INI CET flashcards
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32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- Brachial plexus roots
- The brachial plexus is formed by ventral rami of C5 to T1; Erb palsy affects C5–C6 and gives waiter's tip posture, while Klumpke palsy affects C8–T1 with claw hand.
- Glomerular filtration rate
- GFR equals filtration coefficient times net filtration pressure, normally about 125 mL/min; filtration fraction is GFR divided by renal plasma flow, approximately 0.2.
- Rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis
- Phosphofructokinase-1 catalyses the committed step of glycolysis and is inhibited by ATP and citrate while activated by AMP and fructose-2,6-bisphosphate.
- Virchow triad
- Thrombosis risk is explained by endothelial injury, abnormal blood flow such as stasis or turbulence, and hypercoagulability; all three contribute to thrombus formation.
- Zero-order elimination
- A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time regardless of concentration, seen with phenytoin, ethanol, and high-dose aspirin; small dose increases can cause toxicity.
- Autoclave standard cycle
- Sterilisation by autoclave uses steam at 121 degrees Celsius and 15 psi for 15 to 20 minutes; biological monitoring uses Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores.
- Sensitivity and specificity
- Sensitivity is true positives divided by all diseased; specificity is true negatives divided by all non-diseased; both are independent of disease prevalence in the population.
- Diabetic ketoacidosis criteria
- Diagnosis requires glucose above 250 mg/dL, arterial pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 18 mEq/L, and ketonaemia; treatment is isotonic saline, insulin infusion, and potassium replacement.
- Preeclampsia definition
- New hypertension of 140/90 mmHg or more after 20 weeks of gestation with proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction; magnesium sulphate prevents and treats eclamptic seizures.
- Developmental milestones
- Social smile appears at 6 weeks, head holding at 3 months, sitting without support at 6 months, and independent walking at 12 to 15 months.
- Cranial nerve classification
- Cranial nerves III, IV, VI, XI, and XII are motor; I, II, and VIII are sensory; V, VII, IX, and X are mixed nerves carrying both functions.
- Competitive inhibition kinetics
- A competitive inhibitor binds the active site and raises the apparent Km without changing Vmax; increasing substrate concentration can overcome the inhibition.
- Cardiac cycle heart sounds
- S1 arises from mitral and tricuspid valve closure at the start of systole; S2 from aortic and pulmonary closure; S3 occurs in early diastole and S4 from atrial contraction.
- Hypersensitivity types
- Type I is IgE-mediated anaphylaxis; type II is antibody against cell surfaces; type III is immune complex disease; type IV is T-cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity.
- Antitubercular drug effects
- Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy prevented by pyridoxine and also hepatitis; rifampicin induces cytochrome P450 and colours urine orange; ethambutol causes optic neuritis.
- Lead-time bias
- Screening detects disease earlier without changing the time of death, so measured survival appears longer even when the screening has no true benefit.
- Stroke thrombolysis window
- Intravenous alteplase can be given within 4.5 hours of ischaemic stroke onset if CT excludes haemorrhage and no contraindication exists; earlier treatment gives better outcomes.
- Anaphylaxis treatment
- Give intramuscular adrenaline 0.01 mg/kg of 1:1000 solution, maximum 0.5 mg, into the anterolateral thigh and repeat every 5 to 15 minutes as needed.
- WHO oral rehydration salts
- Rehydration ORS contains 75 mEq/L sodium and maintenance ORS contains 45 mEq/L; zinc supplementation for 14 days reduces diarrhoea duration and recurrence.
- Muscle contraction mechanism
- Calcium binds troponin C, moving tropomyosin to expose actin-binding sites; myosin heads form crossbridges and ATP hydrolysis drives the power stroke.
- Lipoprotein functions
- Chylomicrons transport dietary fat, VLDL carries endogenous triglyceride, LDL delivers cholesterol to tissues, and HDL performs reverse cholesterol transport to the liver.
- DNA replication direction
- DNA polymerase reads the template 3-prime to 5-prime and synthesises the new strand 5-prime to 3-prime; the lagging strand forms Okazaki fragments.
- Heparin versus warfarin
- Heparin acts through antithrombin III and is monitored by aPTT; warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase and is monitored by INR.
- MacConkey agar use
- MacConkey agar selects Gram-negative bacilli and differentiates lactose fermenters such as Escherichia coli, which form pink colonies, from non-fermenters.
- Hanging ligature mark
- In hanging the ligature mark is typically oblique, above the thyroid cartilage, and incomplete; in strangulation it is horizontal and often below the thyroid cartilage.
- Heart failure treatment
- Reduced ejection fraction heart failure is treated with an ACE inhibitor or ARNI, beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, and SGLT2 inhibitor to reduce mortality.
- Neonatal resuscitation steps
- Warm, dry, and stimulate the newborn; give positive pressure ventilation if apnoeic or heart rate below 100 per minute; start chest compressions if heart rate below 60.
- Glasgow Coma Scale
- Eye response scores 4, verbal 5, and motor 6, giving a total of 3 to 15; a score of 8 or less indicates need for airway protection.
- Organophosphate poisoning
- Excess acetylcholine causes salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhoea, vomiting, bronchospasm, and miosis; treat with atropine and pralidoxime.
- Child-Pugh score components
- The Child-Pugh score uses bilirubin, albumin, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy to grade cirrhosis and estimate prognosis; MELD uses bilirubin, INR, and creatinine.
- ATLS primary survey
- The primary survey follows airway with cervical spine protection, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure; FAST detects free intraperitoneal fluid in trauma.
- Combined oral contraceptive contraindications
- Combined oral pills are contraindicated in migraine with aura, smoking over age 35, history of venous thromboembolism, and uncontrolled hypertension.