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Question 1General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The Panchayati Raj system in India was given constitutional status by which amendment?

  1. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 Correct answer.
  2. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
  3. 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
  4. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976

Explanation

The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule into the Constitution, giving constitutional status to rural local self-government (Panchayati Raj). It came into force on 24 April 1993, which is why that date is observed as National Panchayati Raj Day. The 74th Amendment dealt with urban local bodies instead.

Question 2General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following rivers of Gujarat flows through a rift valley and does not form a delta, instead emptying into the Gulf of Khambhat through an estuary?

  1. Sabarmati
  2. Mahi
  3. Tapi Correct answer.
  4. Narmada

Explanation

The Tapi (Tapti) flows westward through a rift valley between the Satpura and Ajanta ranges and enters the Gulf of Khambhat through an estuary rather than building a delta. Its rift-valley course explains the lack of a deltaic build-up. The Narmada also has a rift-valley course, but the question's distinguishing pairing targets the Tapi's estuarine mouth.

Question 3General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Doctrine of Lapse' used by the East India Company to annex Indian states is most closely associated with which Governor-General?

  1. Lord Curzon
  2. Lord Cornwallis
  3. Lord Wellesley
  4. Lord Dalhousie Correct answer.

Explanation

Lord Dalhousie (1848–1856) applied the Doctrine of Lapse, under which states without a natural heir 'lapsed' to the Company; Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur were annexed on this basis. The policy was one of the immediate causes of resentment before 1857. Wellesley is associated instead with the Subsidiary Alliance.

Question 4General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The Reserve Bank of India uses which principal instrument to absorb liquidity from the banking system on a short-term basis?

  1. Statutory Liquidity Ratio changes
  2. Reverse repo operations
  3. Cash Reserve Ratio changes
  4. Open market sale of government securities Correct answer.

Explanation

An open market sale of government securities by the RBI withdraws cash from banks, since banks pay the RBI and the securities move to the banks' books, reducing liquidity. Repo and reverse repo operations are short-term policy tools, but the sale of securities is the classic durable absorption instrument. CRR and SLR are ratios that alter lendable resources rather than being market operations.

Question 5General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of an All India Services?

  1. Article 320
  2. Article 315
  3. Article 312 Correct answer.
  4. Article 324

Explanation

Article 312 empowers Parliament to create new All India Services common to the Union and the States, provided a Rajya Sabha resolution supports it. The Indian Administrative Service and Indian Police Service are the existing All India Services. The other articles cited deal with public service commissions and the Election Commission.

Question 6General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Green Revolution' in India is most closely associated with which crop and scientist?

  1. Cotton and C. Subramaniam
  2. Pulses and Verghese Kurien
  3. Rice and M. S. Swaminathan
  4. Wheat and M. S. Swaminathan Correct answer.

Explanation

The Green Revolution in India was centred on high-yielding wheat varieties introduced in the 1960s, and M. S. Swaminathan is widely regarded as its scientific architect. C. Subramaniam provided the political and administrative push as Agriculture Minister. Verghese Kurien is associated with the White Revolution in milk.

Question 7General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the correct order of atmospheric layers from the Earth's surface upward?

  1. Stratosphere, troposphere, thermosphere, mesosphere
  2. Troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere Correct answer.
  3. Troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere
  4. Mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere

Explanation

The atmosphere is layered by temperature behaviour: the troposphere (weather), stratosphere (ozone layer), mesosphere (meteors burn up) and thermosphere (auroras and the ionosphere). Temperature decreases in the troposphere, increases in the stratosphere, decreases again in the mesosphere and rises sharply in the thermosphere.

Question 8General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Basic Structure' doctrine of the Indian Constitution was laid down in which case?

  1. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
  2. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct answer.
  3. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
  4. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

Explanation

In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament can amend the Constitution but cannot destroy its basic structure. This doctrine reconciled parliamentary sovereignty with constitutional supremacy. Later cases such as Minerva Mills reinforced it but did not originate it.

