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APPSC FBO practice questions

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Question 1Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which body is established as the apex national authority for laying down science-based standards for articles of food and regulating their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import?

  1. Directorate General of Health Services
  2. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India Correct answer.
  3. Indian Council of Medical Research
  4. Central Committee for Food Standards

Explanation

The Act creates the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India as the single apex body that frames science-based standards and regulates the food sector. It consolidates functions earlier split among several ministries and orders. The Central Committee only advises on standards and the DGHS has no standard-setting mandate under the Act.

Question 2Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A person who wishes to manufacture or sell any article of food must hold a licence or registration under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. Which provision makes this requirement explicit?

  1. Section 26
  2. Section 31 Correct answer.
  3. Section 63
  4. Section 51

Explanation

Section 31 of the Act prohibits any person from commencing or carrying on a food business except under a licence or registration. Section 26 lists the duties of a food business operator, while Section 51 and Section 63 deal with penalties and adjudication respectively.

Question 3Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India consists of a Chairperson and how many other members under the Act?

  1. Twenty-five
  2. Twenty-two Correct answer.
  3. Fifteen
  4. Eighteen

Explanation

Section 5 of the Act provides that the Authority consists of a Chairperson and twenty-two other members. These include members representing ministries, states, agriculture, industry, consumers and scientific experts. The figure must be distinguished from the much smaller Central Committee composition.

Question 4Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which schedule of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 lists the Acts and Orders that were repealed by it?

  1. The Third Schedule
  2. The Second Schedule Correct answer.
  3. The First Schedule
  4. The Fourth Schedule

Explanation

The Second Schedule of the Act enumerates the enactments that stand repealed, such as the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 and the Fruit Products Order, 1955. The First Schedule deals with the system of grading of food, while the Third Schedule addresses hygiene requirements.

Question 5Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, the Central Advisory Committee is constituted primarily to advise on which aspect of food safety?

  1. Collection of licence fees from manufacturers
  2. Prosecution of food business operators in courts
  3. Appointment of the Chairperson of the Authority
  4. Scientific and technical matters relating to standards and food safety Correct answer.

Explanation

Section 11 establishes the Central Advisory Committee to advise the Authority on scientific and technical matters and to coordinate with states and stakeholders. It has an advisory role and does not perform judicial or fee-collection functions. Prosecution and fee collection belong to other authorities.

Question 6Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A food business operator is found selling food that is misbranded. Which type of offence does this constitute under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?

  1. A grievous offence always punishable with imprisonment
  2. An offence that attracts cancellation of licence only
  3. A non-grievous offence punishable with fine up to five lakh rupees Correct answer.
  4. An offence that attracts only a warning

Explanation

Section 52 treats misbranded food as a non-grievous offence carrying a fine up to five lakh rupees. Where the misbranding causes grievous injury, the penalty escalates to imprisonment and a higher fine. The Act distinguishes misbranding from unsafe and substandard food categories.

Question 7Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which authority is empowered under the Act to specify the procedure for taking samples of food for analysis?

  1. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India Correct answer.
  2. The State Police Department
  3. The Municipal Revenue Office
  4. The District Consumer Forum

Explanation

The Authority frames regulations, including the Food Safety and Standards (Laboratory and Sample Analysis) Regulations, prescribing sampling procedure. Sampling must follow these rules so that analytical results stand up in adjudication. Police, consumer forums and revenue offices have no sampling rule-making power.

Question 8Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, who is designated as the Commissioner of Food Safety for a State?

  1. The Municipal Health Officer by default
  2. An officer appointed by the State Government Correct answer.
  3. The District Collector by default
  4. An officer elected by food businesses

Explanation

Section 30 provides that the State Government shall appoint a Commissioner of Food Safety for the State. The Commissioner heads the food safety administration within the state and supervises designated officers. The role is not held ex officio by collectors or municipal officers.

Question 9Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following best describes the role of a Food Safety Officer under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?

