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AIIMS Paramedical study materials
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AIIMS Paramedical practice questions

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Question 1General Knowledge and Awareness

Which Indian institution is the apex body responsible for setting standards for medical education and recognising medical qualifications in India?

  1. Pharmacy Council of India
  2. Indian Council of Medical Research
  3. National Medical Commission Correct answer.
  4. Medical Council of India

Explanation

The National Medical Commission (NMC) replaced the Medical Council of India in 2020 and now functions as the apex regulator for medical education, setting standards and recognising qualifications. The ICMR is a research funding body, not a regulator.

Question 2General Knowledge and Awareness

The Red Cross emblem, used to mark medical personnel and facilities in armed conflict, is defined under which international framework?

  1. Nuremberg Code
  2. Helsinki Declaration
  3. Geneva Conventions Correct answer.
  4. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

Explanation

The Geneva Conventions of 1949 and their Additional Protocols establish the protective emblems of the red cross, red crescent and red crystal, and grant protection to medical personnel and facilities in armed conflict. The other instruments deal with human rights or research ethics, not humanitarian symbols.

Question 3General Knowledge and Awareness

Which vitamin is synthesised in human skin on exposure to ultraviolet-B radiation from sunlight?

  1. Vitamin K
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Vitamin D Correct answer.
  4. Vitamin C

Explanation

Ultraviolet-B light converts 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin into a precursor of vitamin D3, which is then activated in the liver and kidneys. The other vitamins listed must be obtained largely from diet or gut flora.

Question 4General Knowledge and Awareness

Which blood group is called the universal donor for red blood cell transfusion?

  1. A positive
  2. O negative Correct answer.
  3. B negative
  4. AB positive

Explanation

O negative red cells lack A, B and RhD antigens, so they do not provoke antibodies in recipients of any group and can be given in emergencies before cross-matching. AB positive plasma is used as universal plasma, while AB positive red cells are universal recipients, not donors.

Question 5General Knowledge and Awareness

AIIMS, New Delhi functions as an autonomous institution funded mainly through which mechanism?

  1. A statutory Act of Parliament granting it autonomy Correct answer.
  2. A state government department of health
  3. A private charitable trust
  4. A public–private partnership company

Explanation

AIIMS was created by a specific Act of Parliament, which gives it autonomy in academic and administrative matters while it remains funded by the central government. It is neither a state department nor a private entity.

Question 6General Knowledge and Awareness

Which body is the principal technical agency of the Government of India for biomedical research and is funded through the Department of Health Research?

  1. Indian Council of Medical Research Correct answer.
  2. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
  3. National Health Systems Resource Centre
  4. Department of Biotechnology

Explanation

The Indian Council of Medical Research is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research, and it operates under the Department of Health Research. CSIR and DBT have broader or different mandates.

Question 7General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is a notifiable disease under India's epidemic disease regulations, requiring reporting to public health authorities?

  1. Dengue Correct answer.
  2. Myopia
  3. Essential hypertension
  4. Iron-deficiency anaemia

Explanation

Dengue is a vector-borne infection subject to mandatory notification so that authorities can track outbreaks and mount vector control. The other conditions are chronic non-communicable conditions that are not notifiable.

Question 8General Knowledge and Awareness

The National Health Mission in India primarily aims to strengthen which aspect of the health system?

  1. Tertiary super-specialty care in metropolitan hospitals
  2. Primary and secondary health care in rural and underserved areas Correct answer.
  3. Medical device manufacturing
  4. Health insurance for foreign nationals

Explanation

The National Health Mission, comprising the National Rural and Urban Health Missions, focuses on strengthening primary and secondary care, especially in rural and underserved areas. It does not fund device manufacturing or cover foreign nationals.

Question 9General Knowledge and Awareness

Under India's Biomedical Waste Management Rules, into which colour-coded category do discarded human anatomical waste and soiled dressings fall?

  1. Red
  2. White
  3. Yellow Correct answer.
  4. Blue

Explanation

The rules classify human anatomical waste, soiled dressings and other infectious waste into the yellow category, which is incinerated or treated by plasma pyrolysis. Red is for contaminated recyclable plastics, white for sharps, and blue for glassware and metallic implants.