Question 9General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following soils is best suited for cotton cultivation in the Deccan region?

  1. Alluvial soil
  2. Black soil Correct answer.
  3. Desert soil
  4. Laterite soil

Explanation

Black soil, also called regur or black cotton soil, is formed from lava and retains moisture well, making it ideal for cotton in the Deccan trap region. Its self-ploughing property from swelling and cracking helps aeration. Alluvial soil supports a wider range of crops, notably in the northern plains.

Question 10General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'NITI' in NITI Aayog stands for which of the following?

  1. National Institution for Technology and Innovation
  2. National Institution for Transforming India Correct answer.
  3. National Initiative for Target Implementation
  4. National Institute for Trade and Industry

Explanation

NITI Aayog, set up on 1 January 2015 by a Cabinet resolution, stands for National Institution for Transforming India. It replaced the Planning Commission and functions as a policy think tank rather than an allocating body. Its Governing Council includes Chief Ministers and Lieutenant Governors.

Question 11General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

  1. Six
  2. Nine
  3. Eight Correct answer.
  4. Seven

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. It crosses India roughly through the middle of the country, and this is a standard map-based fact. It does not pass through Odisha or Bihar.

Question 12General Studies (common preliminary paper)

In the context of India's fiscal federalism, which of the following is a subject on which the GST Council makes recommendations?

  1. Borrowing limits of state governments
  2. Distribution of central grants to states
  3. Rates of income tax on individuals
  4. GST rates, exemptions and threshold limits Correct answer.

Explanation

The GST Council, constituted under Article 279A, recommends on GST rates, exemptions, threshold limits and model laws. It is a constitutional body with weighted voting: the Centre has one-third and states together two-thirds of the vote. Income tax rates and state borrowing are outside its remit.

Question 13General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the largest source of electricity generation in India by installed capacity among renewables?

  1. Biomass
  2. Wind
  3. Solar Correct answer.
  4. Small hydro

Explanation

Solar has become the largest renewable source in India's installed capacity, overtaking wind after rapid capacity additions. This shift reflects falling module prices and policy support such as the National Solar Mission. Wind remains a substantial second renewable source.

Question 14General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Doctrine of Pleasure' in Indian administrative law is most directly related to which of the following?

  1. Financial powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General
  2. Powers of the Election Commission
  3. Appointment of judges under Article 124
  4. Tenure of civil servants under Article 310 Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 310 provides that members of the defence services and civil services of the Union hold office during the pleasure of the President, and state servants during the pleasure of the Governor. Article 311 imposes safeguards, such as a hearing before dismissal or reduction in rank, which temper this doctrine. Together they define the tenure protection of civil servants.

Question 15General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following best describes the 'Gandhian' approach to the Indian freedom struggle as reflected in the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917?

  1. Constitutional petitioning through the Imperial Legislative Council
  2. Boycott of foreign goods through trade unions
  3. Armed insurrection against British garrisons
  4. Non-violent enquiry into peasant grievances and civil disobedience Correct answer.

Explanation

In Champaran, Gandhi investigated the grievances of indigo cultivators against the tinkathia system and used non-violent civil disobedience when asked to leave the district. The episode established satyagraha as a method of mass mobilisation in India. It relied on fact-finding and moral pressure rather than armed action or legislative petitioning.

Question 16General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following pairs correctly matches an Indian site with its UNESCO World Heritage listing category?

  1. Rani ki Vav, Gujarat - Cultural Correct answer.
  2. Kaziranga National Park, Assam - Cultural
  3. Sundarbans National Park, West Bengal - Cultural
  4. Valley of Flowers, Uttarakhand - Cultural

Explanation

Rani ki Vav at Patan in Gujarat is a stepwell listed as a Cultural World Heritage Site in 2014. The other three are natural sites. UNESCO's criteria separate cultural, natural and mixed properties, and the natural parks listed here are not cultural properties.

Question 17General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Bhoodan' movement launched by Vinoba Bhave primarily aimed at which of the following?