  1. To fix the annual budget of the Authority
  2. To frame national food standards for the Authority
  3. To inspect food businesses, seize unsafe food and take samples for analysis Correct answer.
  4. To hear appeals against orders of the Commissioner

Explanation

Food Safety Officers are field officers who inspect premises, seize unsafe articles of food and draw samples for analysis. They report to the Designated Officer and Commissioner of Food Safety. Standard framing, appeals and budgeting lie with other bodies.

Question 10Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A manufacturer disputes an order of the Designated Officer refusing to renew its licence. Which forum hears the appeal under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?

  1. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India directly
  2. The Central Advisory Committee
  3. The Supreme Court of India
  4. The Commissioner of Food Safety of the State Correct answer.

Explanation

Section 31 read with the licensing regulations provides that an appeal against an order of the Designated Officer lies before the Commissioner of Food Safety. The Commissioner reviews the order and may confirm, modify or reverse it. The Authority and the Central Advisory Committee are not appellate bodies for such orders.

Question 11Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following is a duty of a food business operator specifically enumerated under Section 26 of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?

  1. Conducting adjudication of penalties
  2. Appointing the Chairperson of the Authority
  3. Framing the national food safety standards
  4. Ensuring that food satisfies the requirements of the Act and rules and regulations made under it Correct answer.

Explanation

Section 26 casts duties on food business operators, including ensuring that the food meets the Act and its regulations and that the business complies with conditions of licence. Framing standards, appointing the Chairperson and adjudicating penalties are functions of other bodies.

Question 12Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 received the assent of the President and came into force in which year?

  1. 2008
  2. 2014
  3. 2011
  4. 2006 Correct answer.

Explanation

The Act was passed and received presidential assent in 2006, though most provisions were brought into force subsequently. The Food Safety and Standards Regulations were notified in 2011. The Act's long title itself records the year 2006.

Question 13Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following is treated as 'unsafe food' under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?

  1. Food sold without a printed expiry date
  2. Food packed in a transparent wrapper
  3. Food containing an extraneous substance injurious to health Correct answer.
  4. Food priced above the maximum retail price

Explanation

Section 3(1)(zz) defines unsafe food to include articles containing poisonous or deleterious substances, or otherwise injurious to health. Missing particulars like an expiry date may amount to misbranding rather than unsafe food. Packaging colour and pricing are not criteria of unsafety.

Question 14Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, a person aggrieved by a decision of the Food Safety Appellate Tribunal may appeal to which authority?

  1. The High Court Correct answer.
  2. The Central Advisory Committee
  3. The Commissioner of Food Safety
  4. The Designated Officer

Explanation

Section 70 provides that an appeal against an order of the Food Safety Appellate Tribunal lies to the High Court. The Tribunal is the appellate forum against orders of adjudicating officers, so the next tier is the High Court. The Commissioner and Designated Officer are subordinate administrative authorities.

Question 15Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is required to perform its functions without the direction of any other authority. Which provision reflects this independence?

  1. Section 16 Correct answer.
  2. Section 91
  3. Section 26
  4. Section 5

Explanation

Section 16 states that the Authority shall not be subject to the direction of any other authority while discharging its functions. This guarantees scientific independence in standard setting. Section 5 deals with composition, Section 26 with operator duties and Section 91 with power to make regulations.

Question 16Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following is a function of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India under Section 16 of the Act?

  1. Specifying the procedures and guidelines for accreditation of certification bodies engaged in food safety Correct answer.
  2. Trying offences under the Act
  3. Collecting sales tax on food products
  4. Appointing judges to the Food Safety Appellate Tribunal

Explanation

Section 16 lists the Authority's functions, which include specifying procedures and guidelines for accreditation of certification bodies and laboratories. Trying offences, appointing tribunal judges and collecting sales tax belong to courts, governments and revenue authorities respectively.

Question 17Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which regulation under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 prescribes the requirements for food additives?