Question 10General Knowledge and Awareness

Which organisation publishes the International Health Regulations, which govern surveillance and response to public health emergencies of international concern?

  1. International Labour Organization
  2. World Trade Organization
  3. World Health Organization Correct answer.
  4. United Nations Children's Fund

Explanation

The World Health Organization administers the International Health Regulations, which bind member states to report and respond to events that may constitute a public health emergency of international concern. The WTO, ILO and UNICEF have different mandates.

Question 11General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the standard unit used to express the concentration of a drug in a solution when the amount is very small?

  1. Micrograms per millilitre Correct answer.
  2. Milligrams per decilitre
  3. Kilograms per cubic metre
  4. Grams per litre

Explanation

Micrograms per millilitre is the conventional unit for expressing very low drug concentrations, for example in therapeutic drug monitoring. Milligrams per decilitre is used for blood analytes such as glucose, and grams per litre is too coarse for trace concentrations.

Question 12General Knowledge and Awareness

The oath traditionally taken by medical graduates, pledging to practise medicine ethically and in the service of humanity, is known as the oath of which figure?

  1. Hippocrates Correct answer.
  2. William Harvey
  3. Louis Pasteur
  4. Florence Nightingale

Explanation

The Hippocratic Oath, attributed to the Greek physician Hippocrates, is the classical ethical pledge taken by physicians, and modern versions are still used at medical graduations. Nightingale is associated with nursing, Pasteur with microbiology and Harvey with circulation.

Question 13General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the correct expansion of the abbreviation ICU in a hospital setting?

  1. Infection Control Unit
  2. Intermediate Clinical Unit
  3. Intensive Care Unit Correct answer.
  4. Internal Care Unit

Explanation

ICU stands for Intensive Care Unit, a hospital area providing continuous monitoring and life support for critically ill patients. The other expansions, though plausible-sounding, are not the standard meaning of the abbreviation.

Question 14General Knowledge and Awareness

In India, the first point of contact for a patient under the rural public health system is normally which facility?

  1. Medical college hospital
  2. Super-specialty referral hospital
  3. District hospital
  4. Sub-centre or primary health centre Correct answer.

Explanation

The rural public health system is organised as a three-tier structure, with sub-centres and primary health centres providing first-contact care and referral to higher facilities when needed. District and medical college hospitals are higher-tier referral facilities.

Question 15General Knowledge and Awareness

Which human organ is primarily responsible for the detoxification of drugs and metabolic waste products?

  1. Pancreas
  2. Spleen
  3. Liver Correct answer.
  4. Kidney

Explanation

The liver carries out most biotransformation of drugs and toxins through its cytochrome P450 enzymes, converting them into forms that can be excreted. The kidney mainly excretes the resulting metabolites rather than performing most of the initial detoxification.

Question 16General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following best describes the term 'zoonosis' as used in public health?

  1. A disease spread only through contaminated water
  2. A disease caused by a hospital-acquired infection
  3. A disease caused by a nutritional deficiency
  4. A disease transmitted from animals to humans Correct answer.

Explanation

A zoonosis is an infectious disease that can be transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans, examples being rabies, brucellosis and avian influenza. The other descriptions refer to nosocomial, waterborne and deficiency diseases respectively.

Question 17General Knowledge and Awareness

A patient's haemoglobin is reported as 9 g/dL. Which term correctly describes this finding in an adult?

  1. Leucocytosis
  2. Thrombocytosis
  3. Anaemia Correct answer.
  4. Polycythaemia

Explanation

The normal adult haemoglobin range is roughly 12–16 g/dL, so a value of 9 g/dL indicates anaemia, a reduction in haemoglobin concentration. Polycythaemia is an increase, while leucocytosis and thrombocytosis refer to white cells and platelets respectively.

Question 18General Knowledge and Awareness

Which agency in India is responsible for approving new drugs for marketing and licensing?

