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Haryana BSEH Secondary NSQF Healthcare study materials
Haryana BSEH Secondary NSQF Healthcare study resources

Haryana BSEH Secondary NSQF Healthcare practice questions

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Question 1Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

Under the NSQF, what does the qualification level of a Healthcare Sector job primarily indicate about a worker?

  1. The district in which the worker is registered for employment
  2. The complexity of skills and the autonomy expected in that job role Correct answer.
  3. The monthly salary slab fixed by the employer for that role
  4. The number of years the worker has spent in the same hospital

Explanation

NSQF levels describe learning outcomes: the depth of knowledge, the range of skills and the level of responsibility or autonomy a job demands. They are not salary bands, seniority counters or geographic registrations, so a higher level signals more complex and independent work.

Question 2Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

A patient in a hospital is first seen by a junior doctor, then referred to a cardiologist, and later shifted to an intensive care unit. Which feature of the healthcare system does this sequence best illustrate?

  1. Parallel private insurance claim processing
  2. Referral and tiered levels of care within the delivery system Correct answer.
  3. Procurement of medicines by the hospital pharmacy
  4. Direct self-treatment by the patient without professional advice

Explanation

The sequence shows progressive movement through levels of care, from primary contact to specialist and then to critical care, coordinated through referral. This tiered structure is a defining feature of organised health service delivery rather than an insurance or pharmacy process.

Question 3Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

Which of the following is the best example of a preventive healthcare service?

  1. Palliative care for a terminally ill patient
  2. Emergency surgery after a road traffic accident
  3. Physiotherapy for a healed fracture
  4. Immunisation of children against measles and rubella Correct answer.

Explanation

Preventive services act before disease occurs, and vaccination against measles and rubella stops infection in the first place. Surgery, rehabilitation and palliative care all address an existing condition and therefore belong to curative, restorative or supportive care.

Question 4Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

In India's public health structure, which body is primarily responsible for planning and delivering health services at the district level?

  1. The District Health Society under the National Health Mission Correct answer.
  2. The Medical Council of India
  3. The Employees' State Insurance Corporation
  4. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority

Explanation

District Health Societies, formed under the National Health Mission, bring together district officials and plan, fund and monitor health services locally. Regulatory councils, insurance corporations and pricing authorities perform different national roles and do not deliver district health services.

Question 5Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

A community health worker visits households to check whether pregnant women have received antenatal check-ups and iron supplements. Which level of prevention does this activity represent?

  1. Primary prevention through early risk detection in the community Correct answer.
  2. Quaternary prevention through avoiding unnecessary tests
  3. Curative care through surgical intervention
  4. Tertiary prevention through long-term rehabilitation

Explanation

Antenatal screening and supplement distribution aim to detect risk and prevent complications before harm occurs, which is early detection within primary prevention at the community level. Rehabilitation, over-testing avoidance and surgery do not match the described household activity.

Question 6Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

What is the main purpose of maintaining a patient's medical record in a hospital?

  1. To advertise the hospital's success rate to prospective patients
  2. To determine the patient's eligibility for a government subsidy
  3. To provide continuous, documented clinical information for safe ongoing care Correct answer.
  4. To replace the need for informed consent from the patient

Explanation

Medical records preserve clinical findings, treatment and outcomes so that every caregiver can make informed decisions and continuity of care is maintained. They serve clinical, legal and audit purposes but cannot substitute for consent or decide subsidy eligibility.

Question 7Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

A hospital wants to reduce the risk of healthcare-associated infection. Which practice contributes most directly to this goal?

  1. Hand hygiene at the recommended moments of patient contact Correct answer.
  2. Storing sterile supplies in open corridors
  3. Increasing the number of visitors allowed per bed
  4. Reusing single-use gloves after washing them

Explanation

Hand hygiene at the defined moments of patient contact is the single most effective routine measure against cross-transmission of pathogens in health facilities. More visitors, open storage and glove reuse all increase contamination risk rather than reduce it.

Question 8Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

Which statement correctly describes the role of a healthcare support worker within the multidisciplinary team?

