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WBBSE Madhyamik Vocational Apparel study materials
WBBSE Madhyamik Vocational Apparel study resources

WBBSE Madhyamik Vocational Apparel practice questions

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Question 1Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

WBBSE Madhyamik Vocational students learn that the apparel sector begins with which primary activity in the value chain?

  1. Retail display of finished garments in showrooms
  2. Export documentation for shipped consignments
  3. Dry cleaning of used school uniforms
  4. Conversion of fibre into yarn and fabric Correct answer.

Explanation

The apparel value chain starts with textile production, where natural or man-made fibre is spun into yarn and then woven or knitted into fabric. Only after fabric exists can cutting, stitching and finishing of garments happen. Retail, export paperwork and cleaning come later or outside the core production chain.

Question 2Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

In the readymade garment industry, the term 'apparel' most precisely refers to which of the following?

  1. Raw cotton bales stored in a godown
  2. Finished wearable garments stitched from fabric Correct answer.
  3. Industrial sewing machine spare parts
  4. Chemical dyes used in fabric colouring

Explanation

Apparel means finished clothing that is ready to be worn, produced by cutting and stitching fabric. Raw cotton, dyes and machine parts are inputs or equipment for making apparel, not apparel itself. This distinction is basic vocabulary for the vocational course.

Question 3Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

A student wants to become a pattern master in the apparel trade. Which skill set is most directly required for this job role?

  1. Drafting garment shapes on paper from body measurements Correct answer.
  2. Managing canteen accounts for factory workers
  3. Testing colour fastness of dyed yarn samples
  4. Operating a power loom to weave grey fabric

Explanation

A pattern master translates body measurements into accurate paper drafts that guide fabric cutting. This requires knowledge of sizing, ease allowance and garment construction, not weaving or chemical testing. Accounts work belongs to administration, not pattern making.

Question 4Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

Which of these is a recognised organised-sector employer in the apparel industry of West Bengal?

  1. A roadside tailor stitching school uniforms
  2. A handloom weaver working alone at home
  3. A garment export unit in an industrial park Correct answer.
  4. A village shop selling readymade shirts

Explanation

Organised-sector apparel units are registered factories or export houses with structured employment, defined wages and safety rules. A garment export unit in an industrial park fits this description. Individual weavers, small tailors and retail shops belong to the unorganised or informal segment.

Question 5Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

Why is the apparel sector described as labour-intensive rather than capital-intensive?

  1. It depends mainly on imported software systems
  2. It employs many workers for cutting, stitching and finishing tasks Correct answer.
  3. It requires no electricity or machines at all
  4. It needs very large investments in automated machinery only

Explanation

Labour-intensive means production relies more on human hands than on heavy machinery investment. Garment making involves many manual operations such as cutting, stitching, checking and pressing, so it absorbs a large workforce. Capital-intensive industries, by contrast, depend on expensive automated plant and equipment.

Question 6Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

A student completes a vocational course in apparel and wishes to start a small tailoring unit at home. Which combination of support measures would be most useful?

  1. Loom, boiler and dyeing vat for bulk fabric production
  2. Pattern grading software and a large factory shed
  3. Export licence and shipping container booking
  4. Basic sewing machine, skill certificate and a small business loan Correct answer.

Explanation

A home tailoring unit needs modest stitching equipment, proof of skill and small working capital. A sewing machine, a recognised certificate and a micro loan match this scale exactly. Looms, boilers, export licences and factory sheds are suited to much larger industrial operations.

Question 7Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

In a garment factory, which department is responsible for checking that stitched shirts meet measurement and stitch-quality standards before packing?

  1. Quality control section Correct answer.
  2. Cutting section
  3. Maintenance department
  4. Stores department

Explanation

Quality control inspects finished or semi-finished garments against specifications such as measurements, stitch density and defects. Cutting, stores and maintenance handle fabric cutting, material storage and machine repair respectively. Passing garments through QC before packing prevents defective goods reaching buyers.

Question 8Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

Which career path best describes a merchandiser in the garment export industry?

  1. Repairing sewing machines when they break down
  2. Coordinating orders, costing and delivery between buyer and factory Correct answer.
  3. Stitching garments on the production floor all day
  4. Driving delivery vans to the port

Explanation

A merchandiser acts as the link between overseas buyers and the factory, handling order follow-up, costing, sampling and shipment schedules. The role is managerial and communicative rather than manual stitching. Machine repair and transport are separate technical and logistics jobs.

Question 9Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

A candidate reads that garment exports earn foreign exchange for India. Which statement correctly explains this benefit?

  1. Buyers abroad pay in foreign currency for garments made locally Correct answer.
  2. Factories receive free fabric from foreign suppliers
  3. Workers are paid in foreign currency only
  4. Government pays exporters a fixed monthly salary

Explanation

When foreign buyers purchase Indian garments, they remit payment in foreign currency, which adds to the country's foreign exchange reserves. The benefit arises from export sales, not from free materials or government salaries. Wages to domestic workers are normally paid in Indian rupees.

Question 10Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

Which body is the nodal agency of the Government of India responsible for promoting and regulating the apparel export sector?

