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BSEH SS Physical Education study materials
BSEH SS Physical Education study resources

BSEH SS Physical Education practice questions

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Question 1Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

In the context of physical fitness, which component is best described as the ability of the heart, blood vessels and lungs to supply oxygen to working muscles during sustained activity?

  1. Cardiorespiratory endurance Correct answer.
  2. Body composition
  3. Flexibility
  4. Muscular strength

Explanation

Cardiorespiratory endurance specifically measures how efficiently the circulatory and respiratory systems deliver oxygen to muscles over prolonged exercise. Muscular strength concerns maximal force, flexibility concerns range of motion, and body composition concerns relative proportions of fat and lean mass.

Question 2Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

A student performs a sit-and-reach test. Which health-related fitness component is this test primarily designed to assess?

  1. Muscular endurance
  2. Cardiorespiratory endurance
  3. Flexibility of the lower back and hamstrings Correct answer.
  4. Agility

Explanation

The sit-and-reach box test measures how far a person can reach forward while seated with legs extended, indicating flexibility of the hamstrings and lower back. It does not measure endurance, aerobic capacity or agility.

Question 3Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Which of the following is classified as a skill-related component of physical fitness rather than a health-related component?

  1. Muscular endurance
  2. Balance Correct answer.
  3. Flexibility
  4. Body composition

Explanation

Skill-related components include agility, balance, coordination, power, reaction time and speed. Health-related components are cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility and body composition.

Question 4Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Which statement best defines wellness as it is used in lifestyle education?

  1. The absence of diagnosed disease at a medical check-up
  2. The deliberate pursuit of habits that improve physical, mental and social well-being Correct answer.
  3. The maximum load a person can lift in one repetition
  4. A single score obtained from a fitness test battery

Explanation

Wellness is broader than fitness or the mere absence of illness; it is an active, intentional process of choices that enhance physical, mental, emotional and social health. It is not a single test score or a one-off medical status.

Question 5Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

According to the widely used FITT principle for designing an aerobic training programme, what does the first letter stand for?

  1. Force
  2. Flexibility
  3. Frequency Correct answer.
  4. Fatigue

Explanation

FITT stands for Frequency, Intensity, Time and Type, the four variables manipulated when prescribing exercise. Frequency refers to how often training sessions occur each week.

Question 6Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Which dietary practice is most consistent with a lifestyle aimed at preventing lifestyle-related disease?

  1. Relying mainly on supplements instead of whole foods
  2. Skipping breakfast regularly to reduce total daily energy intake
  3. Replacing most refined sugars with whole grains, fruits and vegetables Correct answer.
  4. Increasing saturated fat intake to boost energy levels

Explanation

Diets rich in whole grains, fruits and vegetables and low in refined sugars are associated with reduced risk of obesity, type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Skipping meals, over-relying on supplements and raising saturated fat intake do not support prevention.

Question 7Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

A 16-year-old wants to improve cardiorespiratory endurance. Applying the overload principle, which adjustment is most appropriate?

  1. Keep training volume and intensity exactly the same each week
  2. Reduce training to once a week to allow full recovery
  3. Perform only static stretching for 30 minutes daily
  4. Gradually increase duration or intensity beyond the current habitual load Correct answer.

Explanation

Overload means exposing the body to a stimulus greater than it is accustomed to, so the system adapts. This must be progressive and gradual to avoid injury, and it applies specifically to the targeted fitness component.

Question 8Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

After a hard aerobic session, a performer notices that a training effect is lost when training stops for several weeks. Which training principle explains this observation?

  1. Principle of progression
  2. Principle of specificity
  3. Principle of individual differences
  4. Principle of reversibility Correct answer.

Explanation

The principle of reversibility, often summarised as 'use it or lose it', states that fitness gains diminish when training is discontinued. Specificity concerns the type of adaptation, individual differences concern variation between people, and progression concerns gradual increases in load.

Question 9Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Which measure is the most practical field indicator of body composition for a school setting?

  1. Sit-and-reach distance
  2. Body mass index calculated from height and mass Correct answer.
  3. Maximal oxygen uptake measured in a laboratory
  4. One-repetition maximum bench press

Explanation

Body mass index uses height and mass, requires only a stadiometer and scale, and is widely used as a screening indicator of body composition in schools. It is a screening tool rather than a direct measure of fat percentage.