  1. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation Correct answer.
  2. Indian Nursing Council
  3. National Medical Commission
  4. Bureau of Indian Standards

Explanation

The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation, headed by the Drugs Controller General of India, grants approval for new drugs and oversees licensing and quality standards for medicines. The other bodies regulate medical education, nursing or product standards.

Question 19General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the primary purpose of sterilisation in a hospital setting?

  1. To prevent rusting of metal instruments
  2. To reduce only the number of bacteria on a surface
  3. To destroy all micro-organisms including bacterial spores Correct answer.
  4. To remove visible dirt from instruments

Explanation

Sterilisation destroys or eliminates all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores, which is why it is required for surgical instruments and invasive devices. Cleaning removes dirt, and disinfection reduces but does not necessarily eliminate spores.

Question 20General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following measures is the single most effective routine action for preventing healthcare-associated infections on a hospital ward?

  1. Daily changing of bed linen
  2. Restricting visitor numbers
  3. Hand hygiene at the recommended moments Correct answer.
  4. Wearing a mask at all times

Explanation

Hand hygiene at the five recommended moments is widely regarded as the most effective single measure for reducing cross-transmission of pathogens in healthcare settings. Masks, linen changes and visitor restriction are useful but secondary.

Question 21General Knowledge and Awareness

A community health worker records births and deaths in a village register. Which type of data is being collected?

  1. Environmental statistics
  2. Vital statistics Correct answer.
  3. Financial statistics
  4. Morbidity statistics

Explanation

Vital statistics are the systematic records of births, deaths, marriages and similar life events, and they form the basis for calculating rates such as birth rate and infant mortality rate. Morbidity statistics, by contrast, record illness.

Question 22General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following best explains why cold chain maintenance is critical in immunisation programmes?

  1. It prevents contamination of the vial by the needle
  2. It keeps the vaccine vials from breaking during transport
  3. It preserves vaccine potency by maintaining the required temperature range Correct answer.
  4. It reduces the cost of transporting vaccines

Explanation

Vaccines are biological products that lose potency if exposed to heat or freezing, so the cold chain keeps them within a specified temperature range from manufacture to administration. It does not by itself prevent needle contamination or breakage.

Question 23General Knowledge and Awareness

In a study, the number of new cases of a disease occurring in a population over a defined period divided by the population at risk is used to calculate which measure?

  1. Incidence rate Correct answer.
  2. Case fatality rate
  3. Prevalence
  4. Standardised mortality ratio

Explanation

The incidence rate measures new cases arising in a population at risk during a specified period, reflecting the risk of developing disease. Prevalence counts all existing cases at a point in time, while case fatality and standardised mortality ratios describe deaths.

Question 24General Knowledge and Awareness

A hospital wants to compare its surgical infection rate with that of similar hospitals while adjusting for differences in patient mix. Which approach is most appropriate?

  1. Compare the total number of infections between hospitals
  2. Count only infections occurring after discharge
  3. Report the crude infection rate without adjustment
  4. Use a risk-adjusted or standardised infection ratio Correct answer.

Explanation

Risk adjustment, often expressed as a standardised infection ratio, accounts for differences in patient case mix and procedure complexity so that hospitals can be compared fairly. Crude rates or raw counts are distorted by differences in the patients treated.

Question 25General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the difference between disinfection and sterilisation?

  1. Disinfection destroys all micro-organisms including spores, whereas sterilisation does not
  2. Disinfection is used only on living tissue, whereas sterilisation is used only on instruments
  3. Sterilisation destroys all micro-organisms including spores, whereas disinfection reduces or eliminates many but not necessarily all Correct answer.
  4. Both terms mean the same process and are interchangeable

Explanation

Sterilisation is the complete destruction or removal of all microbial life including bacterial spores, while disinfection eliminates many or all pathogenic organisms except, typically, spores. The two processes therefore differ in the certainty of spore destruction.

Question 26General Knowledge and Awareness

Under India's Constitution, which schedule lists the subjects on which both the Union and the States can legislate, including public health and hospitals?