  1. Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins and Residues) Regulations, 2011
  2. Food Safety and Standards (Food Products Standards and Food Additives) Regulations, 2011 Correct answer.
  3. Food Safety and Standards (Licensing and Registration of Food Businesses) Regulations, 2011
  4. Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011

Explanation

The Food Products Standards and Food Additives Regulations, 2011 set out permitted additives and their limits along with product standards. The licensing regulations deal with registration and licences, packaging regulations with labels, and contaminants regulations with permissible residue limits.

Question 18Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A small hawker selling food from a temporary stall wishes to commence business. Under the Food Safety and Standards Regulations, 2011, which requirement applies to such a petty food business operator?

  1. A full central licence from the Authority
  2. Registration with the local authority Correct answer.
  3. Approval from the Central Advisory Committee
  4. A no-objection certificate from the High Court

Explanation

The Licensing and Registration Regulations, 2011 provide that petty food business operators, including small hawkers, need only register with the registering authority. Larger businesses require a state or central licence depending on turnover and scale. Central Committee approval and court certificates are not part of the scheme.

Question 19Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Under the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011, which particular must appear on the label of a pre-packaged food article?

  1. The licence fee paid by the operator
  2. Name of the Food Safety Officer who inspected the unit
  3. Name and complete address of the manufacturer or packer Correct answer.
  4. The date of inspection by the Designated Officer

Explanation

The labelling regulations require the name and full address of the manufacturer or packer, along with other particulars such as net quantity, ingredients and date marking. Inspection details and licence fee amounts are administrative records and are not label particulars.

Question 20Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following is the maximum period within which the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India may specify standards after the commencement of the Act, as originally contemplated?

  1. Within one year of commencement Correct answer.
  2. No time limit was fixed
  3. Within ten years of commencement
  4. Within five years of commencement

Explanation

Section 92 of the Act provides that the Authority shall specify the standards within one year from the commencement of the Act. This transitional provision was meant to create a unified standards framework quickly. It is distinct from the general power to frame regulations.

Question 21Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following is true of the Food Safety Appellate Tribunal constituted under the Act?

  1. It frames standards for the Authority
  2. It grants food business licences
  3. It appoints the Commissioner of Food Safety
  4. It hears appeals against orders of the adjudicating officer Correct answer.

Explanation

Section 70 provides for a Food Safety Appellate Tribunal to hear appeals against orders of the adjudicating officer. The Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body and does not frame standards, appoint commissioners or issue licences. Its orders are appealable to the High Court.

Question 22Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, an adjudicating officer is empowered to decide penalties for which category of offences?

  1. Offences punishable with imprisonment of more than three years
  2. Offences relating to murder committed in a food factory
  3. Offences where the penalty is a fine only and no imprisonment is prescribed Correct answer.
  4. Offences under the Income Tax Act

Explanation

Section 68 empowers adjudicating officers to adjudicate offences where the penalty is a fine only. Offences carrying imprisonment are tried by courts. The adjudicating officer thus handles non-grievous and similar fine-only offences.

Question 23Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following is the correct sequence of food safety administration from the national to the local level under the Act?

  1. Commissioner of Food Safety, Authority, Food Safety Officer, Designated Officer
  2. Food Safety Officer, Authority, Commissioner of Food Safety, Designated Officer
  3. Authority, Commissioner of Food Safety, Designated Officer, Food Safety Officer Correct answer.
  4. Designated Officer, Food Safety Officer, Authority, Commissioner of Food Safety

Explanation

The Act creates a hierarchy in which the Authority sits at the national level, the Commissioner of Food Safety heads the state, the Designated Officer supervises licensing in a district and the Food Safety Officer works in the field. This chain ensures supervisory control and accountability.

Question 24Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A laboratory analyst finds that a sample of milk contains a pesticide residue above the prescribed limit. Under which regulation is the permissible limit for such residue specified?