  1. Food Corporation of India (FCI)
  2. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  3. Apparel Export Promotion Council (AEPC) Correct answer.
  4. National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)

Explanation

AEPC is the export promotion council for readymade garments, working with the Ministry of Textiles to support exporters and regulate trade facilitation. RBI is the central bank, FCI handles food grain and NHAI manages highways. None of these deals with apparel export promotion.

Question 11Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

A factory produces 1,200 shirts in a shift using 40 operators. What is the approximate per-operator output for that shift?

  1. 40 shirts
  2. 30 shirts Correct answer.
  3. 20 shirts
  4. 48 shirts

Explanation

Per-operator output is total pieces divided by the number of operators: 1,200 divided by 40 equals 30 shirts per operator. This simple productivity measure helps supervisors compare efficiency between lines or shifts. Options 20, 40 and 48 do not result from this division.

Question 12Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

Which of the following best explains why the apparel sector provides large employment to women workers in India?

  1. Stitching and finishing tasks are light, skill-based and trainable Correct answer.
  2. Women are legally barred from other industries
  3. The work requires heavy lifting unsuitable for men
  4. The sector pays no wages to male workers

Explanation

Garment operations such as stitching, checking and trimming are light, repetitive and skill-based, which allows large female participation after short training. There is no legal bar on women in other industries, and men are also employed in apparel units. Heavy lifting is not the defining feature of this work.

Question 13Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

A small unit wants to reduce fabric wastage during cutting. Which practice should it adopt first?

  1. Preparing an accurate marker plan with minimum gaps Correct answer.
  2. Cutting each garment piece separately from a fresh lay
  3. Buying the cheapest available fabric regardless of width
  4. Storing fabric rolls in an open damp area

Explanation

A marker is the layout of pattern pieces on fabric; a tight, accurate marker reduces the gap between pieces and saves fabric. Cutting pieces separately and using unsuitable fabric widths increase waste. Damp storage damages fabric and adds to losses rather than reducing them.

Question 14Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

Which statement correctly distinguishes the textile sector from the apparel sector?

  1. Apparel produces raw cotton; textile retails garments
  2. Textile makes yarn and fabric; apparel makes wearable garments from fabric Correct answer.
  3. Textile makes garments; apparel makes yarn and fabric
  4. Both sectors only sell finished clothes in shops

Explanation

The textile sector converts fibre into yarn and fabric, while the apparel sector cuts and stitches that fabric into wearable garments. The two are linked stages of one value chain but involve different machines, skills and job roles. Reversing their functions or merging them into retail ignores this division.

Question 15Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

An export order requires 5,000 pieces in 25 working days. If the factory can produce 150 pieces per day, what is the minimum daily output needed and will the current capacity meet the deadline?

  1. 100 pieces per day; capacity is insufficient
  2. 200 pieces per day; capacity is insufficient Correct answer.
  3. 250 pieces per day; capacity is sufficient
  4. 150 pieces per day; capacity is sufficient

Explanation

Required daily output equals 5,000 divided by 25, which is 200 pieces per day. Since the factory can make only 150 pieces daily, it falls short by 50 pieces each day and cannot meet the deadline at current capacity. The other options misstate either the required rate or the capacity judgement.

Question 16Introduction to Apparel Sector and Career Opportunities

A trainee notices that a garment unit rejects many pieces due to skipped stitches. Which root-cause analysis step should be taken first?

  1. Check needle, thread tension and machine timing on affected machines Correct answer.
  2. Increase the daily production target to recover losses
  3. Immediately buy new sewing machines for the whole line
  4. Transfer the rejection blame to the fabric supplier

Explanation

Skipped stitches usually arise from a bent needle, wrong thread tension or incorrect machine timing, so these factors should be checked first. Buying new machines or raising targets does not address the actual cause. Blaming the fabric supplier without evidence is not a valid analysis step.

Question 17Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which natural fibre is obtained from the stem of a plant and is therefore classified as a bast fibre?

  1. Wool
  2. Jute Correct answer.
  3. Cotton
  4. Silk

Explanation

Bast fibres are extracted from the phloem or stem region of dicotyledonous plants, and jute is the classic example used in Indian textile study. Cotton comes from the seed hair of the plant, not the stem.

Question 18Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

A fabric sample burns with a smell of burning hair and leaves a crushable black ash. Which fibre is most likely present?

  1. Cotton
  2. Wool Correct answer.
  3. Polyester
  4. Viscose rayon

Explanation

Protein fibres such as wool and silk char with the characteristic odour of burnt hair because they contain sulphur-bearing amino acids, and they leave a crushable ash. Cellulosic and synthetic fibres do not give this smell.

Question 19Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

In the standard textile terminology, what does the term 'staple' describe?

  1. A yarn made only from silk
  2. A continuous filament of indefinite length
  3. A woven selvedge edge
  4. A fibre of short, measurable length Correct answer.

Explanation

Staple fibres are short fibres with a definite length, such as cotton, jute and wool, and they must be twisted together to form a yarn. Continuous filament describes the opposite case, as in silk or manufactured filament yarn.

