with case leakage.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Why is AVGAS 100LL dyed blue?

  1. To indicate it contains anti-icing additive
  2. To mark it as unleaded automotive fuel
  3. To show it is suitable only for turbine engines
  4. To identify its octane grade and distinguish it from other fuel grades Correct answer.

Explanation

Aviation gasoline grades are colour coded so that grade can be identified at a glance; 100LL is dyed blue. This helps prevent misfuelling and confirms the correct grade for the engine. Colour coding does not indicate additives or engine type.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the effect of opening the cowl flaps in cruise flight?

  1. Reduced cylinder head temperature and increased drag Correct answer.
  2. Reduced cylinder head temperature with no change in drag
  3. Increased cylinder head temperature and reduced drag
  4. Increased cylinder head temperature with no change in drag

Explanation

Cowl flaps control the flow of cooling air through the engine compartment. Opening them increases cooling airflow, lowering cylinder head temperature, but the additional open area increases parasite drag. Pilots therefore close them in cruise for speed and open them in climbs or hot conditions for cooling.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

A pilot selects the LEFT magneto during an engine run-up check and observes no RPM drop. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. The left magneto is functioning normally and the right is faulty
  2. The left magneto is not firing, so the engine continues on the right magneto alone Correct answer.
  3. The engine is running too lean
  4. Both magnetos have failed simultaneously

Explanation

During a magneto check, selecting one magneto should cause a small RPM drop because only one spark source remains. If there is no drop when selecting LEFT, the engine is still being fired by the right magneto, indicating the left magneto (or its P-lead circuit) is not contributing. This is a defect that must be investigated before flight.

Question 37Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the purpose of the mixture control in a piston aero engine?

  1. To adjust the ratio of fuel to air entering the engine as altitude changes Correct answer.
  2. To set the idle RPM of the engine
  3. To regulate the oil pressure
  4. To control the propeller blade angle

Explanation

As an aircraft climbs, air density falls, so the fuel/air mixture becomes richer unless corrected. The mixture control adjusts fuel flow to maintain the correct ratio for the altitude and power setting. It does not control idle speed, propeller pitch or oil pressure.

Question 38Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which statement correctly describes the function of the voltage regulator in a light aircraft charging system?

  1. It limits the alternator field current so output voltage stays within safe limits Correct answer.
  2. It steps up voltage for the magnetos
  3. It converts AC from the alternator into DC for the battery
  4. It protects the battery from over-current during starting

Explanation

The voltage regulator controls the field current supplied to the alternator, thereby regulating its output voltage to a safe value. Without it the alternator voltage could rise excessively and damage the battery and avionics. Rectification of AC to DC is done by the alternator's rectifier, a separate function.

Question 39Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the purpose of the vacuum system in a light aircraft equipped with gyroscopic instruments?

  1. To provide cabin heating
  2. To operate the flaps
  3. To spin the rotors of the attitude indicator and heading indicator Correct answer.
  4. To pressurise the fuel tanks

Explanation

Vacuum-driven gyros in the attitude indicator and heading indicator need a steady airflow to spin their rotors. An engine-driven vacuum pump supplies this suction. Loss of vacuum causes these gyros to become unreliable, so a vacuum gauge is provided.

Question 40Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

An aircraft is descending and the pilot notices the attitude indicator has begun to show a slow, steady error in pitch. Which action is appropriate?

  1. Rely on the attitude indicator because gyros are self-correcting
  2. Cross-check with the altimeter, airspeed and turn coordinator and treat the attitude indicator with suspicion Correct answer.
  3. Increase engine RPM to spin the gyro faster
  4. Ignore all instruments and fly by outside reference only

Explanation

A gyro can precess or tumble and give a false indication, particularly after prolonged manoeuvring or vacuum loss. The correct response is to cross-check with independent instruments such as altimeter, airspeed and turn coordinator. Relying on a suspect instrument alone risks loss of control.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which of the following best explains why an aircraft's stall warning horn may sound during a practice stall recovery?

  1. The horn is triggered by the pitot heater being on
  2. The horn is activated by a vane or pressure sensor near the leading edge sensing high angle of attack Correct answer.
  3. The horn is activated by low oil pressure
  4. The horn indicates the landing gear is not down

Explanation

A stall warning system uses a small vane or pressure sensor on the wing leading edge to detect the rising angle of attack as the stall approaches. When the threshold is reached the horn sounds. It is not linked to oil pressure, gear position or pitot heat.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

A pilot applies carburettor heat during descent in humid conditions. What is the expected effect on the engine?

  1. A rise in cylinder head temperature only
  2. A slight initial RPM drop followed by possible recovery as ice melts Correct answer.
  3. No effect because carburettor heat is only used on the ground
  4. An immediate increase in RPM with no other change

Explanation

Applying carburettor heat admits warmed air, which reduces charge density and causes a slight RPM drop. If carburettor ice was present, the warmed air melts it and the RPM may recover or smooth out. This is why carburettor heat is applied before reducing power on descent.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the function of the oil cooler bypass valve in an aero engine lubrication system?