Question 10Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

A beginner reports muscle soreness and joint pain after rapidly increasing training load in the first week. Which principle has most clearly been violated?

  1. Principle of variety
  2. Principle of progressive overload with adequate recovery Correct answer.
  3. Principle of reversibility
  4. Principle of specificity

Explanation

Progressive overload must be applied gradually and balanced with recovery so tissues can adapt. Jumping load too quickly in a beginner produces soreness and injury risk, showing that progression was not appropriately managed.

Question 11Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Which combination best represents the health-related components of physical fitness?

  1. Reaction time, power, speed, agility and balance
  2. Cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility and body composition Correct answer.
  3. Agility, balance, coordination, power and speed
  4. Flexibility, agility, reaction time, coordination and power

Explanation

Health-related components are those associated with good health and reduced disease risk: cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility and body composition. The other lists mix in skill-related components.

Question 12Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

A student can complete 30 curl-ups in one minute but cannot sustain a plank for more than 15 seconds. Which interpretation is most reasonable?

  1. The student has excellent flexibility of the trunk
  2. The student has low body composition
  3. The student shows good dynamic muscular endurance of the abdominals but limited isometric endurance Correct answer.
  4. The student has high muscular strength but poor cardiorespiratory endurance

Explanation

Curl-ups repeated for one minute assess dynamic muscular endurance, while a plank assesses isometric endurance of the trunk stabilisers. Performing well on one and poorly on the other indicates a specific rather than general endurance profile.

Question 13Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Which behaviour is most directly associated with an increased risk of lifestyle-related disease?

  1. Balanced meals containing fruit and vegetables daily
  2. Regular moderate-intensity physical activity on most days
  3. Adequate sleep of seven to nine hours per night
  4. Prolonged sitting combined with a high intake of energy-dense snacks Correct answer.

Explanation

Sedentary behaviour combined with excessive energy-dense snacking promotes positive energy balance, obesity, insulin resistance and cardiovascular risk. The other options describe protective lifestyle behaviours.

Question 14Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Which statement about the relationship between physical activity and mental wellness is best supported?

  1. Exercise reliably replaces medical treatment for clinical depression
  2. Physical activity has no measurable effect on mood
  3. Regular activity is associated with reduced symptoms of anxiety and depression Correct answer.
  4. Only competitive sport improves mental health

Explanation

Regular physical activity is associated with reduced anxiety and depressive symptoms and improved mood, partly through neurochemical and social mechanisms. It is a supportive measure and does not replace clinical treatment, nor is it limited to competitive sport.

Question 15Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

A coach prescribes a warm-up before a sprint session. Which physiological purpose is most directly served?

  1. Increasing body fat percentage before exercise
  2. Reducing joint range of motion to protect the joints
  3. Increasing muscle temperature and blood flow to reduce injury risk Correct answer.
  4. Lowering heart rate below resting values

Explanation

A warm-up raises muscle temperature, increases blood flow and enhances neuromuscular readiness, which reduces injury risk and improves performance. It does not raise body fat or reduce joint mobility.

Question 16Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Which statement about the cool-down phase is most accurate?

  1. It should involve gradual reduction of intensity and static stretching to aid recovery Correct answer.
  2. It should involve abrupt cessation of activity to test recovery
  3. It should consist of maximal sprinting to clear lactate
  4. It can be omitted because it has no effect on recovery

Explanation

A cool-down gradually lowers exercise intensity and includes gentle stretching, which helps return heart rate and blood pressure toward resting levels and may reduce stiffness. Abrupt stopping or maximal sprinting would be counterproductive.

Question 17Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

A student training for a 5 km run follows a programme of heavy resistance training only. Which principle best explains the limited improvement in running performance?

  1. Principle of periodisation
  2. Principle of reversibility
  3. Principle of specificity Correct answer.
  4. Principle of individual differences

Explanation

The principle of specificity states that training adaptations are specific to the type of stimulus applied. Resistance training develops strength, not aerobic capacity, so running performance changes little.

Question 18Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

A candidate argues that a high body mass index always indicates excessive body fat. Which criticism of that claim is most defensible?