  1. Prescribing medicines for common illnesses seen on the ward
  2. Performing independent surgery without supervision
  3. Providing basic patient care and reporting changes to the supervising nurse or doctor Correct answer.
  4. Finalising the hospital's annual budget for each department

Explanation

Support workers deliver basic care such as hygiene, feeding assistance and mobility help, and they escalate any observed change to a qualified supervisor. Prescribing, surgery and budgeting require separate statutory qualifications and authority.

Question 9Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

A rural family cannot afford private hospital treatment and uses the government primary health centre for basic illness. Which objective of a public health system does this best reflect?

  1. Equitable access to essential services regardless of ability to pay Correct answer.
  2. Restricting services to urban residents only
  3. Maximising profit from each patient visit
  4. Encouraging patients to avoid qualified practitioners

Explanation

Public health systems aim to provide essential services equitably so that financial capacity does not decide who receives basic care. The scenario shows affordability being protected through a government facility, which is the opposite of profit-seeking or exclusion.

Question 10Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

Which pair correctly matches a national health programme with its primary focus?

  1. National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme - cancer screening
  2. National Health Mission - medicine price control
  3. Integrated Child Development Services - road accident trauma care
  4. National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke - non-communicable diseases Correct answer.

Explanation

The NPCDCS programme addresses non-communicable diseases including cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular disease and stroke. The other pairings attach each programme to a focus that belongs to a different agency or scheme.

Question 11Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

A patient signs a form after the doctor explains a procedure, its risks and the alternatives. Which principle of healthcare ethics is being applied?

  1. Beneficence shown by charging the lowest fee
  2. Confidentiality maintained by hiding the diagnosis
  3. Respect for patient autonomy through informed consent Correct answer.
  4. Justice shown by giving the patient a private room

Explanation

Informed consent operationalises autonomy: the patient understands the procedure, its risks and alternatives and then voluntarily agrees. Fee levels, room type and concealment of diagnosis do not express this principle and hiding a diagnosis would breach transparency.

Question 12Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

Which activity is the clearest example of secondary prevention?

  1. Vaccinating infants against tuberculosis
  2. Screening a population for early detection of hypertension Correct answer.
  3. Providing a balanced diet to prevent malnutrition
  4. Rehabilitating a patient after a stroke

Explanation

Secondary prevention detects disease early in people who already have it but show no symptoms, allowing prompt treatment; screening for hypertension fits this exactly. Diet and vaccination prevent onset, while stroke rehabilitation reduces disability after established disease.

Question 13Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

A district hospital reports that most maternal deaths occurred because women reached the facility too late. Which system-level response best addresses this gap?

  1. Reducing the number of skilled birth attendants on duty
  2. Charging higher fees for emergency obstetric admission
  3. Strengthening referral transport and community awareness for timely arrival Correct answer.
  4. Closing the nearest primary health centre to save funds

Explanation

Delayed arrival points to a problem in access and demand, so improving emergency transport and community awareness directly targets the delay. Cutting staff, closing nearby facilities or raising emergency fees would worsen access and outcomes.

Question 14Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

In a health facility, which document is used to record a patient's presenting complaints, examination findings and treatment plan during an outpatient visit?

  1. The equipment calibration log
  2. The outpatient case sheet or OPD card Correct answer.
  3. The staff attendance muster roll
  4. The hospital's fire safety register

Explanation

The outpatient case sheet captures the clinical encounter: complaints, examination, diagnosis and plan, so it forms part of the patient's medical record. Fire registers, attendance rolls and calibration logs are administrative or technical records with no clinical content.

Question 15Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

A hospital introduces a policy that all staff must clean hands before and after every patient contact, and audits compliance monthly. Which description best captures this as a quality-improvement step?

  1. A measurable standard with monitoring to close gaps between expected and actual practice Correct answer.
  2. A legal requirement that applies only to visitors
  3. A one-time training event with no follow-up measurement
  4. A financial incentive scheme for doctors only

Explanation

Quality improvement sets a defined standard, measures performance against it and uses the findings to correct gaps, which is exactly what a hand hygiene policy with monthly audit does. A single training session, a doctor-only incentive or a visitor-only rule lacks this measurement-and-correction cycle.