  1. To supply oil to the propeller governor only
  2. To increase oil pressure at high altitude
  3. To keep oil temperature within limits by routing oil around the cooler when cold Correct answer.
  4. To filter metal particles from the oil

Explanation

When oil is cold and viscous, the bypass valve routes it around the cooler so it warms up and flows properly. As oil temperature rises, the valve closes and oil passes through the cooler. This maintains oil temperature within the desired range.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which of the following is the most likely consequence of a failed alternator in flight with a serviceable battery?

  1. Loss of all flight instruments including the altimeter
  2. Immediate engine stoppage
  3. Continued flight on battery power with limited endurance for electrical systems Correct answer.
  4. Immediate loss of radio communication

Explanation

With the alternator offline the battery continues to supply the electrical system but has finite capacity. Non-essential equipment should be shed and the flight concluded before the battery is exhausted. The engine continues because ignition is independent of the electrical system.

Question 45Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a constant-speed propeller system, what is the role of the propeller governor?

  1. To feather the propeller automatically on every landing
  2. To sense RPM and adjust blade angle to maintain the selected RPM Correct answer.
  3. To control the mixture entering the engine
  4. To change engine RPM directly by moving the throttle

Explanation

The governor senses engine/propeller RPM and controls oil pressure to the propeller hub, which changes blade angle. If RPM tends to rise, blade angle increases to absorb more power; if it falls, blade angle decreases. This holds RPM at the value selected with the propeller control.

Question 46Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

An aircraft with a normally aspirated engine is climbing through 10,000 ft. What happens to manifold pressure as altitude increases with the throttle fully open?

  1. It decreases as atmospheric pressure decreases Correct answer.
  2. It increases because the air is colder
  3. It rises until the wastegate opens
  4. It remains constant at sea-level value

Explanation

A normally aspirated engine has no turbocharger to pressurise the induction air, so manifold pressure reflects ambient pressure. As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure falls and manifold pressure falls with it, reducing engine power. There is no wastegate on a normally aspirated engine.

Question 47Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the primary purpose of the fuel selector valve in a light aircraft with two tanks?

  1. To allow the pilot to select which tank supplies the engine and to shut off fuel flow Correct answer.
  2. To pump fuel from the tanks to the engine
  3. To regulate fuel pressure to the carburettor
  4. To automatically balance fuel between tanks

Explanation

The fuel selector valve lets the pilot choose the tank feeding the engine and provides a positive OFF position for shutdown and emergencies. It does not pump fuel or regulate pressure; those functions belong to the boost pump and pressure regulator. Balancing fuel is achieved by the pilot's selection.

Question 48Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

During a run-up, the pilot observes that the oil pressure gauge shows zero immediately after start but the engine runs normally. Which explanation is most plausible?

  1. The oil pressure gauge or its line/sender has failed Correct answer.
  2. The magnetos are misfiring
  3. The engine has no oil in it
  4. The oil cooler bypass valve is stuck open

Explanation

If the engine runs normally with no unusual noise or temperature rise, a zero oil pressure indication is more likely an instrument or sender fault than a genuine loss of oil pressure. A genuine loss would quickly cause overheating and mechanical damage. The indication must still be investigated before flight.

Question 49Flight Performance and Planning (Mass and Balance, Performance, Flight Planning)

In mass and balance terminology, what does the term 'empty mass' (basic empty mass) of an aircraft normally include?

  1. The airframe and engines only, with all fluids drained and all equipment removed
  2. The airframe, engines, fixed equipment, unusable fuel and full engine oil, but no usable fuel, crew or payload Correct answer.
  3. The maximum mass at which the aircraft may start its take-off run
  4. The airframe, engines, crew, usable fuel and baggage

Explanation

Basic empty mass is the mass of the aircraft as delivered plus fixed equipment, unusable fuel and full oil, but excluding usable fuel, crew and payload. This value is the datum from which all loading calculations begin. Confusing it with zero-fuel mass or maximum take-off mass is a common error.

Question 50Flight Performance and Planning (Mass and Balance, Performance, Flight Planning)

An aircraft has a maximum take-off mass of 1,150 kg. At the take-off point the runway is 900 m long, the pressure altitude is 2,000 ft and the temperature is 25 degrees C. Using the manufacturer's chart, the take-off distance required is 780 m. Which statement is correct?

  1. A safety margin must be added to the chart distance before comparing it with the runway length Correct answer.
  2. The pressure altitude makes no difference to the result
  3. The take-off is illegal because the temperature exceeds 20 degrees C
  4. The take-off is legal because 780 m is less than 900 m

Explanation

Chart distances must be increased by the operator's or regulation's safety factor (typically 1.15 for a dry runway) before being compared with the available distance. The chart figure of 780 m alone is not the required distance. Only the factored value can be compared with the 900 m available.