  1. Body mass index is only valid for elite athletes
  2. Body mass index cannot be calculated in adolescents
  3. Body mass index measures flexibility rather than body composition
  4. Body mass index does not distinguish fat mass from lean mass, so muscular individuals may be misclassified Correct answer.

Explanation

Body mass index is a ratio of mass to height squared and does not separate fat from lean tissue, so heavily muscled people can score high without excess fat. It is a screening tool that should be interpreted alongside other measures.

Question 19Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Two students follow identical aerobic programmes, but one improves markedly while the other improves little. Which principle most directly accounts for this difference?

  1. Principle of individual differences Correct answer.
  2. Principle of reversibility
  3. Principle of specificity
  4. Principle of overload

Explanation

The principle of individual differences recognises that genetic, physiological, lifestyle and motivational factors cause people to respond differently to the same training. Overload and specificity address stimulus and type, not variability in response.

Question 20Physical Fitness, Wellness and Lifestyle

Which analysis best explains why a lifestyle approach is more effective than a single fitness test in promoting long-term wellness?

  1. Lifestyle changes only affect physical health and not mental health
  2. Fitness tests are always inaccurate and should not be used
  3. Wellness is determined entirely by genetic factors
  4. A fitness test measures only one attribute, whereas wellness depends on sustained habits across physical, mental and social dimensions Correct answer.

Explanation

Wellness is multidimensional and depends on ongoing behaviours affecting physical, mental, emotional and social health, so a single fitness test captures only a fragment. A lifestyle approach addresses habits, environment and behaviour over time, which supports lasting outcomes.

Question 21Planning in Sports

In a single-elimination tournament with 16 teams, how many matches are required in total?

  1. 16
  2. 15 Correct answer.
  3. 14
  4. 8

Explanation

In a single-elimination (knock-out) tournament, every match eliminates exactly one team, and the champion is the only team never eliminated, so the number of matches equals the number of teams minus one. For 16 teams this gives 16 − 1 = 15 matches.

Question 22Planning in Sports

A league tournament is organised on a double round-robin basis for 8 teams. How many matches will be played in total?

  1. 64
  2. 28
  3. 56 Correct answer.
  4. 16

Explanation

In a single round-robin each team plays every other team once, giving n(n − 1)/2 matches, which for 8 teams is 8 × 7 / 2 = 28. A double round-robin plays every pairing twice, so the total doubles to 56 matches.

Question 23Planning in Sports

In a knock-out tournament, byes are given primarily to achieve which planning purpose?

  1. To raise the total number of matches played
  2. To ensure the strongest teams meet in the first round
  3. To reduce the entry fee collected from teams
  4. To make the bracket equal to the next higher power of two so that every team can be placed Correct answer.

Explanation

A knock-out bracket works cleanly when the number of entries equals a power of two, so byes are awarded to fill the gap up to the next higher power of two. The number of byes equals that power of two minus the number of teams, allowing a complete bracket without an odd team stranded each round.

Question 24Planning in Sports

In the standard method of drawing a fixture for a round-robin league with an odd number of teams, what is added and why?

  1. A reserve day is added at the end for postponed matches
  2. A dummy team (bye) is added to make the number even, and the team paired with it rests that round Correct answer.
  3. An extra round is added so that each team gets two matches per round
  4. A second venue is added so two matches can run at once

Explanation

The cyclic round-robin method fixes one team and rotates the others; it requires an even number of entries. When the number of teams is odd, a dummy team is inserted to make the count even, and whichever real team is drawn against the dummy simply has a bye that round.

Question 25Planning in Sports

Which statement best describes the purpose of seeding in a tournament draw?

  1. It removes weaker teams from the competition before play begins
  2. It places previously successful teams at separated positions so they do not meet in early rounds Correct answer.
  3. It randomly assigns every team without regard to past performance
  4. It guarantees the top-seeded team a place in the final

Explanation

Seeding uses past performance to distribute strong teams across different halves and quarters of the draw. This prevents the best teams from eliminating each other in the opening rounds and keeps the competition balanced until the later stages.

Question 26Planning in Sports

A committee is planning a tournament and must first decide the type of tournament before drawing fixtures. Which sequence of planning steps is most logical?