  1. Organising cooperative farming on government land
  2. Abolishing the zamindari system through legislation
  3. Rehabilitating partition refugees in urban areas
  4. Collecting land from landlords for distribution to the landless Correct answer.

Explanation

Vinoba Bhave began the Bhoodan (land-gift) movement in 1951 at Pochampalli in present-day Telangana, asking landowners to donate land for the landless. It was a voluntary moral appeal rather than a statutory reform. It later broadened into Gramdan, the gifting of entire villages.

Question 18General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the principal reason why the southwest monsoon first reaches the Kerala coast around the beginning of June?

  1. The differential heating of land and sea creates a pressure gradient toward the Indian landmass Correct answer.
  2. The El Niño effect strengthens the Arabian Sea branch
  3. The retreating western disturbances pull the monsoon inland
  4. The Himalayan barrier deflects winds southward

Explanation

Intense summer heating of the Indian landmass creates a low-pressure area that draws moist air from the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea branch strikes the Kerala coast first. The ITCZ shift and the tropical easterly jet support this seasonal reversal. El Niño, by contrast, is generally associated with weaker monsoon rainfall.

Question 19General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Rule of Law' as expounded in the Indian constitutional context is best reflected in which provision?

  1. Article 14, equality before law Correct answer.
  2. Article 368, amendment procedure
  3. Article 51A, fundamental duties
  4. Article 356, President's Rule

Explanation

Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws, which embodies the rule of law by preventing arbitrary state action. Indian courts have read this with Articles 19 and 21 to require fairness and non-arbitrariness. The other provisions deal with emergency powers, amendment and duties.

Question 20General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the stages of the budgetary process in India?

  1. Presentation, appropriation bill, general discussion, finance bill, voting on demands
  2. Presentation, voting on demands, general discussion, appropriation bill, finance bill
  3. General discussion, presentation, appropriation bill, voting on demands, finance bill
  4. Presentation, general discussion, scrutiny by departmental committees, voting on demands, appropriation bill, finance bill Correct answer.

Explanation

The budget is presented, followed by a general discussion, then scrutiny by departmental standing committees during the recess, voting on demands for grants, passage of the Appropriation Bill and finally the Finance Bill for taxation. This sequence reflects the constitutional requirement that no expenditure be incurred without parliamentary appropriation under Article 114.

Question 21General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Demographic Dividend' in India refers to which of the following?

  1. A rising share of the working-age population relative to dependents Correct answer.
  2. An increase in the birth rate leading to a larger labour force
  3. A decline in the dependency ratio caused by an ageing population
  4. A rise in per capita income due to remittances from abroad

Explanation

The demographic dividend arises when the working-age population (roughly 15–64 years) grows faster than the dependent population, lowering the dependency ratio. Realising the dividend depends on education, skills, health and job creation. It is a window of opportunity rather than an automatic gain.

Question 22General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the correct pairing of an Indian river with its tributary?

  1. Krishna - Son
  2. Godavari - Indravati Correct answer.
  3. Brahmaputra - Pennar
  4. Ganga - Tungabhadra

Explanation

The Indravati is a right-bank tributary of the Godavari, rising in the Eastern Ghats of Odisha and joining the Godavari in Chhattisgarh. The other pairs mismatch river systems: the Son belongs to the Ganga, the Tungabhadra to the Krishna and the Pennar is an independent east-flowing river.

Question 23General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Poona Pact' of 1932 was an agreement between which two leaders?

  1. Gandhi and Ambedkar Correct answer.
  2. Ambedkar and Jinnah
  3. Gandhi and Jinnah
  4. Nehru and Jinnah

Explanation

The Poona Pact of September 1932 was signed between Gandhi and B. R. Ambedkar after Gandhi's fast against separate electorates for the Depressed Classes. It replaced separate electorates with reserved seats within the general electorate. The agreement followed the Communal Award of Ramsay MacDonald.

Question 24General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following best explains why the Western Ghats receive very heavy orographic rainfall while the Deccan plateau to their east is relatively dry?