Question 16Introduction to Healthcare and the Healthcare System

Which statement best explains why health insurance and government schemes matter within a healthcare system?

  1. They replace the need for qualified clinical staff in hospitals
  2. They guarantee that every hospital will provide free treatment to all patients
  3. They remove the requirement for medical records during admission
  4. They pool financial risk so that treatment cost does not push families into poverty Correct answer.

Explanation

Insurance and public schemes collect contributions or tax funds and pool risk, so an individual's costly illness is shared across many payers and catastrophic spending is reduced. They do not make all care free everywhere, substitute for clinical staff or remove documentation duties.

Question 17Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which tissue type forms the covering and lining of body surfaces and cavities?

  1. Connective tissue
  2. Muscle tissue
  3. Epithelial tissue Correct answer.
  4. Nervous tissue

Explanation

Epithelial tissue covers and lines body surfaces, cavities and ducts, and rests on a basement membrane. It is avascular and cells are packed closely together with little intercellular material, which suits its role in protection, absorption and secretion.

Question 18Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A patient's blood report shows a haemoglobin level of 9 g/dL. Which function of blood is most directly reduced at this level?

  1. Defence against infection
  2. Transport of dissolved hormones
  3. Clotting at the injury site
  4. Oxygen transport to tissues Correct answer.

Explanation

Haemoglobin inside red blood cells binds oxygen in the lungs and carries it to tissues, so a low value limits oxygen delivery and causes anaemia. Clotting depends on platelets and clotting factors, while defence depends on white cells, so those functions are not primarily affected by haemoglobin concentration.

Question 19Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta?

  1. Right ventricle
  2. Right atrium
  3. Left atrium
  4. Left ventricle Correct answer.

Explanation

The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it through the aortic valve into the aorta for systemic circulation. Its thick muscular wall generates the high pressure needed to perfuse the whole body.

Question 20Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

During inspiration in a healthy adult, which change occurs?

  1. The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward
  2. The volume of the thoracic cavity decreases
  3. The diaphragm contracts and flattens Correct answer.
  4. The rib cage moves downward and inward

Explanation

Inspiration is active: the diaphragm contracts and flattens while external intercostal muscles lift the ribs. This enlarges the thoracic cavity, lowers intrathoracic pressure, and air flows into the lungs.

Question 21Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which part of the nephron is the main site of glucose reabsorption from the filtrate?

  1. Distal convoluted tubule
  2. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
  3. Collecting duct
  4. Proximal convoluted tubule Correct answer.

Explanation

The proximal convoluted tubule has a brush border rich in transporters and reabsorbs nearly all filtered glucose, amino acids and much of the sodium and water. Under normal blood glucose levels virtually no glucose remains in the urine.

Question 22Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A person suffers damage to the cerebellum. Which function is most likely to be affected?

  1. Interpretation of visual images
  2. Formation of long-term memory
  3. Regulation of body temperature
  4. Coordination of balance and smooth movement Correct answer.

Explanation

The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, posture and balance by comparing intended movement with sensory feedback. Damage produces unsteady gait, tremors and poor coordination rather than loss of sensation or memory.

Question 23Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which hormone lowers blood glucose by promoting uptake into cells and glycogen storage?

  1. Glucagon
  2. Adrenaline
  3. Cortisol
  4. Insulin Correct answer.

Explanation

Insulin is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets and lowers blood glucose by increasing cellular uptake and promoting glycogen synthesis in liver and muscle. The other hormones listed raise blood glucose.

Question 24Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which type of joint permits movement in only one plane, such as the elbow?

  1. Ball and socket joint
  2. Saddle joint
  3. Hinge joint Correct answer.
  4. Pivot joint

Explanation

A hinge joint allows flexion and extension in one plane only, as at the elbow and knee. The articulating surfaces are shaped so that movement is restricted to a single axis.

Question 25Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A worker lifts a heavy box with a bent back and straight knees. Which structure is at greatest risk of injury in this posture?