  1. Decide tournament type, form committees, prepare fixtures, then arrange logistics and budget Correct answer.
  2. Prepare the final report, then draw fixtures, then form committees
  3. Arrange refreshments, then select officials, then decide the tournament type
  4. Draw fixtures, then fix the budget, then decide the tournament type

Explanation

Tournament planning proceeds from the broad decision to the detailed one: the format determines the number of matches, which in turn determines fixtures, officials, venues, and budget. Committees and logistics follow once the format and fixture load are known.

Question 27Planning in Sports

What is the chief administrative advantage of the knock-out format for a school with limited time and grounds?

  1. It requires the fewest total matches and can be completed in the shortest time Correct answer.
  2. Every team is assured of playing several matches
  3. It eliminates the need for officials in early rounds
  4. It produces the fairest ranking of all teams from first to last

Explanation

Because each match removes one team, a knock-out of n teams needs only n − 1 matches, the smallest possible number for any format. This economy of matches, time, and ground hire makes it suitable when resources are scarce.

Question 28Planning in Sports

A knock-out tournament has 21 entries. How many byes must be awarded in the first round?

  1. 32
  2. 5
  3. 11 Correct answer.
  4. 10

Explanation

The next higher power of two above 21 is 32, and byes equal that power minus the number of teams: 32 − 21 = 11. These 11 byes let the bracket reach 32 slots so the rounds halve evenly to a final.

Question 29Planning in Sports

In the cyclic method of drawing a round-robin fixture, what is the standard procedure after the first round is written?

  1. All positions are reshuffled randomly each round
  2. The fixture is redrawn from scratch by lots every round
  3. One team is fixed and the remaining teams are rotated one place, usually clockwise, for each new round Correct answer.
  4. The bottom half of the table is reversed for each round

Explanation

The cyclic method keeps one team fixed and rotates all other positions by one place each round, so every team eventually meets every other team exactly once. This systematic rotation replaces repeated random draws and guarantees a complete round-robin.

Question 30Planning in Sports

A tournament committee wants a format in which a team that loses its first match can still reach the final. Which format satisfies this requirement?

  1. Straight league with no second phase
  2. Single knock-out
  3. Consolation (plate) knock-out only
  4. Double knock-out Correct answer.

Explanation

In a double knock-out a team is eliminated only after losing two matches, so a first-round defeat sends it into the losers' bracket from which it can still progress to the final. Neither single knock-out nor a plate competition allows that path.

Question 31Planning in Sports

Which item is a fixed (non-recurring) expenditure in a tournament budget rather than a recurring one?

  1. Daily wages of casual cleaners
  2. Purchase of goalposts and nets for the ground Correct answer.
  3. Daily ground-hire charges
  4. Refreshments for players on match days

Explanation

Fixed or capital expenditure is a one-time outlay on durable assets such as goalposts, nets, and equipment that serve beyond the event. Recurring expenditure is spent repeatedly during the event, such as daily hire, wages, and refreshments.

Question 32Planning in Sports

A single-elimination draw has 13 teams. How many matches will be played in the tournament?

  1. 12 Correct answer.
  2. 3
  3. 16
  4. 13

Explanation

Every knock-out match eliminates exactly one team, and 12 teams must be eliminated to leave one champion. Hence the total number of matches is always n − 1, which for 13 teams is 12.

Question 33Planning in Sports

In a league tournament of 10 teams, how many matches does each individual team play in a single round-robin?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 45
  4. 9 Correct answer.

Explanation

In a single round-robin each team meets every other team once, so each team plays one match against each of the other nine teams. That gives 9 matches per team, while the total across all teams is 45.

Question 34Planning in Sports

Why are seeded teams normally placed at the top and bottom of the draw rather than in the middle positions?

  1. So that they meet each other immediately in the first round
  2. So that they receive fewer byes than unseeded teams
  3. So that they play all their matches on the same ground
  4. So that they are separated into opposite halves and can meet only in the final Correct answer.

Explanation

Placing top seeds at opposite ends of the bracket puts them in different halves, so they cannot meet before the final. This separation is the defining purpose of seeding and keeps early rounds balanced.

Question 35Planning in Sports

A school runs a knock-out tournament with 9 teams and must decide how many byes to award. What is the correct number?