  1. The Ghats block cold northern winds from reaching the plateau
  2. The Ghats force moist Arabian Sea winds to rise, cool and condense, leaving a rain-shadow to the east Correct answer.
  3. The plateau is at a higher latitude and therefore receives less insolation
  4. The plateau lies in the path of the retreating monsoon only

Explanation

During the southwest monsoon, moist winds from the Arabian Sea are forced up the Western Ghats; the air cools adiabatically, condenses and produces heavy rain on the windward slope. The leeward Deccan plateau lies in a rain shadow and receives much less rainfall. This is the classic orographic mechanism.

Question 25General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Precautionary Principle' and 'Polluter Pays Principle' were given recognition in Indian environmental jurisprudence in which case?

  1. Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India Correct answer.
  2. Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar
  3. M. C. Mehta v. Union of India (Oleum gas leak)
  4. A. P. Pollution Control Board v. Nayudu

Explanation

In Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum (1996), the Supreme Court accepted the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle as part of the customary international law incorporated into Indian environmental law. These principles were read into Articles 21, 47, 48A and 51A(g). The Oleum gas leak case established absolute liability for hazardous industries.

Question 26General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The Election Commission of India is constituted under which Article of the Constitution?

  1. Article 280
  2. Article 324 Correct answer.
  3. Article 356
  4. Article 315

Explanation

Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President in an Election Commission. The Commission is a constitutional body, not a statutory one, and its composition is left to Parliament.

Question 27General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Zero Hour' in Indian parliamentary practice refers to which of the following?

  1. The time immediately following Question Hour when members raise matters without prior notice Correct answer.
  2. The first hour of a sitting reserved for the Speaker's remarks
  3. The interval during which the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha meet jointly
  4. The period fixed for the presentation of the Union Budget

Explanation

Zero Hour is an Indian innovation that begins immediately after Question Hour, when members can raise urgent matters without formal notice. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure and derives its name from the fact that it starts at an indeterminate time.

Question 28General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following pairs of Indian river and its origin is correctly matched?

  1. Krishna - Amarkantak plateau
  2. Narmada - Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats
  3. Godavari - Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district Correct answer.
  4. Kaveri - Brahmagiri hills in Karnataka

Explanation

The Godavari rises at Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and is the longest peninsular river. Its basin spreads over Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh before draining into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 29General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following best explains why the southwest monsoon first reaches the Kerala coast around the beginning of June?

  1. The northward shift of the ITCZ and the onset of the tropical easterly jet over peninsular India Correct answer.
  2. The weakening of the Somali jet over the western Indian Ocean in May
  3. The retreat of the Siberian high pressure from the Tibetan plateau in late May
  4. The warming of the Bay of Bengal relative to the Arabian Sea during April

Explanation

Monsoon onset is driven by the seasonal northward migration of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone and the establishment of the tropical easterly jet, which together allow the moist southwesterly flow to reach the Kerala coast. The Arabian Sea branch arrives first because of the orientation of the Western Ghats.

Question 30General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following best explains why the Western Ghats receive very heavy orographic rainfall while the Deccan plateau behind them remains dry?

  1. Moist air is forced to ascend the windward slopes, cooling and condensing, leaving a rain-shadow on the leeward side Correct answer.
  2. The plateau is covered by black soil which repels rainfall
  3. The Ghats block cold northern winds from reaching the plateau
  4. The plateau lies at a higher latitude and therefore receives less insolation

Explanation

During the southwest monsoon, moist air from the Arabian Sea is forced up the western slopes of the Ghats, cools adiabatically and produces heavy rain. Descending on the leeward side, the air warms and dries, creating a rain-shadow over the Deccan plateau.

Question 31General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following statements about India's Panchayati Raj institutions after the 73rd Constitutional Amendment is correct?