  1. Seventh Schedule, Concurrent List Correct answer.
  2. Seventh Schedule, Union List
  3. Seventh Schedule, State List
  4. Ninth Schedule

Explanation

The Seventh Schedule divides legislative powers into the Union, State and Concurrent Lists. Public health and hospitals appear in the Concurrent List, so both Parliament and State legislatures can make laws on them. The Ninth Schedule deals with laws protected from certain judicial review, not with distribution of powers.

Question 27General Knowledge and Awareness

The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation functions under which Union Ministry in India?

  1. Ministry of Science and Technology
  2. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Correct answer.
  3. Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
  4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Explanation

CDSCO is the national regulatory authority for drugs, medical devices and cosmetics and works under the Directorate General of Health Services within the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers handles the pharmaceutical industry's industrial policy, not drug approval.

Question 28General Knowledge and Awareness

Which Indian programme provides free diagnosis and free essential medicines at public health facilities, complementing the National Health Mission?

  1. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram
  2. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
  3. Free Drugs and Diagnostics Service Initiative Correct answer.
  4. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY

Explanation

The Free Drugs and Diagnostics Service Initiative under the National Health Mission aims to make essential medicines and diagnostic tests available free of cost at public facilities. PM-JAY is a health insurance scheme for hospitalisation, and JSSK covers maternal and newborn entitlements specifically.

Question 29General Knowledge and Awareness

Which body coordinates and sets standards for medical education in India, having replaced the earlier Medical Council of India?

  1. Medical Council of India
  2. Indian Medical Association
  3. National Medical Commission Correct answer.
  4. National Health Systems Resource Centre

Explanation

The National Medical Commission Act, 2019 replaced the Medical Council of India with the National Medical Commission, which regulates medical education and practice standards. The Indian Medical Association is a professional body, not a statutory regulator.

Question 30General Knowledge and Awareness

In India's public health system, which body is the apex institution for disease surveillance and outbreak response at the national level?

  1. Central Health Education Bureau
  2. National Centre for Disease Control Correct answer.
  3. Indian Council of Medical Research
  4. National Health Mission

Explanation

The National Centre for Disease Control, Delhi, runs the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme and coordinates outbreak investigations nationally. ICMR mainly funds and conducts biomedical research rather than routine surveillance.

Question 31General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the correct full form of the abbreviation OPD in Indian hospital usage?

  1. Orthopaedic Procedure Desk
  2. Outpatient Procedure Diary
  3. Outpatient Department Correct answer.
  4. Operational Procedure Division

Explanation

OPD stands for Outpatient Department, the unit where patients are seen for consultation and treatment without being admitted. The other expansions are invented and are not standard hospital terminology.

Question 32General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following best describes the meaning of 'epidemic' in public health terminology?

  1. Occurrence of cases of a disease in excess of normal expectation in a defined community or area Correct answer.
  2. A disease that is permanently present at low levels in a population
  3. A worldwide spread of a new disease
  4. A disease transmitted only from animals to humans

Explanation

An epidemic refers to the occurrence of disease cases clearly above the expected baseline in a defined population or area over a given period. A disease constantly present at low levels is endemic, and worldwide spread is pandemic.

Question 33General Knowledge and Awareness

AIIMS institutions in India function as institutions of national importance primarily under which Act?

  1. National Health Mission Act, 2005
  2. AIIMS Act, 1956 Correct answer.
  3. Indian Medical Council Act, 1956
  4. Central Universities Act, 2009

Explanation

The All India Institute of Medical Sciences Act, 1956 established AIIMS as an institution of national importance for teaching, research and patient care. Newer AIIMS were created through amendments to this Act rather than through university legislation.

Question 34General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the correct expansion of the abbreviation NABH, relevant to hospital quality in India?

  1. National Association of Biomedical Hospitals
  2. National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Healthcare Providers Correct answer.
  3. National Accreditation Bureau for Health
  4. National Advisory Board on Hygiene

Explanation

NABH is the National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Healthcare Providers, a constituent board of the Quality Council of India that accredits healthcare organisations. Its standards cover patient safety and quality of care.