  1. 1
  2. 9
  3. 3
  4. 7 Correct answer.

Explanation

The next higher power of two above 9 is 16, and byes equal 16 − 9 = 7. These seven byes fill the bracket to 16 slots so that the first round reduces the entries to a clean power of two.

Question 36Planning in Sports

Which planning document specifies the timing, venue, and sequence of events for each day of a tournament and is distributed to officials and teams?

  1. The entry form
  2. The fixture list (schedule) Correct answer.
  3. The medical certificate
  4. The budget statement

Explanation

The fixture list or schedule sets out which match is played when, on which ground, and in what order, so officials and teams can plan. It complements the draw, which fixes pairings, by adding time and venue details.

Question 37Planning in Sports

A committee wants to reduce the risk of fixture clashes when many teams share one ground. Which planning measure is most directly effective?

  1. Shortening the tournament to a single day regardless of entries
  2. Inviting more spectators to each match
  3. Staggering match slots across the day and allocating grounds in a written schedule Correct answer.
  4. Increasing the number of byes in the draw

Explanation

Fixture clashes arise when two matches are assigned the same time or ground, so the direct remedy is a written schedule that assigns distinct slots and venues. Staggered timings let the same ground host successive matches without conflict.

Question 38Planning in Sports

In a knock-out tournament, what is the effect of awarding all byes in the first round rather than spreading them across later rounds?

  1. The final must be replayed
  2. The bracket stays a clean power of two and later rounds proceed without byes Correct answer.
  3. The total number of matches increases
  4. Every later round gains an extra bye

Explanation

Byes exist to raise the entry count to a power of two before play begins, so concentrating them in the first round produces a full bracket thereafter. Every subsequent round then halves an even number of remaining teams down to the final.

Question 39Planning in Sports

A tournament is planned with a league phase followed by a knock-out phase for the top four teams. What is the main planning justification for this combined format?

  1. It ensures the weakest team wins
  2. It guarantees every team a trophy
  3. It removes the need to draw any fixtures
  4. It balances broad participation in the league with a decisive climax in the knock-out Correct answer.

Explanation

A league phase gives every team several matches and a fair ranking, while a knock-out phase among the top finishers creates a decisive and exciting climax. Combining them captures the strengths of both formats.

Question 40Planning in Sports

Which of these is a recurring (variable) expenditure in running a multi-day school tournament?

  1. Purchase of a permanent scoreboard
  2. Daily payment for water and electricity used during matches Correct answer.
  3. Construction of a pavilion
  4. Purchase of land for the ground

Explanation

Recurring expenditure is incurred repeatedly while the event runs, such as daily water, electricity, and ground charges. Capital items like land, pavilions, and permanent scoreboards are one-time fixed costs.

Question 41Sports and Nutrition

Which nutrient class is the body's most concentrated source of energy per gram and is essential for absorbing vitamins A, D, E and K?

  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Minerals
  3. Fats Correct answer.
  4. Proteins

Explanation

Fat yields roughly 9 kcal per gram, more than double the 4 kcal per gram supplied by carbohydrate or protein, so it is the most energy-dense macronutrient. The fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K require dietary fat for efficient absorption in the intestine. Minerals are inorganic and supply no energy.

Question 42Sports and Nutrition

A badminton player needs rapid energy for a series of short, explosive rallies. Which stored fuel is the primary immediate source for such high-intensity bursts?

  1. Dietary fibre
  2. Circulating free fatty acids
  3. Subcutaneous fat stores
  4. Muscle glycogen and phosphocreatine Correct answer.

Explanation

Short maximal efforts rely on the ATP-phosphocreatine system and anaerobic glycolysis, which draws on muscle glycogen. These pathways deliver energy far faster than fat oxidation, which is too slow for brief explosive work. Fibre is not an energy source for muscle contraction.

Question 43Sports and Nutrition

According to standard sports nutrition guidance, what is the main purpose of the pre-competition meal eaten about three to four hours before an event?

  1. To top up liver and muscle glycogen and prevent hunger Correct answer.
  2. To induce dehydration for weight control
  3. To maximise fat intake for endurance
  4. To slow gastric emptying as much as possible

Explanation

A meal rich in carbohydrate eaten a few hours before competition restores liver glycogen and tops up muscle glycogen while reducing hunger. It should be low in fat and fibre to keep digestion comfortable. Deliberate dehydration and maximising fat intake would impair performance.