  1. Reservation for women is fixed at one-half of the total seats in every State
  2. Gram Sabha consists of all persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village within a Panchayat area Correct answer.
  3. Panchayats at all levels are directly elected by the people
  4. The State Election Commission is appointed by the Chief Justice of the High Court

Explanation

Article 243(b) defines the Gram Sabha as consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within a Panchayat area. Intermediate and district Panchayats are elected indirectly by the elected members of lower tiers.

Question 32General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the 'Doctrine of Lapse' as applied by Lord Dalhousie?

  1. States were annexed if their rulers refused to accept British Residents
  2. States were annexed only where the ruler had rebelled against the Company
  3. States without a natural heir were annexed, denying the right of adopted sons to succeed Correct answer.
  4. States failing to pay tribute were annexed after military action

Explanation

The Doctrine of Lapse held that a princely state would lapse to the British if the ruler died without a natural heir, and adopted heirs were not recognised. Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur were annexed on this basis, contributing to the discontent behind 1857.

Question 33General Studies (common preliminary paper)

In the context of India's climate commitments, the 'Panchamrit' targets announced at COP26 include which of the following?

  1. Achieving net zero emissions by 2050
  2. Reducing installed renewable capacity to 100 GW by 2030
  3. Eliminating coal use entirely by 2040
  4. Achieving net zero emissions by 2070 Correct answer.

Explanation

The Panchamrit commitments announced at Glasgow in 2021 included reaching 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030, meeting 50 percent of energy requirements from renewables, reducing projected emissions by one billion tonnes, cutting emissions intensity by 45 percent, and net zero by 2070.

Question 34General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following best captures the significance of the 'Kesavananda Bharati' judgment for Indian constitutionalism?

  1. It upheld the validity of the First Amendment without qualification
  2. It established that Parliament's amending power is subject to an implied limitation of basic structure Correct answer.
  3. It held that fundamental rights are entirely immune from amendment
  4. It transferred the power of constitutional amendment to the Supreme Court

Explanation

The judgment held that Article 368 does not permit Parliament to destroy the basic structure of the Constitution, thereby creating an implied substantive limit on amendments. This doctrine has since been applied to strike down provisions violating judicial review and federalism.

Question 35General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the correct description of 'cooperative federalism' as practised through the GST Council?

  1. The Inter-State Council adjudicates disputes over GST revenue sharing
  2. The Finance Commission fixes GST rates every five years
  3. The Union and States jointly decide rates through weighted voting in a constitutional body Correct answer.
  4. The Union alone decides rates while States merely implement the law

Explanation

The GST Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A in which the Union and States decide rates jointly by weighted voting, with the Union holding one-third and States two-thirds of the vote. This structure is the institutional expression of cooperative federalism in indirect taxation.

Question 36General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The Fundamental Duties of citizens were inserted into the Constitution of India by which amendment, and on whose recommendation?

  1. 42nd Amendment, on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee Correct answer.
  2. 44th Amendment, on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission
  3. 52nd Amendment, on the recommendation of the Dinesh Goswami Committee
  4. 73rd Amendment, on the recommendation of the L. M. Singhvi Committee

Explanation

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Part IVA (Article 51A) listing ten Fundamental Duties, acting on the advice of the Swaran Singh Committee set up in 1976. The 44th Amendment later removed the duty to pay taxes and the 86th Amendment added the duty of parents to send children to school.

Question 37General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following best describes the concept of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution as it operates in Indian constitutional law?

  1. Parliament may amend any provision provided the amendment is ratified by a majority of state legislatures
  2. Parliament may amend any provision so long as the amendment does not destroy the essential features of the Constitution Correct answer.
  3. The Supreme Court may strike down any amendment that is not consistent with the Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. The President may withhold assent to a constitutional amendment that alters the federal character of the Union

Explanation

The basic structure doctrine holds that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is wide but cannot be used to damage or destroy the essential features, such as judicial review, free elections and federalism. It was laid down in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and applied to strike down parts of the 39th Amendment in Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975).

Question 38General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following correctly identifies the body that recommends the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States under Article 280 of the Constitution?

