I85PREP
⌘ K
Tamil Nadu HSE First Year Nursing (Vocational) study materials
Tamil Nadu HSE First Year Nursing (Vocational) study resources

Tamil Nadu HSE First Year Nursing (Vocational) practice questions

One question at a time. Build your Tamil Nadu HSE First Year Nursing (Vocational) understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Anatomy and Physiology

In the human skeletal system, which type of joint is the shoulder joint, allowing movement in all three planes?

  1. Pivot joint
  2. Hinge joint
  3. Ball and socket joint Correct answer.
  4. Gliding joint

Explanation

The shoulder is a synovial ball and socket joint: the rounded head of the humerus sits in the shallow glenoid cavity of the scapula, permitting flexion, extension, abduction, rotation and circumduction. This multiaxial range distinguishes it from hinge and pivot joints, which move in one plane or axis only.

Question 2Anatomy and Physiology

Which formed element of blood is chiefly responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?

  1. Platelets
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Erythrocytes Correct answer.

Explanation

Erythrocytes (red blood cells) contain haemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the pulmonary capillaries and releases it in the tissues. Platelets are involved in clotting, while lymphocytes and monocytes are white cells concerned with immunity, not gas transport.

Question 3Anatomy and Physiology

The normal resting heart rate of a healthy adult is usually quoted as approximately how many beats per minute?

  1. 30 to 45
  2. 110 to 140
  3. 60 to 100 Correct answer.
  4. 150 to 180

Explanation

A normal adult resting heart rate lies between about 60 and 100 beats per minute, reflecting the intrinsic rhythm of the sinoatrial node. Rates below 60 are termed bradycardia and above 100 tachycardia in adults.

Question 4Anatomy and Physiology

Which structure is the functional unit of the kidney where filtration of blood takes place?

  1. Nephron Correct answer.
  2. Ureter
  3. Renal pelvis
  4. Urethra

Explanation

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney, comprising the glomerulus, Bowman's capsule and the renal tubules. Filtration of plasma occurs at the glomerulus, and the tubules then reabsorb and secrete to form urine.

Question 5Anatomy and Physiology

Which part of the brain is chiefly responsible for maintaining balance and coordinating voluntary muscle movement?

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Cerebellum Correct answer.

Explanation

The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, posture and balance, smoothing muscular actions using sensory input from muscles and the inner ear. The cerebrum handles conscious thought and voluntary initiation, the medulla controls vital reflexes, and the hypothalamus regulates homeostasis.

Question 6Anatomy and Physiology

During inspiration in normal quiet breathing, which change occurs in the thoracic cavity?

  1. The diaphragm relaxes and moves upward
  2. The rib cage moves downward and inward
  3. The lungs actively contract to draw air in
  4. The diaphragm contracts and moves downward Correct answer.

Explanation

In quiet inspiration the diaphragm contracts and flattens downward while the external intercostals raise the ribs. This enlarges thoracic volume, lowers intrathoracic pressure and draws air into the lungs passively.

Question 7Anatomy and Physiology

Which vitamin is essential for the absorption of calcium from the intestine and for healthy bone mineralisation?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin D Correct answer.
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin C

Explanation

Vitamin D promotes intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate and supports mineralisation of bone matrix. Deficiency in children causes rickets and in adults osteomalacia.

Question 8Anatomy and Physiology

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body tissues?

  1. Inferior vena cava
  2. Superior vena cava
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Aorta Correct answer.

Explanation

The aorta is the largest artery, receiving oxygenated blood from the left ventricle and distributing it to the systemic circulation. Veins return deoxygenated blood to the right atrium, and the pulmonary artery is the exception that carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

Question 9Anatomy and Physiology

A patient's blood report shows a raised neutrophil count with a normal lymphocyte count. Which interpretation best fits this finding?