  1. Deltoid muscle of the shoulder
  2. Intervertebral discs of the lumbar spine Correct answer.
  3. Carpal bones of the wrist
  4. Patella of the knee

Explanation

Bending the back while lifting shifts load onto the lumbar intervertebral discs and increases shear forces on the spine. Keeping the back straight and using the leg muscles distributes the load more safely.

Question 26Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs?

  1. Pulmonary artery Correct answer.
  2. Coronary artery
  3. Pulmonary vein
  4. Aorta

Explanation

The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs, making it an exception to the rule that arteries carry oxygenated blood. The pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to the left atrium.

Question 27Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which layer of the skin contains sweat glands, hair follicles and sensory receptors?

  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis Correct answer.
  3. Subcutaneous fat layer
  4. Stratum corneum

Explanation

The dermis lies beneath the epidermis and contains sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair follicles, blood vessels and sensory nerve endings. The epidermis is avascular and the stratum corneum is only its outermost dead layer.

Question 28Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?

  1. Soft palate
  2. Uvula
  3. Glottis
  4. Epiglottis Correct answer.

Explanation

The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage that folds over the opening of the larynx during swallowing, directing the bolus into the oesophagus. Failure of this reflex allows aspiration into the airway.

Question 29Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

In which part of the digestive tract does most chemical digestion and nutrient absorption occur?

  1. Duodenum and jejunum Correct answer.
  2. Oesophagus
  3. Large intestine
  4. Stomach

Explanation

Most chemical digestion and absorption take place in the small intestine, especially the duodenum and jejunum, where enzymes from the pancreas and intestinal wall act on a large surface area. The stomach mainly begins protein digestion and the large intestine mainly absorbs water.

Question 30Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which type of muscle is involuntary and found in the walls of the intestine and blood vessels?

  1. Cardiac muscle
  2. Smooth muscle Correct answer.
  3. Striated voluntary muscle
  4. Skeletal muscle

Explanation

Smooth muscle is non-striated and involuntary, forming the walls of hollow organs such as the intestine, bladder and blood vessels. Its slow sustained contractions move contents without conscious control.

Question 31Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A patient has a fracture of the femur. Which immediate first-aid action is most appropriate before transport?

  1. Apply hot compresses to the site
  2. Ask the patient to walk to test the bone
  3. Immobilise the limb with a splint Correct answer.
  4. Massage the area to improve circulation

Explanation

Immobilising the suspected fracture with a splint reduces movement of bone ends, limiting further soft-tissue damage and pain during transport. Massage, weight-bearing and heat can worsen bleeding and displacement.

Question 32Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which blood cells are the main mediators of the body's specific immune response through antibody production?

  1. B lymphocytes Correct answer.
  2. Red blood cells
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Platelets

Explanation

B lymphocytes recognise specific antigens and differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies. This is the humoral arm of the specific immune response, distinct from the general phagocytic action of neutrophils.

Question 33Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which structure connects the fetus to the placenta and allows exchange of nutrients and oxygen?

  1. Fallopian tube
  2. Ovary
  3. Umbilical cord Correct answer.
  4. Cervix

Explanation

The umbilical cord contains two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein, linking the fetal circulation to the placenta. Nutrient and gas exchange occurs across the placental membrane, not by direct mixing of maternal and fetal blood.

Question 34Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which component of blood plasma is most responsible for maintaining the osmotic pressure that holds fluid within the vessels?

  1. Urea
  2. Glucose
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Albumin Correct answer.

Explanation

Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein and exerts the colloid osmotic pressure that draws water back into capillaries. A fall in albumin leads to oedema because fluid leaks into the tissues.

Question 35Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A patient's spirometry shows reduced tidal volume with a normal respiratory rate. What is the immediate effect on alveolar ventilation?

  1. It decreases because less fresh air reaches the alveoli per breath Correct answer.
  2. It remains unchanged because rate is normal
  3. It increases because oxygen diffusion improves
  4. It increases because dead space is eliminated

Explanation

Alveolar ventilation equals respiratory rate multiplied by the difference between tidal volume and dead space. If tidal volume falls while rate is unchanged, less fresh air reaches the alveoli and alveolar ventilation drops.