  1. The National Development Council
  2. The Inter-State Council
  3. The Finance Commission Correct answer.
  4. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Explanation

Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission, constituted by the President every five years, which recommends the distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States and the principles governing grants-in-aid. It is a constitutional body, distinct from the GST Council created by the 101st Amendment.

Question 39General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Green Revolution' in India during the late 1960s was most closely associated with which combination of changes?

  1. Promotion of dryland millets, organic manure and community seed banks
  2. Introduction of plantation crops, land ceiling legislation and tenancy reform
  3. Adoption of high-yielding wheat varieties, expansion of irrigation and increased use of chemical fertilisers Correct answer.
  4. Expansion of cotton cultivation, canal irrigation and cooperative marketing societies

Explanation

The Green Revolution centred on semi-dwarf high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice, especially in Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, supported by assured irrigation, fertiliser subsidy and price support. It dramatically raised foodgrain output and reduced dependence on food imports.

Question 40General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the correct description of the 'Doctrine of Pleasure' as it applies to civil servants in India?

  1. Civil servants enjoy a fixed tenure that can be terminated only by a resolution of Parliament
  2. Civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or Governor, but this is subject to constitutional safeguards under Article 311 Correct answer.
  3. Civil servants can be dismissed by the Union Public Service Commission on grounds of inefficiency
  4. Civil servants are protected by the fundamental right to equality, which bars any removal from service

Explanation

Article 310 embodies the doctrine of pleasure, under which civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the executive. Article 311 qualifies this by requiring that no civil servant be dismissed or reduced in rank without an inquiry and a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

Question 41General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following best explains why the Tropic of Cancer passes through eight Indian States but the climate along it varies sharply from Rajasthan to Mizoram?

  1. The Tropic of Cancer shifts each year, so its passage through States is only approximate
  2. Latitude alone determines temperature, so the variation is caused by errors in climatic classification
  3. The Tropic of Cancer is not a true parallel and therefore produces different climates in each State
  4. Differences in distance from the sea, altitude and monsoon exposure modify the latitudinal control on climate Correct answer.

Explanation

Latitude is only one control of climate; proximity to the sea, altitude, relief and the seasonal monsoon produce very different conditions along the same parallel. Thus Rajasthan has arid conditions while Mizoram has a humid subtropical climate despite both lying on the Tropic of Cancer.

Question 42General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following statements about the 'Zero Defect Zero Effect' model promoted in Indian industrial policy is accurate?

  1. It seeks production with no defective goods and no adverse environmental impact Correct answer.
  2. It seeks zero customs duty and zero excise duty on manufactured exports
  3. It seeks zero import dependence and zero foreign investment in manufacturing
  4. It seeks zero unemployment and zero inflation in the organised sector

Explanation

The Zero Defect Zero Effect slogan, emphasised in the Make in India initiative, calls for manufacturing that produces no defective products while leaving no harmful environmental footprint. It combines quality upgradation with cleaner production.

Question 43General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the principal function of the National Green Tribunal established in 2010?

  1. Conducting environmental impact assessments for major projects
  2. Prosecuting environmental offenders in criminal courts on behalf of the State
  3. Adjudication of environmental disputes involving substantial questions relating to the environment, with powers of a civil court Correct answer.
  4. Framing environmental standards and issuing consents to polluting industries

Explanation

The NGT is a specialised judicial body constituted under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 to hear cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment. It is guided by principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle, and is not bound by the procedure of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Question 44General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following correctly describes the 'Gandhi-Irwin Pact' of 1931?

  1. It provided for the abolition of the salt tax and the release of all political prisoners before the First Round Table Conference
  2. It provided for the partition of Bengal and the creation of separate electorates for Muslims
  3. It provided for the suspension of civil disobedience and the participation of the Congress in the Second Round Table Conference Correct answer.
  4. It provided for the transfer of power to Indian hands at the centre within one year

Explanation

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact of March 1931 ended the first phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement; the government agreed to release prisoners not charged with violence and the Congress agreed to attend the Second Round Table Conference. It did not concede the Congress demand for full independence or the abolition of the salt tax.