  1. The patient has a bleeding disorder
  2. The bone marrow is producing excess erythrocytes
  3. There is likely an acute bacterial infection Correct answer.
  4. The patient has severe anaemia

Explanation

Neutrophils are the first phagocytes recruited against bacteria, so neutrophilia commonly indicates acute bacterial infection or inflammation. Erythrocyte and platelet counts are unaffected by this isolated rise, ruling out anaemia and bleeding disorders.

Question 10Anatomy and Physiology

If the mitral valve fails to close completely during systole, what is the immediate physiological consequence?

  1. Blood cannot enter the left ventricle from the atrium
  2. The aortic valve remains permanently open
  3. Blood flows from the right ventricle into the right atrium
  4. Blood regurgitates from the left ventricle into the left atrium Correct answer.

Explanation

The mitral (bicuspid) valve guards the opening between the left atrium and left ventricle. Incompetence allows backflow of blood into the left atrium during ventricular systole, reducing forward stroke volume.

Question 11Anatomy and Physiology

Which sequence correctly traces the pathway of urine from its formation to its exit from the body?

  1. Renal pelvis, nephron, ureter, bladder, urethra
  2. Nephron, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra Correct answer.
  3. Ureter, nephron, bladder, renal pelvis, urethra
  4. Nephron, ureter, renal pelvis, urethra, bladder

Explanation

Urine forms in the nephrons, drains into the collecting ducts and renal pelvis, passes down the ureter to the bladder for storage, and leaves through the urethra. Any other order misplaces the pelvis or the bladder in the route.

Question 12Anatomy and Physiology

A hormone secreted by the thyroid gland that lowers blood calcium levels is which of the following?

  1. Insulin
  2. Parathormone
  3. Thyroxine
  4. Calcitonin Correct answer.

Explanation

Calcitonin from the thyroid's parafollicular cells inhibits bone resorption and lowers blood calcium. Parathormone from the parathyroid glands has the opposite effect, while insulin and thyroxine regulate glucose and metabolism respectively.

Question 13Anatomy and Physiology

Which statement best describes the role of the sinoatrial node in the heart?

  1. It delays the impulse before it reaches the ventricles
  2. It acts as the natural pacemaker initiating each heartbeat Correct answer.
  3. It controls the opening of the semilunar valves
  4. It conducts impulses directly to the ventricular muscle

Explanation

The sinoatrial node in the right atrial wall generates the electrical impulse that initiates each cardiac cycle, setting the heart rate. Impulse delay is the job of the atrioventricular node, and conduction to the ventricles is via the bundle of His and Purkinje fibres.

Question 14Anatomy and Physiology

Which muscle is the principal muscle of respiration that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

  1. Sternocleidomastoid
  2. Trapezius
  3. Diaphragm Correct answer.
  4. External oblique

Explanation

The diaphragm is a dome-shaped sheet of skeletal muscle separating thorax from abdomen and is the main muscle of quiet breathing. The external oblique is an abdominal wall muscle, while sternocleidomastoid and trapezius are accessory muscles used only in laboured breathing.

Question 15Anatomy and Physiology

Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary, striated and found only in the wall of the heart?

  1. Cardiac muscle Correct answer.
  2. Voluntary muscle
  3. Skeletal muscle
  4. Smooth muscle

Explanation

Cardiac muscle is striated like skeletal muscle but contracts involuntarily and rhythmically, being confined to the heart wall. Smooth muscle is involuntary but non-striated, and skeletal muscle is voluntary.

Question 16Anatomy and Physiology

A person in a hot environment begins to sweat profusely. Which homeostatic response is being described?

  1. A reflex that has no relation to temperature control
  2. An endocrine response that lowers blood glucose
  3. Negative feedback reducing body temperature Correct answer.
  4. Positive feedback increasing body temperature

Explanation

Sweating is part of a negative feedback loop: a rise in core temperature triggers evaporative cooling, which brings temperature back toward the set point. Positive feedback would amplify the change rather than reverse it.

Question 17Anatomy and Physiology

Which structure of the eye contains the photoreceptors responsible for vision?