Question 44Sports and Nutrition

Which of the following is classified as a micronutrient in the athlete's diet?

  1. Glucose
  2. Starch
  3. Triglyceride
  4. Iron Correct answer.

Explanation

Micronutrients are vitamins and minerals required in small amounts, and iron is an essential mineral involved in oxygen transport by haemoglobin. Starch, triglycerides and glucose are all macronutrients consumed in gram quantities. Iron deficiency is a common concern for endurance athletes.

Question 45Sports and Nutrition

What does the term 'glycaemic index' describe in the context of an athlete's carbohydrate choices?

  1. The rate at which a carbohydrate food raises blood glucose Correct answer.
  2. The proportion of protein in a food
  3. The total calories in a food portion
  4. The amount of fibre removed during processing

Explanation

The glycaemic index ranks carbohydrate foods by how quickly and how much they raise blood glucose compared with a reference food. Low-GI foods release glucose slowly, while high-GI foods are useful for rapid refuelling after exercise. It is not a measure of calories, fibre loss or protein content.

Question 46Sports and Nutrition

Which practice best supports hydration during a long-distance cycling event held in hot weather?

  1. Avoiding all fluids to prevent stomach cramps
  2. Drinking only when thirst becomes severe
  3. Drinking a carbohydrate-electrolyte beverage at regular intervals Correct answer.
  4. Drinking a large volume of plain water only at the finish

Explanation

Regular intake of a carbohydrate-electrolyte drink replaces fluid and the sodium lost in sweat while supplying some carbohydrate. Drinking to a planned schedule limits the dehydration that impairs endurance performance. Waiting for severe thirst or the finish line allows significant fluid deficits to develop.

Question 47Sports and Nutrition

An endurance runner wants to maximise muscle glycogen stores in the 24-36 hours before a marathon. Which dietary strategy is most appropriate?

  1. High fat intake with minimal carbohydrate
  2. Complete fasting to enhance fat adaptation
  3. High carbohydrate intake of roughly 8-10 g per kg body mass per day Correct answer.
  4. Very low carbohydrate intake with high protein

Explanation

Carbohydrate loading works by eating a high carbohydrate diet, commonly cited as about 8-10 g per kg body mass per day, for one to two days before a long event. This maximises muscle glycogen, the main fuel for endurance work. Low carbohydrate or fasting strategies deplete rather than load glycogen.

Question 48Sports and Nutrition

Why is protein intake important immediately after a strength-training session for a young athlete?

  1. It prevents all forms of overuse injury
  2. It provides amino acids to support muscle repair and adaptation Correct answer.
  3. It replaces sodium lost in sweat
  4. It supplies the main fuel for the session already completed

Explanation

Resistance training causes muscle protein breakdown, and post-exercise protein supplies amino acids for repair and synthesis. Combining protein with carbohydrate also helps restore glycogen. Protein does not fuel the completed session, replace sweat sodium or prevent all injuries.

Question 49Sports and Nutrition

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between iron and oxygen transport in a trained athlete?

  1. Iron acts as an enzyme that digests carbohydrate
  2. Iron is stored exclusively in adipose tissue
  3. Iron forms part of haemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood Correct answer.
  4. Iron is the primary fuel for anaerobic glycolysis

Explanation

Iron is a component of haemoglobin in red blood cells and myoglobin in muscle, both of which bind oxygen. Inadequate iron therefore limits oxygen delivery and aerobic performance. Iron is not an energy fuel, is stored mainly in liver, spleen and bone marrow, and is not a digestive enzyme.

Question 50Sports and Nutrition

A swimmer weighs 60 kg and is advised to consume 1.4 g of protein per kg body mass daily. How many grams of protein should the swimmer aim for each day?

  1. 140 g
  2. 42 g
  3. 60 g
  4. 84 g Correct answer.

Explanation

Multiplying body mass by the prescribed intake gives 60 kg × 1.4 g/kg = 84 g of protein per day. This falls within the higher range often recommended for athletes in training. The other figures come from using the wrong multiplier.