Question 36Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which statement correctly describes the path of a nerve impulse through a reflex arc?

  1. Effector, motor neuron, spinal cord, sensory neuron, receptor
  2. Spinal cord, receptor, effector, sensory neuron, motor neuron
  3. Receptor, sensory neuron, spinal cord, motor neuron, effector Correct answer.
  4. Receptor, motor neuron, brain, sensory neuron, effector

Explanation

In a reflex arc the stimulus is detected by a receptor, carried by a sensory neuron to the spinal cord, relayed to a motor neuron, and the response is produced by an effector such as a muscle. The brain is informed but does not initiate the reflex.

Question 37Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A person working in a hot kitchen sweats heavily and drinks only plain water. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely?

  1. Hypoglycaemia due to low blood sugar
  2. Hypercalcaemia due to calcium retention
  3. Hyperkalaemia due to potassium loading
  4. Hyponatraemia due to sodium loss and dilution Correct answer.

Explanation

Sweat contains sodium and chloride, so heavy sweating causes salt loss; replacing it with plain water dilutes the remaining sodium and can produce hyponatraemia. Symptoms include cramps, weakness and confusion.

Question 38Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which part of the brain acts as the main control centre for body temperature, thirst and water balance?

  1. Medulla oblongata
  2. Thalamus
  3. Cerebral cortex
  4. Hypothalamus Correct answer.

Explanation

The hypothalamus contains thermoregulatory and osmoregulatory centres and links the nervous and endocrine systems through the pituitary. It triggers sweating, shivering and ADH release to keep the internal environment stable.

Question 39Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A blood sample shows a raised neutrophil count with a normal lymphocyte count. Which interpretation is most consistent?

  1. Chronic viral illness
  2. Acute bacterial infection Correct answer.
  3. Iron-deficiency anaemia
  4. Vitamin K deficiency

Explanation

Neutrophils are the first phagocytes recruited to acute bacterial infections, so neutrophilia points to an acute bacterial process. Lymphocytosis is more typical of viral infection, while anaemia and vitamin K deficiency affect red cells and clotting rather than neutrophil numbers.

Question 40Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which structure in the male reproductive system stores sperm and allows them to mature before ejaculation?

  1. Vas deferens
  2. Epididymis Correct answer.
  3. Seminal vesicle
  4. Prostate gland

Explanation

The epididymis is a coiled tube on the back of each testis where sperm complete maturation and are stored. During ejaculation they pass through the vas deferens, joined by secretions from the prostate and seminal vesicles.

Question 41Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which statement about the cardiac cycle is correct?

  1. The atria contract while the ventricles relax and fill Correct answer.
  2. The atrioventricular valves open during ventricular systole
  3. The semilunar valves open during ventricular filling
  4. The first heart sound is caused by closure of the semilunar valves

Explanation

Atrial systole tops up the ventricles while they are relaxed, and the atrioventricular valves are open. The first heart sound is produced by closure of the atrioventricular valves at the start of ventricular systole.

Question 42Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

Which structure forms the functional unit of the kidney where filtration of blood takes place?

  1. Ureter
  2. Renal pelvis
  3. Urethra
  4. Nephron Correct answer.

Explanation

The nephron is the microscopic functional unit of the kidney, consisting of the glomerulus, Bowman's capsule and the tubules. Filtration of plasma begins in the glomerulus, and reabsorption and secretion occur along the tubule, producing urine.

Question 43Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

During inhalation at rest, which change in the thoracic cavity produces the movement of air into the lungs?

  1. The intercostal muscles relax and the ribs move downward
  2. The diaphragm relaxes and the thoracic volume decreases
  3. The pleural cavity fills with air and pushes the lungs open
  4. The diaphragm contracts and flattens, increasing thoracic volume Correct answer.

Explanation

When the diaphragm contracts it flattens and moves downward, while the external intercostals lift the ribs. This enlarges thoracic volume, lowers intrapulmonary pressure below atmospheric pressure, and air flows in.

Question 44Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A patient's ECG shows no P wave before each QRS complex, but the QRS complexes are narrow and regular. Which part of the conduction system is most likely failing to generate its normal impulse?