  1. Lens
  2. Retina Correct answer.
  3. Sclera
  4. Cornea

Explanation

The retina lines the inner posterior eye and contains rods and cones that convert light into nerve impulses. The cornea and lens refract light, and the sclera is the tough outer protective coat.

Question 18Anatomy and Physiology

Which part of the digestive tract is the principal site of absorption of digested nutrients?

  1. Large intestine
  2. Stomach
  3. Small intestine Correct answer.
  4. Oesophagus

Explanation

The small intestine, with its villi and microvilli, provides the vast surface area for absorbing most nutrients and water. The stomach mainly digests protein and stores food, while the large intestine absorbs water and electrolytes.

Question 19Anatomy and Physiology

A patient reports numbness and tingling in the fingers. Which nerve plexus supplies the upper limb and would be examined for this symptom?

  1. Sacral plexus
  2. Brachial plexus Correct answer.
  3. Cervical plexus
  4. Lumbar plexus

Explanation

The brachial plexus arises from cervical spinal nerves and supplies the shoulder and upper limb. The lumbar and sacral plexuses supply the lower limb, and the cervical plexus supplies the neck and diaphragm.

Question 20Anatomy and Physiology

Which function is performed by the alveoli of the lungs?

  1. Movement of air by muscular contraction
  2. Production of mucus to trap dust particles
  3. Filtration of blood before it reaches the heart
  4. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air and blood Correct answer.

Explanation

Alveoli are thin-walled air sacs surrounded by capillaries where oxygen diffuses into blood and carbon dioxide diffuses out. Mucus production belongs to the respiratory epithelium, air movement to respiratory muscles, and blood filtration to the kidneys.

Question 21Anatomy and Physiology

If the left ventricle ejects a stroke volume of 70 mL at a heart rate of 75 beats per minute, what is the cardiac output per minute?

  1. 5.25 litres per minute Correct answer.
  2. 0.525 litres per minute
  3. 7.5 litres per minute
  4. 52.5 litres per minute

Explanation

Cardiac output equals stroke volume multiplied by heart rate, so 70 mL multiplied by 75 beats per minute gives 5250 mL, which is 5.25 litres per minute. This value falls within the normal adult resting range.

Question 22Anatomy and Physiology

Which statement correctly explains why the left ventricular wall is thicker than the right ventricular wall?

  1. The left ventricle has a larger valve opening than the right ventricle
  2. The right ventricle pumps blood against the higher resistance of the pulmonary circuit
  3. The left ventricle contains more blood at all times than the right ventricle
  4. The left ventricle must generate higher pressure to pump blood through the systemic circulation Correct answer.

Explanation

The left ventricle ejects blood into the aorta and systemic circuit, which offers far greater resistance than the pulmonary circuit, so its myocardium is thicker to generate higher pressure. The right ventricle faces low pulmonary resistance and therefore needs less muscle mass.

Question 23Anatomy and Physiology

A patient with damage to the posterior pituitary would most likely show a deficiency of which hormone?

  1. Cortisol
  2. Growth hormone
  3. Thyroxine
  4. Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.

Explanation

Antidiuretic hormone is synthesised in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary, so posterior pituitary damage reduces its release and causes excessive dilute urine. Growth hormone, cortisol and thyroxine are secreted by the anterior pituitary, adrenal cortex and thyroid respectively.

Question 24Anatomy and Physiology

Which structural feature of the small intestine most increases its surface area for absorption?

  1. Presence of serosa
  2. Circular folds, villi and microvilli Correct answer.
  3. Thick muscularis externa
  4. Short length of the duodenum

Explanation

The circular folds, finger-like villi and apical microvilli multiply the absorptive surface many times over. Muscle layers provide motility, the serosa is a protective covering, and intestinal length supports rather than limits absorption.

Question 25Anatomy and Physiology

Which sequence describes the correct order of events in a reflex arc?