Question 35General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following best defines 'infant mortality rate' as used in Indian health statistics?

  1. Deaths of mothers per 1,000 live births
  2. Deaths of newborns in the first 24 hours per 1,000 deliveries
  3. Deaths of children under one year of age per 1,000 live births in a year Correct answer.
  4. Deaths of children under five years per 1,000 population

Explanation

Infant mortality rate is the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per 1,000 live births in a given year. It is a key indicator of health system performance and is distinct from under-five mortality and maternal mortality.

Question 36General Knowledge and Awareness

In India's Universal Immunisation Programme, which vaccine is given at birth to protect against tuberculosis?

  1. DPT
  2. OPV
  3. Hepatitis B
  4. BCG Correct answer.

Explanation

BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guérin) is administered at birth or as early as possible to protect against severe forms of tuberculosis. OPV and Hepatitis B are also given early, but BCG is the specific TB vaccine.

Question 37General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Biomedical Waste Management Rules in Indian hospitals?

  1. To fix the prices charged for surgical procedures
  2. To ensure safe segregation, handling and disposal of healthcare waste to protect health and environment Correct answer.
  3. To set staffing norms for nursing colleges
  4. To regulate the import of medical equipment

Explanation

The rules prescribe colour-coded segregation, storage, transport and treatment of biomedical waste so that infection and environmental contamination are prevented. They do not deal with pricing, equipment import or educational staffing.

Question 38General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following best describes the role of a 'cold chain' in a vaccine programme?

  1. Freezing all vaccines before use
  2. Storing vaccines in direct sunlight to prevent condensation
  3. Maintaining vaccines within a specified temperature range from manufacture to administration Correct answer.
  4. Delivering vaccines only during winter months

Explanation

The cold chain is a system of storage and transport that keeps vaccines within the recommended temperature range to preserve potency. Freezing damages some vaccines such as hepatitis B, and sunlight or heat can inactivate them.

Question 39General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the management of a needlestick injury for a healthcare worker?

  1. Wash the site with soap and water, report the incident, and assess for post-exposure prophylaxis Correct answer.
  2. Cover the wound and report only if symptoms appear later
  3. Apply a tight tourniquet above the injury and wait for fever
  4. Squeeze the wound vigorously, apply bleach, and continue working

Explanation

Immediate washing with soap and water, reporting the exposure and prompt assessment for HIV and hepatitis B post-exposure prophylaxis are the accepted steps. Vigorous squeezing, caustic agents and delays in reporting are harmful or unsafe.

Question 40General Knowledge and Awareness

A hospital wants to reduce surgical site infections. Which of the following measures is most directly supported by evidence-based practice?

  1. Keeping the operating theatre doors open for ventilation
  2. Routine shaving of the surgical site the night before
  3. Extending antibiotic use for two weeks after discharge
  4. Appropriate pre-operative antibiotic prophylaxis timed close to incision Correct answer.

Explanation

Pre-operative antibiotic prophylaxis given within the recommended window before incision reduces surgical site infection. Routine pre-operative shaving increases skin injury and infection risk, prolonged antibiotics promote resistance, and open doors compromise airflow control.

Question 41General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the best example of secondary prevention in community health?

  1. Providing spectacles for refractive error
  2. Immunisation of infants against measles
  3. Counseling against tobacco use in schools
  4. Screening for hypertension in adults attending a health camp Correct answer.

Explanation

Secondary prevention detects disease early in its course so that treatment can alter its progress; screening for hypertension fits this. Immunisation and tobacco counselling are primary prevention, and spectacles correct an existing deficit rather than detect disease early.

Question 42General Knowledge and Awareness

In a district hospital, which committee is typically responsible for reviewing maternal deaths to identify avoidable factors?

  1. Hospital Infection Control Committee
  2. Drug Therapeutic Committee
  3. Maternal Death Review Committee Correct answer.
  4. Medical Audit Committee for Equipment

Explanation

Maternal death reviews are conducted by designated committees to identify medical and system factors that contributed to a death and to recommend corrective action. Infection control, drug and equipment committees address different functions.