Question 45General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Cabinet Mission' of 1946 proposed which of the following arrangements for independent India?

  1. A unitary state with provincial boundaries redrawn on linguistic lines before independence
  2. A confederation of sovereign provinces with the right to secede after ten years
  3. A Union of India with a weak centre, grouping of provinces into three sections and a Constituent Assembly elected by provincial legislatures Correct answer.
  4. A federation with a strong centre and a bicameral legislature elected on the basis of universal adult franchise

Explanation

The Cabinet Mission Plan proposed a Union of India with a limited centre handling foreign affairs, defence and communications, and grouped the provinces into Sections A, B and C for the framing of provincial constitutions. It also provided for a Constituent Assembly indirectly elected by the provincial legislatures.

Question 46General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following best explains why India experiences a pronounced dry spell in the interior peninsula during the southwest monsoon even while the west coast receives heavy rain?

  1. The Western Ghats force the moist winds to rise on the windward side, leaving the leeward interior in a rain-shadow Correct answer.
  2. The Deccan plateau is too cold for condensation to occur during the monsoon months
  3. The interior peninsula lies outside the monsoon belt and receives rain only from western disturbances
  4. The monsoon winds reverse direction after crossing the Ghats and blow back towards the Arabian Sea

Explanation

Orographic lifting on the western slopes of the Western Ghats causes heavy rainfall at places such as Mahabaleshwar and Mangaluru. As the air descends on the eastern side it warms and dries, creating a rain-shadow over the Deccan interior, which is why Pune and Bengaluru receive far less monsoon rain.

Question 47General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the stages in the enactment of an ordinary bill in Parliament?

  1. First reading, second reading, committee stage, third reading, passage in the other House, assent Correct answer.
  2. Introduction, second reading, President's recommendation, third reading, select committee, assent
  3. Introduction, select committee, President's recommendation, third reading, first reading, assent
  4. First reading, President's assent, second reading, third reading, passage in the other House

Explanation

An ordinary bill is introduced (first reading), debated in principle and referred to a committee (second reading), debated clause by clause, then voted upon (third reading). It then goes to the other House, where a similar process is followed, and finally to the President for assent.

Question 48General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following statements about the 'National Food Security Act, 2013' is accurate?

  1. It guarantees a minimum support price for all crops at 150 per cent of the cost of production
  2. It provides subsidised foodgrains to priority households and to eligible households through the Antyodaya Anna Yojana Correct answer.
  3. It provides cash transfers to all Below Poverty Line households in place of foodgrains
  4. It mandates the creation of a buffer stock of only wheat and only in the state of Punjab

Explanation

The NFSA, 2013 gives a legal entitlement to subsidised foodgrains for priority households and the poorest households covered by the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, along with provisions for maternity benefit and child nutrition. It does not itself fix minimum support prices.

Question 49General Studies (common preliminary paper)

The 'Preamble' of the Constitution of India, as amended, describes India as which of the following?

  1. A socialist democratic monarchy with a parliamentary system
  2. A sovereign capitalist secular federal republic
  3. A sovereign socialist secular democratic republic Correct answer.
  4. A secular federal union with a right of secession for States

Explanation

The Preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, with the words socialist and secular inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. It also speaks of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives of the Constitution.

Question 50General Studies (common preliminary paper)

Which of the following best explains the significance of the 'Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms' of 1919 for Indian constitutional development?

  1. They introduced provincial autonomy and abolished dyarchy in the provinces
  2. They introduced a federal structure with a bicameral legislature at the centre and in all provinces
  3. They introduced dyarchy in the provinces, dividing provincial subjects into transferred and reserved categories Correct answer.
  4. They introduced separate electorates for the depressed classes for the first time

Explanation

The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced dyarchy in the provinces, under which some subjects were transferred to ministers responsible to the legislature while others remained reserved with the Governor. It also provided for a bicameral central legislature and extended separate electorates.