  1. Sensory neuron, receptor, effector, integrating centre, motor neuron
  2. Receptor, motor neuron, integrating centre, sensory neuron, effector
  3. Effector, motor neuron, integrating centre, sensory neuron, receptor
  4. Receptor, sensory neuron, integrating centre, motor neuron, effector Correct answer.

Explanation

A reflex arc begins with a receptor detecting the stimulus, passes the impulse along a sensory neuron to the integrating centre (spinal cord or brain), then along a motor neuron to the effector, which responds. This unidirectional path allows rapid protective responses.

Question 26Anatomy and Physiology

Which formed element of blood is most directly responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?

  1. Lymphocyte
  2. Erythrocyte Correct answer.
  3. Leukocyte
  4. Thrombocyte

Explanation

Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, contain haemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the tissues. Leukocytes and lymphocytes are white blood cells involved in immunity, while thrombocytes are platelets involved in clotting. Therefore, the erythrocyte is the principal oxygen carrier.

Question 27Anatomy and Physiology

Which part of the brain contains the respiratory centres that generate the basic rhythm of breathing?

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Medulla oblongata Correct answer.
  4. Thalamus

Explanation

The medulla oblongata houses the dorsal and ventral respiratory groups, which produce the automatic rhythm of breathing. The cerebellum coordinates movement and balance, the hypothalamus regulates homeostasis and hormone release, and the thalamus relays sensory information. Thus, the medulla oblongata is the respiratory rhythm generator.

Question 28Anatomy and Physiology

A patient has a tumour pressing on the posterior pituitary gland. Which hormone deficiency would most directly result from this compression?

  1. Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Insulin
  4. Cortisol

Explanation

The posterior pituitary stores and releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin, which are produced in the hypothalamus. Thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid gland, insulin by the pancreatic islets, and cortisol by the adrenal cortex. Therefore, compression of the posterior pituitary would most directly reduce ADH release.

Question 29Anatomy and Physiology

In the nephron, which process moves glucose from the tubular fluid back into the peritubular blood?

  1. Tubular reabsorption Correct answer.
  2. Glomerular reabsorption
  3. Glomerular filtration
  4. Tubular secretion

Explanation

Tubular reabsorption is the movement of useful substances such as glucose, amino acids, and water from the tubular lumen back into the blood. Glomerular filtration moves fluid from blood into the capsule, while tubular secretion moves substances from blood into the tubule. Glomerular reabsorption is not a standard term, as reabsorption occurs in the tubules.

Question 30Anatomy and Physiology

A person suffers a spinal cord injury that destroys the anterior horn cells at the level of the fifth and sixth cervical segments. Which outcome is most likely?

  1. Flaccid paralysis of the muscles of the upper limb Correct answer.
  2. Loss of pain and temperature sensation in the lower limbs
  3. Spastic paralysis of the muscles of the lower limb
  4. Loss of conscious proprioception from the trunk

Explanation

Anterior horn cells are the lower motor neurons whose axons innervate skeletal muscle. Destruction of these cells at C5–C6 produces flaccid paralysis and atrophy of the muscles they supply, which include the deltoid and biceps. Spastic paralysis follows upper motor neuron lesions, while sensory loss follows damage to ascending pathways, not anterior horn cells.

Question 31Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient is to receive 600 mL of intravenous fluid over 8 hours using a drip set that delivers 15 drops per mL. How many drops per minute should the nurse regulate the flow to?

  1. 13 drops per minute
  2. 25 drops per minute
  3. 31 drops per minute
  4. 19 drops per minute Correct answer.

Explanation

The flow rate formula is drops per minute = (total volume in mL × drop factor) ÷ total time in minutes. Here 600 × 15 = 9000 drops, and 8 hours is 480 minutes, so 9000 ÷ 480 = 18.75, which is rounded to 19 drops per minute. Rounding to the nearest whole drop is standard because a drip chamber cannot deliver a fraction of a drop.

Question 32Fundamentals of Nursing

Which position is most appropriate for a conscious patient who has just vomited and is at risk of aspiration?