  1. Food Safety and Standards (Food Products Standards and Food Additives) Regulations, 2011
  2. Food Safety and Standards (Licensing and Registration of Food Businesses) Regulations, 2011
  3. Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins and Residues) Regulations, 2011 Correct answer.
  4. Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011

Explanation

Permissible limits for contaminants, toxins and pesticide residues are laid down in the Contaminants, Toxins and Residues Regulations, 2011. The additives regulations cover permitted additives, while licensing and labelling regulations address other matters. The residue limit is therefore traced to the contaminants regulations.

Question 25Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which of the following persons is expressly barred from being a member of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India?

  1. A person who has served in a state health department
  2. A person holding a postgraduate degree in food science
  3. A person who is a consumer representative
  4. A person who has a financial interest in a food business Correct answer.

Explanation

Section 7 disqualifies persons with financial or other interest in food businesses from membership of the Authority, to preserve impartiality. Qualifications in food science, prior government service and consumer representation are not disqualifications. The restriction targets conflicts of interest.

Question 26Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which body is the apex authority responsible for laying down science-based standards for articles of food and regulating their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import?

  1. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India Correct answer.
  2. Central Committee for Food Standards
  3. Food Safety Appellate Tribunal
  4. State Food Safety Advisory Council

Explanation

Section 4 of the Act establishes the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India as the apex body that lays down science-based standards and regulates the manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import of food so as to ensure safe and wholesome food for human consumption.

Question 27Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A Food Safety Officer seizes a consignment of packaged snacks suspected to be adulterated. Within what period must the Officer send the seized sample to the notified laboratory for analysis, counting from the date of seizure?

  1. Fourteen days Correct answer.
  2. Seven days
  3. Thirty days
  4. Forty-five days

Explanation

The Act requires that where a Food Safety Officer seizes any article of food, the sample must be sent to the food analyst within fourteen days from the date of seizure for analysis. This safeguards the integrity of the sample and gives the operator a fair evidentiary basis.

Question 28Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A food business operator wishes to challenge the report of the Food Analyst on the ground that the analysis was faulty. Under the Act, which course of action is available to the operator?

  1. Approach the Food Safety Appellate Tribunal for setting aside the analyst report
  2. File a writ petition directly before the Supreme Court of India
  3. Apply to the Designated Officer to have the sample sent to a referral laboratory for re-analysis Correct answer.
  4. Request the Food Safety Officer to conduct a fresh analysis personally

Explanation

Where a party disputes an analyst's report, the Act allows the sample to be referred to a referral laboratory notified by the Authority for a second opinion. The referral laboratory is the designated mechanism for resolving such technical disputes.

Question 29Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which regulation framed under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 lays down the limits for contaminants, toxins and residues in food?

  1. Food Safety and Standards (Food Products Standards and Food Additives) Regulations, 2011
  2. Food Safety and Standards (Licensing and Registration of Food Businesses) Regulations, 2011
  3. Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011
  4. Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins and Residues) Regulations, 2011 Correct answer.

Explanation

The Contaminants, Toxins and Residues Regulations, 2011 specifically prescribe the maximum permissible levels of contaminants, naturally occurring toxic substances, pesticide residues and other residues in food. They are the operative rules when a sample shows residues beyond permitted limits.

Question 30Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A Designated Officer proposes to pass an order suspending the licence of a dairy unit on grounds of public health risk. Which principle must the order respect to be valid under the Act?

  1. The order must be published in the Official Gazette before it takes effect
  2. The order must be passed only after a criminal conviction of the operator
  3. The order must be approved in advance by the Food Safety Appellate Tribunal
  4. The food business operator must be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before the order is passed Correct answer.

Explanation

The Act and the principles of natural justice require that a food business operator be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before an adverse licensing order is passed. An order passed without such hearing is vulnerable to challenge.

Question 31Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Under the Act, which of the following is a primary responsibility of a Food Business Operator in relation to the food supplied by it?