Question 43General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following statements about the difference between incidence and prevalence is correct?

  1. Prevalence can only be measured for infectious diseases
  2. Incidence measures all existing cases, while prevalence measures new cases
  3. Both terms always give identical values for chronic diseases
  4. Incidence measures new cases over a period, while prevalence measures all existing cases at a point or period Correct answer.

Explanation

Incidence counts new cases arising in a population over a defined period, reflecting risk of developing disease. Prevalence counts all existing cases at a given time and is influenced by both incidence and duration of disease.

Question 44General Knowledge and Awareness

A community health centre reports that 60 of 1,000 screened adults have newly detected diabetes. Which measure does this represent?

  1. Incidence of diabetes in the screened group
  2. Attack rate of diabetes
  3. Point prevalence of diabetes in the screened group Correct answer.
  4. Case fatality of diabetes

Explanation

Screening identifies all persons with the condition at the time of screening, so the proportion affected represents prevalence at that point. Incidence would require follow-up to count new cases arising over time, and case fatality and attack rate apply to different situations.

Question 45General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following best explains why randomisation is used in a clinical trial?

  1. It ensures the sample size can be reduced to a minimum
  2. It guarantees that every participant receives the effective treatment
  3. It balances known and unknown confounders between groups, making comparison fair Correct answer.
  4. It removes the need for informed consent

Explanation

Random allocation distributes both measured and unmeasured confounding factors between groups with similar probability, so differences in outcome can be attributed to the intervention. It does not guarantee benefit to participants, remove consent requirements or fix sample size.

Question 46General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the most appropriate measure to compare disease frequency between two populations that differ in age structure?

  1. Age-standardised rates Correct answer.
  2. Absolute number of cases
  3. Total hospital admissions
  4. Crude death rates

Explanation

Age standardisation adjusts rates to a common reference age structure so that populations with different age compositions can be compared fairly. Crude rates, absolute case counts and admission totals are all distorted by differences in age distribution and population size.

Question 47General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the main function of a Health Management Information System in a district health office?

  1. Regulating drug prices in the private market
  2. Collecting, collating and using routine service data for planning and monitoring Correct answer.
  3. Accrediting medical colleges
  4. Conducting clinical trials of new drugs

Explanation

HMIS captures routine data from health facilities on services, coverage and outcomes so managers can monitor performance and plan resources. Clinical trials, price regulation and college accreditation belong to other bodies.

Question 48General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following best describes the concept of 'herd immunity' in an immunisation programme?

  1. The immunity provided by a single dose of any vaccine
  2. Resistance to infection produced by antibiotics
  3. Immunity acquired only after natural infection
  4. Indirect protection of unimmunised persons when a sufficiently high proportion of the population is immune Correct answer.

Explanation

When a high proportion of a population is immune, transmission chains break and even unimmunised individuals are indirectly protected. It is not limited to natural infection, does not follow from a single dose of every vaccine, and is unrelated to antibiotics.

Question 49General Knowledge and Awareness

Which of the following is the correct description of a 'notifiable disease' in Indian public health practice?

  1. A disease that health facilities are legally required to report to designated public health authorities Correct answer.
  2. A disease that can be treated only by specialists
  3. A disease that is always fatal if untreated
  4. A disease for which treatment is provided free of cost in all hospitals

Explanation

Notifiable diseases must be reported to public health authorities so that surveillance, outbreak investigation and control measures can be initiated. Notification status is independent of treatment cost, fatality or the level of specialist required.

Question 50General Knowledge and Awareness

A hospital pharmacy wants to reduce medication errors during high-alert drug administration. Which practice is most appropriate?

  1. Independent double-check of dose calculation and pump settings before administration Correct answer.
  2. Relying on verbal orders alone for high-alert drugs
  3. Storing high-alert drugs with routine stock without labels
  4. Allowing any staff member to prepare chemotherapy without training

Explanation

Independent double-checks by a second qualified person before administering high-alert medications detect calculation and programming errors. Verbal-only orders, unlabelled storage and untrained preparation all increase the risk of serious harm.