  1. Purkinje fibres
  2. Atrioventricular node
  3. Bundle of His
  4. Sinoatrial node Correct answer.

Explanation

The P wave represents atrial depolarisation triggered by the sinoatrial node, the natural pacemaker. If the SA node fails to fire, atrial depolarisation is absent or abnormal, so no normal P wave appears, while a lower pacemaker can still drive narrow QRS complexes.

Question 45Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A person's diet is severely deficient in iron for several months. Which change in the blood is most directly expected?

  1. A rise in the number of circulating platelets
  2. A fall in haemoglobin concentration with small, pale red cells Correct answer.
  3. An increase in plasma albumin concentration
  4. A rise in the number of lymphocytes

Explanation

Iron is an essential component of haem, so iron deficiency limits haemoglobin synthesis in developing red cells. The result is microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, with red cells that are smaller and paler than normal and a reduced haemoglobin concentration.

Question 46Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Human Body Systems

A patient has a lesion that destroys the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord at one level, while the dorsal root and dorsal columns remain intact. Which pattern of deficit is most consistent with this lesion?

  1. Spastic paralysis with exaggerated reflexes on the same side
  2. Loss of proprioception with normal voluntary movement
  3. Loss of voluntary movement and muscle tone on the same side, with preserved touch sensation Correct answer.
  4. Loss of pain and temperature sensation with preserved muscle power

Explanation

Anterior horn cells are the lower motor neurons whose axons leave via the ventral root to supply skeletal muscle. Their destruction causes flaccid paralysis, loss of tone and reflex loss in the muscles they innervate, while intact dorsal columns preserve touch and proprioception.

Question 47Infection Prevention, Personal Hygiene and Biomedical Waste Management

Under the BMW Management Rules followed in Indian healthcare facilities, which colour-coded bin is used for discarded human anatomical waste such as tissues and organs?

  1. Blue
  2. Yellow Correct answer.
  3. Red
  4. White

Explanation

Human anatomical waste, along with soiled waste, expired medicines and cytotoxic waste, is placed in the yellow category bin. Yellow-category waste is generally incinerated or deep-buried as per the rules. Red, white and blue bins correspond to recyclable contaminated plastics, sharps and glass respectively.

Question 48Infection Prevention, Personal Hygiene and Biomedical Waste Management

A healthcare worker is about to enter a room to clean a patient's bed linen. Which action best demonstrates correct hand hygiene timing according to the WHO 'My 5 Moments'?

  1. Performing hand hygiene only when hands are visibly soiled
  2. Performing hand hygiene once at the start of the shift
  3. Performing hand hygiene only after leaving the room
  4. Performing hand hygiene immediately before touching the patient or their surroundings Correct answer.

Explanation

The WHO moments include hand hygiene before touching a patient and before touching patient surroundings, which covers handling their linen. This prevents organisms on the worker's hands from being transferred to the patient. Hand hygiene after contact is also required, but it does not replace the before-contact moment.

Question 49Infection Prevention, Personal Hygiene and Biomedical Waste Management

Which of the following is the correct sequence for donning personal protective equipment before entering an isolation room?

  1. Gloves, gown, goggles, then mask
  2. Goggles, gloves, mask, then gown
  3. Gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, then gloves Correct answer.
  4. Mask, gloves, gown, then goggles

Explanation

PPE is put on from the cleanest to the most contaminated layer, so the gown goes first, then respiratory protection, then eye protection, and gloves last. Gloves are outermost and are removed first during doffing. This order minimises contamination of the worker's skin and clothing.

Question 50Infection Prevention, Personal Hygiene and Biomedical Waste Management

A sharps container in a treatment room is filled to the marked line. What is the correct action?

  1. Press the contents down to make more space
  2. Transfer the sharps into a plastic bag for disposal
  3. Close and seal it and start a fresh container Correct answer.
  4. Continue filling it until it is completely full

Explanation

Sharps containers must be sealed when they reach about three-quarters full so that no item protrudes and injuries are avoided. A full container is closed, labelled and sent for final disposal, and a new one is put in place. Never shake, press or empty a sharps container by hand.