  1. Arranging for the analysis of food samples in every notified laboratory each month
  2. Ensuring that the food satisfies the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations made under it Correct answer.
  3. Certifying the nutritional claims of competitors' products
  4. Fixing the retail price of the food in consultation with the Authority

Explanation

Food business operators are responsible for ensuring that the food they manufacture, store, distribute or sell meets the requirements of the Act and the regulations. This responsibility runs through the entire food chain and is backed by the general obligations placed on operators.

Question 32Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

An operator holds a licence that is due for renewal. If the operator applies for renewal before the expiry of the licence, how is the licence treated until the renewal application is finally disposed of?

  1. It lapses on the date of expiry and the business must stop
  2. It continues to remain in force until the application is disposed of Correct answer.
  3. It is automatically converted into a registration certificate
  4. It remains valid only for a further period of thirty days

Explanation

The licensing regulations provide that where a renewal application is made before expiry, the existing licence continues in force until the application is disposed of by the Designated Officer. This prevents disruption of business during administrative processing.

Question 33Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following best describes the composition requirement for the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India?

  1. It is a body of officials drawn solely from the Indian Administrative Service
  2. It consists of a Chairperson and members appointed by the Central Government, including members representing States and Union Territories Correct answer.
  3. It is composed entirely of elected representatives from State legislatures
  4. It consists only of the Union Minister of Health as Chairperson and the Secretary as member

Explanation

The Authority is constituted by the Central Government with a Chairperson and a specified number of members, including representation for States and Union Territories. The composition is designed to combine scientific expertise with federal representation.

Question 34Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A company commits an offence under the Act and the prosecution seeks to fix liability on a director. Which condition must be satisfied for the director to be held liable?

  1. The director must be a food technologist registered with the Authority
  2. The director must personally have handled the food at the time of sampling
  3. The company must first be wound up by an order of the Authority
  4. The offence must be shown to have been committed with the consent or connivance of, or due to neglect on the part of, the director Correct answer.

Explanation

Where an offence is committed by a company, persons in charge of and responsible for the conduct of its business are liable, and a director or manager is liable only if the offence was committed with their consent or connivance or is attributable to their neglect. A due diligence defence is also available.

Question 35Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following is the correct description of the penalty structure for a first offence involving food that is unsafe but does not result in injury?

  1. Fine which may extend to two lakh rupees Correct answer.
  2. Fine which may extend to ten lakh rupees and imprisonment up to seven years
  3. Imprisonment up to six months only, with no fine
  4. Fine of exactly fifty thousand rupees with no discretion

Explanation

For sub-standard or unsafe food falling in the lower category of offences, the Act prescribes a fine which may extend to two lakh rupees for the first offence. Higher penalties are reserved for serious offences causing injury or death.

Question 36Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A consumer buys a packet of biscuits and finds that the 'best before' date has been tampered with. Which category of offence does this most appropriately attract?

  1. Failure to register as a food business operator
  2. Misbranding Correct answer.
  3. Unsolicited sale of sub-standard food
  4. Adulteration

Explanation

Tampering with date marking on a label amounts to misbranding, since the label no longer conveys accurate information about the article of food. Misbranding is separately dealt with from adulteration and sub-standard food.

Question 37Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following statements about the Food Safety Appellate Tribunal is accurate?

  1. It is a division of the Authority that reviews its own standards
  2. It exercises original jurisdiction over all food-related criminal trials
  3. It is constituted by the State Government and hears appeals against orders of the Food Safety Officer
  4. It is constituted by the Central Government and hears appeals against orders of the adjudicating officer Correct answer.

Explanation

The Act provides for a Food Safety Appellate Tribunal constituted by the Central Government to hear appeals against orders of the adjudicating officer. Its jurisdiction is appellate, and it does not conduct trials or set standards.

Question 38Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

A State Government intends to appoint a Commissioner of Food Safety. Which of the following is consistent with the Act?