  1. Trendelenburg position
  2. High Fowler position with legs elevated
  3. Supine with the head flat
  4. Lateral with the head turned to one side Correct answer.

Explanation

A lateral (side-lying) position with the head turned allows vomitus and secretions to drain out of the mouth by gravity rather than pooling at the back of the throat. This protects the airway in a patient who is drowsy or has an impaired cough reflex. Supine and head-down positions both favour aspiration.

Question 33Fundamentals of Nursing

When performing a surgical hand scrub before a sterile procedure, which action maintains asepsis?

  1. Scrubbing only the palms and the dorsal surface of the hands
  2. Drying the hands first and then the forearms with the same towel end
  3. Holding the hands above elbow level throughout the scrub and rinse Correct answer.
  4. Keeping the hands below waist level while moving to the trolley

Explanation

During a surgical scrub the hands are kept higher than the elbows so that water and contaminated run-off flow from the clean hands toward the less clean forearms and elbows. This prevents recontamination of the fingers. The scrub must also cover the interdigital spaces, knuckles, and forearms, and the hands must stay above waist level after the scrub.

Question 34Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient's radial pulse is recorded as 46 beats per minute and regular. Which term should the nurse use to document this finding?

  1. Bradycardia Correct answer.
  2. Dysrhythmia
  3. Normocardia
  4. Tachycardia

Explanation

Bradycardia is a resting heart rate below the accepted adult lower limit of 60 beats per minute. A regular rate of 46 beats per minute therefore fits bradycardia. Tachycardia refers to a rate above 100 per minute, and dysrhythmia refers to an irregular rhythm rather than a slow one.

Question 35Fundamentals of Nursing

Which instruction should the nurse give a patient before collecting a midstream urine specimen for culture?

  1. Clean the perineal area and collect urine after the first part has been passed Correct answer.
  2. Add the entire 24-hour urine output to a single container
  3. Collect the first voided urine of the morning in the container
  4. Drink no fluids for 12 hours before the collection

Explanation

A midstream (clean-catch) specimen is obtained by cleansing the urethral opening and discarding the first portion of the stream, then collecting the middle portion into a sterile container. This reduces contamination from skin flora and gives a sample representative of bladder urine. A 24-hour collection is a different test and is not used for routine culture.

Question 36Fundamentals of Nursing

Which measure is most effective in preventing pressure ulcers in a bedridden patient?

  1. Massaging the reddened bony prominences firmly twice a day
  2. Repositioning the patient at planned intervals and relieving pressure on bony points Correct answer.
  3. Applying a rubber sheet directly under the patient's back
  4. Keeping the skin moist with frequent water soaks

Explanation

Pressure ulcer prevention depends mainly on relieving sustained pressure over bony prominences through regular repositioning, usually at least every two hours, supported by pressure-redistributing surfaces. Skin hygiene, nutrition, and moisture control are additional measures. Massaging reddened areas is harmful because it damages already ischaemic tissue.

Question 37Fundamentals of Nursing

The normal adult oral temperature range, measured in degrees Celsius, is approximately:

  1. 36.5 to 37.5 Correct answer.
  2. 34.5 to 35.5
  3. 38.0 to 39.0
  4. 40.0 to 41.0

Explanation

Normal adult core temperature is about 37 degrees Celsius, with a usual oral range of roughly 36.5 to 37.5 degrees. Values near 38 degrees or above indicate fever, and values of 34 to 35 degrees suggest hypothermia. The oral reading is slightly lower than rectal but within this range.

Question 38Fundamentals of Nursing

Which statement correctly describes the purpose of the first stage of wound healing, haemostasis?

  1. Granulation tissue fills the wound bed with new capillaries
  2. Bleeding is stopped by clot formation and severed vessels contract Correct answer.
  3. New collagen is laid down to increase wound tensile strength
  4. The wound edges contract and the scar matures over months

Explanation

Haemostasis is the immediate response to injury in which blood vessels constrict and platelets aggregate with fibrin to form a clot, stopping bleeding. It is followed by the inflammatory, proliferative, and maturation stages. Collagen deposition, granulation, and scar maturation occur in later stages.