  1. The Chief Justice of the High Court appoints the Commissioner
  2. The Commissioner is elected by the local municipal bodies
  3. The State Government appoints a person who is a food safety professional or a person with experience in food safety matters Correct answer.
  4. The Authority appoints the Commissioner without consulting the State Government

Explanation

The Act contemplates that the State Government appoints the Commissioner of Food Safety, who is entrusted with implementing food safety measures in the State. The appointment is an executive function of the State Government.

Question 39Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

An adjudicating officer is deciding a case involving a small food business that has committed a minor labelling violation. Which consideration best reflects the statutory approach to penalties?

  1. The adjudicating officer must impose imprisonment in addition to any fine
  2. The adjudicating officer must impose the maximum penalty prescribed in all cases
  3. The adjudicating officer must refer every case to the Authority for approval of the penalty
  4. The adjudicating officer must consider the nature and gravity of the violation and the size of the business while imposing the penalty Correct answer.

Explanation

The Act's penalty provisions operate within prescribed maxima, and the adjudicating officer is expected to weigh the nature and gravity of the violation and the scale of the business. This allows proportionate penalties rather than a uniform maximum.

Question 40Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and Regulations

Which of the following describes the role of the Central Committee for Food Standards under the Act?

  1. It conducts inspections of food businesses in place of Food Safety Officers
  2. It issues licences to food businesses operating across State borders
  3. It advises the Authority on matters relating to food standards and coordinates the work of State authorities Correct answer.
  4. It hears appeals against the orders of the Designated Officer

Explanation

The Central Committee for Food Standards is a statutory advisory body that advises the Authority on standards and coordination of food safety administration across States. It does not perform licensing, inspection or appellate functions.

Question 41Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

Which organism is the primary reservoir associated with Salmonella Enteritidis outbreaks traced to shell eggs?

  1. Airborne spores in flour mills
  2. Marine shellfish beds
  3. Infected poultry reproductive tissue Correct answer.
  4. Contaminated irrigation water

Explanation

Salmonella Enteritidis colonises the ovary and oviduct of laying hens, so the organism can be deposited inside a normal-looking shell before the egg is laid. This vertical (transovarian) route explains why intact, unbroken eggs can carry the pathogen. Water, shellfish and air are not the recognised reservoirs for egg-associated Enteritidis.

Question 42Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

Clostridium botulinum spores in a low-acid canned food are destroyed only when the process achieves which condition at the cold point?

  1. 2 D at 100 degrees Celsius
  2. 12 D at 121 degrees Celsius Correct answer.
  3. 6 D at 63 degrees Celsius
  4. 5 D at 72 degrees Celsius

Explanation

The established minimum botulinum cook for low-acid canned foods is a 12-decimal reduction of Clostridium botulinum spores, delivered at a reference temperature of 121 degrees Celsius at the slowest-heating point. Lower temperatures such as 100 degrees Celsius do not inactivate the spores. Pasteurisation temperatures are used for vegetative pathogens, not for spore destruction.

Question 43Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

A food handler with a discharging lesion on the finger contaminates a ready-to-eat dessert. Which illness is most likely to result?

  1. Typhoid fever
  2. Staphylococcal food poisoning Correct answer.
  3. Hepatitis A
  4. Trichinellosis

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus colonises skin lesions and is transferred by direct hand contact to foods that are then held warm, allowing preformed enterotoxin to accumulate. The toxin is heat stable, so reheating does not prevent illness. Typhoid, hepatitis A and Trichinella are not transmitted from purulent skin lesions in this way.

Question 44Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

Which growth characteristic makes Listeria monocytogenes particularly difficult to control in chilled ready-to-eat foods?

  1. It requires a water activity above 0.98
  2. It multiplies at refrigeration temperatures Correct answer.
  3. It grows only in the presence of oxygen
  4. It is inactivated by moderate salt levels

Explanation

Listeria monocytogenes is psychrotrophic and continues to grow at typical chilled storage temperatures near 4 degrees Celsius, so numbers can increase during shelf life even when initial contamination is low. It is also relatively salt tolerant and grows under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions. These traits make refrigerated ready-to-eat products a recognised risk category.