Question 39Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient with a nasogastric tube is to receive a liquid feed. Which action should the nurse take before administering the feed?

  1. Instil the feed rapidly to save nursing time
  2. Add the feed to the tube without checking residual volume
  3. Flush the tube with air and check the pH of aspirate to confirm gastric placement Correct answer.
  4. Position the patient flat on the back during the feed

Explanation

Before each feed the nurse should verify tube position, for example by checking the pH of aspirated fluid, and check gastric residual volume as per protocol. Feeding is given with the head of the bed elevated to reduce aspiration risk, and at a controlled rate. Rapid instillation and a flat position both increase the risk of aspiration and discomfort.

Question 40Fundamentals of Nursing

Which route of drug administration is described as parenteral?

  1. Intramuscular injection into the gluteal muscle Correct answer.
  2. Rectal suppository inserted into the rectum
  3. Sublingual tablet held under the tongue
  4. Oral tablet swallowed with water

Explanation

Parenteral administration means introducing a drug by injection, bypassing the gastrointestinal tract; intramuscular, subcutaneous, and intravenous routes are parenteral. Oral, sublingual, and rectal routes are enteral because the drug is absorbed through mucosal surfaces of the digestive tract. Identifying the route correctly matters for onset time and for safe injection practice.

Question 41Fundamentals of Nursing

The nurse is preparing to give an intramuscular injection into the ventrogluteal site. Which landmark identifies this site?

  1. The deltoid muscle just below the acromion process
  2. The palm of the hand placed on the greater trochanter with the index finger on the anterior superior iliac spine Correct answer.
  3. The upper outer quadrant of the buttock defined by the posterior iliac spine
  4. The lower third of the anterior thigh

Explanation

The ventrogluteal site is located by placing the palm on the greater trochanter and the index finger on the anterior superior iliac spine, then injecting in the centre of the V formed by the index and middle fingers. It is preferred because it is away from major nerves and blood vessels. The upper outer quadrant of the buttock describes the dorsogluteal site.

Question 42Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient is admitted with severe vomiting and diarrhoea for two days. Which acid-base and fluid imbalance should the nurse anticipate?

  1. Respiratory acidosis with hypercalcaemia
  2. Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia Correct answer.
  3. Respiratory alkalosis with hypernatraemia
  4. Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalaemia

Explanation

Prolonged vomiting loses gastric hydrochloric acid and potassium-rich fluid, producing a metabolic alkalosis with low serum potassium. Diarrhoea tends to cause metabolic acidosis, but when vomiting predominates the alkalosis picture is expected. Respiratory changes are compensatory rather than primary here.

Question 43Fundamentals of Nursing

Which statement about standard precautions in nursing practice is correct?

  1. Sharps may be recapped with two hands if the nurse is careful
  2. Gloves replace the need for hand hygiene after patient contact
  3. Hand hygiene is performed before and after contact with every patient Correct answer.
  4. Gowns are required for every routine blood pressure measurement

Explanation

Standard precautions require hand hygiene before and after every patient contact, regardless of whether gloves are worn. Gloves do not substitute for hand hygiene, and personal protective equipment is selected according to the anticipated exposure. Sharps must never be recapped by hand; they go directly into a puncture-resistant container.

Question 44Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient reports pain scored 8 out of 10 after abdominal surgery. Which nursing action is most appropriate first?

  1. Apply a hot water bag to the abdomen without an order
  2. Tell the patient that pain is expected and needs no action
  3. Record the pain score and reassess after four hours
  4. Assess the characteristics of the pain and administer the prescribed analgesic Correct answer.

Explanation

Severe unrelieved pain requires a focused assessment of site, character, and timing, followed by administration of the prescribed analgesic and later reassessment of effect. Pain management is a core nursing responsibility and delays cause suffering and impaired recovery. Applying heat to an unassessed surgical abdomen is unsafe without an order.

Question 45Fundamentals of Nursing

Which technique is correct when the nurse performs a bed bath for a dependent patient?

  1. Use the same face cloth for the face and the perineal area without rinsing
  2. Wash from the cleanest area to the dirtiest area and change the water when soiled Correct answer.
  3. Rub the skin vigorously until it becomes red
  4. Expose the whole body throughout the bath to save time

Explanation

A bed bath proceeds from cleaner regions such as the face and upper body toward dirtier regions such as the perineum, and the water and cloth are changed when soiled. Only the part being washed is exposed to maintain warmth, privacy, and dignity. Gentle friction protects the skin barrier.

Question 46Fundamentals of Nursing

When transferring a patient from bed to a chair, which action protects both the patient and the nurse from injury?

  1. Ask the patient to grasp the nurse around the neck
  2. Bend at the waist and twist the trunk while lifting
  3. Lift the patient with outstretched arms away from the body
  4. Keep the feet apart, bend the knees, and hold the patient close before standing Correct answer.

Explanation

Safe patient handling uses a wide base of support, knee flexion, a straight back, and the patient held close to the nurse's centre of gravity, with the patient assisting as able. This reduces spinal loading and the risk of falls for both people. Twisting while lifting and lifting at arm's length greatly increase injury risk.

Question 47Fundamentals of Nursing

The nurse is to instil eye drops into a patient's eye. Which step is correct?

  1. Ask the patient to look toward the nurse during instillation
  2. Instil the drops directly onto the centre of the cornea
  3. Touch the dropper tip to the eyelashes to steady the hand
  4. Pull the lower lid down and instil the drop into the conjunctival sac Correct answer.

Explanation

Eye drops are instilled into the lower conjunctival sac after gently retracting the lower lid, with the patient looking up. The cornea is highly sensitive and must not be touched, and the dropper tip must stay sterile by not contacting the eye or lashes. This technique minimises discomfort and contamination.

Question 48Fundamentals of Nursing

Which finding indicates that a patient's nasogastric tube has been displaced into the respiratory tract?

  1. The tube markings show the tube advanced by 1 cm
  2. The patient coughs and becomes breathless during tube insertion Correct answer.
  3. The patient complains of a sore throat and dry mouth
  4. The aspirate has a greenish biliary colour

Explanation

Coughing, choking, breathlessness, or cyanosis during tube insertion suggests the tube has entered the airway and must be withdrawn immediately. Gastric placement is supported by a pH of aspirate around 5.5 or less and by the absence of respiratory distress. Sore throat and tube markings alone do not confirm airway misplacement.

Question 49Fundamentals of Nursing

Which action is correct when the nurse performs a bladder catheterisation with a sterile technique?

  1. Insert the catheter with ungloved hands to improve grip
  2. Advance the catheter only 2 cm past the meatus in a female patient
  3. Lubricate the catheter with a non-sterile cream from an open jar
  4. Cleanse the urethral meatus with antiseptic using strokes away from the meatus Correct answer.

Explanation

During catheterisation the meatus is cleansed with antiseptic solution using single strokes directed away from the meatus to avoid bringing organisms toward the opening. Sterile gloves, sterile lubricant, and adequate insertion depth are required to maintain asepsis and avoid trauma. These steps together reduce catheter-associated urinary tract infection.

Question 50Fundamentals of Nursing

The nurse is calculating a paediatric dose. Which statement about drug dosage calculation is correct?

  1. Age in years is the most reliable single guide to paediatric dose
  2. Children always receive half of the adult dose regardless of weight
  3. Body surface area is never used in paediatric dosing
  4. Dose calculation based on body weight in kilograms gives a more accurate paediatric dose Correct answer.

Explanation

Paediatric doses are most accurately calculated from body weight in kilograms or from body surface area, because drug distribution depends on size and maturation rather than age alone. Fixed fractions of adult doses are unsafe. Weight-based calculation, checked against a reference, is the standard approach.