Question 45Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

In a suspected Bacillus cereus food poisoning, which pair of food and symptom pattern is typical of the emetic syndrome?

  1. Raw milk, fever and sore throat after one week
  2. Reheated cooked rice, vomiting within a few hours Correct answer.
  3. Undercooked poultry, bloody diarrhoea after three days
  4. Canned beans, double vision after twelve hours

Explanation

The emetic syndrome follows ingestion of cereulide, a heat-stable toxin preformed in starchy foods such as cooked rice that are held at ambient temperature and reheated. Vomiting begins within about one to six hours. The diarrhoeal syndrome instead results from enterotoxin produced in the small intestine after a longer incubation.

Question 46Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

Which organism is the leading bacterial cause of gastroenteritis worldwide and is typically linked to undercooked poultry and unpasteurised milk?

  1. Shigella dysenteriae
  2. Campylobacter jejuni Correct answer.
  3. Vibrio cholerae
  4. Yersinia pestis

Explanation

Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most frequently reported bacterial causes of human gastroenteritis and is strongly associated with poultry, raw milk and contaminated water. Illness often presents with bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. Shigella, Yersinia pestis and Vibrio cholerae have different reservoirs and transmission patterns.

Question 47Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

A batch of fermented sausages is being assessed for safety. Which intrinsic parameter most directly restricts growth of Staphylococcus aureus during fermentation?

  1. An increase in the moisture content of the sausage
  2. A reduction in the fat content of the meat blend
  3. A drop in pH from the added starter culture Correct answer.
  4. A rise in storage temperature to 30 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Competitive starter cultures lower pH rapidly, and S. aureus growth and enterotoxin formation are inhibited as acidity increases. Rapid acidification during fermentation is therefore a critical control measure. Moisture, higher temperature and lower fat do not restrict growth and may favour it.

Question 48Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

Which mycotoxin is associated with Aspergillus flavus infection of groundnuts and is a recognised liver carcinogen?

  1. Patulin
  2. Ochratoxin A
  3. Deoxynivalenol
  4. Aflatoxin B1 Correct answer.

Explanation

Aflatoxin B1 is produced by Aspergillus flavus and related species in warm, humid conditions on groundnuts, maize and tree nuts. It is activated to an epoxide that binds DNA and is classified as a human liver carcinogen. The other toxins listed come from different moulds and have different target organs.

Question 49Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

Which control measure is most appropriate for preventing paralytic shellfish poisoning from bivalve molluscs?

  1. Holding the shellfish live in fresh water for 24 hours
  2. Routine monitoring of harvesting waters for toxigenic algae and shellfish toxin levels Correct answer.
  3. Washing the shellfish in chlorinated water before sale
  4. Cooking the shellfish to an internal temperature of 60 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Saxitoxins accumulate in bivalves that filter toxic dinoflagellates, and the toxins are heat stable, so cooking or washing does not make the product safe. Control therefore relies on harvesting-area classification, algal monitoring and end-product toxin testing with closures when limits are exceeded. Depuration in clean water removes bacteria but not these toxins.

Question 50Food Microbiology and Food-Borne Pathogens

Which factor most directly determines whether Clostridium perfringens can multiply to high numbers in cooked meat that is cooled slowly?

  1. The time the food spends in the temperature danger zone Correct answer.
  2. The presence of added herbs
  3. The colour of the cooked product
  4. The vitamin content of the meat

Explanation

Clostridium perfringens spores survive cooking and germinate when the food cools slowly through the danger zone, where vegetative cells multiply rapidly. Prolonged cooling of large meat joints is therefore a classic cause of outbreaks. Vitamin content, colour and herbs do not govern this growth.