Question 20Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which spinning system is used to convert short-staple cotton into yarn by the sequence blow room, carding, drawing, speed frame and ring frame?

  1. Cotton (carded) system Correct answer.
  2. Wrap spinning
  3. Woollen system
  4. Worsted system

Explanation

The cotton or carded system is designed for short staple fibres and follows the blow room, card, draw frame, speed frame and ring frame sequence. Worsted and woollen systems are organised for longer wool fibres with combing or condenser carding.

Question 21Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

A yarn is described as 30s count in the cotton count system. What does this indicate?

  1. One pound of yarn contains 30 hanks of 840 yards Correct answer.
  2. The yarn has 30 twists per inch
  3. The yarn diameter is 30 thousandths of an inch
  4. 30 metres of yarn weigh one gram

Explanation

In the indirect cotton count system, the count is the number of 840-yard hanks that weigh one pound, so 30s means 30 such hanks per pound. A higher count therefore indicates a finer yarn.

Question 22Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Why is a doubled and twisted yarn generally stronger and more uniform than the single yarns from which it is made?

  1. Because twist evens out thick and thin places and adds fibre-to-fibre cohesion Correct answer.
  2. Because doubling increases the moisture regain of the fibre
  3. Because doubling changes the chemical nature of the fibre
  4. Because doubling removes all short fibres from the yarn

Explanation

When two single yarns are plied, the thick and thin places tend to fall at different points and average out, while the added twist increases cohesion between fibres. The result is a more regular and stronger yarn without any chemical change.

Question 23Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which type of yarn is produced by entangling filaments with a high-velocity air jet without using a spindle?

  1. Friction-spun yarn
  2. Air-jet (tangled) yarn Correct answer.
  3. Open-end rotor yarn
  4. Ring-spun yarn

Explanation

Air-jet or air-texturing systems use turbulent air to entangle and interlace filaments, producing a yarn without a rotating spindle. Ring and rotor spinning both rely on mechanical twisting of staple fibres.

Question 24Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

In a plain weave fabric, which statement correctly describes the interlacing pattern?

  1. The warp threads are grouped to form a diagonal rib
  2. Each warp thread floats over four weft threads before interlacing
  3. Each warp thread passes over two and under two weft threads
  4. Each warp thread passes alternately over and under one weft thread Correct answer.

Explanation

Plain weave is the simplest interlacing, in which every warp end crosses alternately over one and under one pick, giving maximum firmness and the greatest number of interlacements. Twills and satins have longer floats and fewer crossings.

Question 25Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

A fabric shows a clear diagonal line on its surface. Which weave is most likely responsible?

  1. Twill weave Correct answer.
  2. Pile weave
  3. Satin weave
  4. Plain weave

Explanation

Twill weave produces a characteristic diagonal line because the points of interlacing shift by one thread in each successive pick. The number of ends and picks crossed before interlacing determines the angle and direction of the twill line.

Question 26Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Why does a satin weave fabric appear lustrous and smooth on its face?

  1. Because the fabric is heavily calendered after weaving
  2. Because the yarns are always made of silk filament
  3. Because the fabric has the highest possible number of interlacements
  4. Because the floats of warp or weft lie long and continuous, reflecting light evenly Correct answer.

Explanation

Satin weave distributes its interlacing points so that long floats cover the surface, and these continuous floats reflect light in a single direction to give lustre. The low number of interlacements also makes the fabric smooth but reduces firmness.

Question 27Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which fabric structure is made by interlacing two sets of warp threads with one set of weft, so that the two warp layers interlock?

  1. Knitted jersey
  2. Triple cloth
  3. Twill weave
  4. Double cloth Correct answer.

Explanation

Double cloth consists of two series of warp threads and one or more series of weft threads woven so that the layers interlock at intervals. Triple cloth would require three sets of warp layers and is a different structure.

Question 28Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

A knitted fabric stretches more easily than a woven fabric mainly because of which feature?

  1. Its yarns are interlaced at right angles
  2. Its selvedge is stronger
  3. Its yarns are always finer in count
  4. Its loops can deform and slide past one another Correct answer.

Explanation

Knitted structures are built from interlocking loops, and these loops can change shape and move relative to each other, giving high extensibility. Woven fabrics interlace straight yarns at right angles, which restricts such movement.

Question 29Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which of the following is a regenerated cellulosic fibre?

  1. Polyester
  2. Viscose rayon Correct answer.
  3. Nylon 6,6
  4. Acrylic

Explanation

Viscose rayon is produced by dissolving cellulose pulp and regenerating it into filament, so it is a regenerated cellulosic fibre. Nylon, polyester and acrylic are fully synthetic polymers made from petrochemicals.

Question 30Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which property of polyester makes it suitable for easy-care school uniforms that dry quickly?

  1. High biodegradability in soil
  2. Low moisture regain and good wrinkle resistance Correct answer.
  3. High flammability with no melting behaviour
  4. High moisture regain and high water absorption

Explanation

Polyester has low moisture regain, so it absorbs little water, dries fast and resists creasing, which suits wash-and-wear uniforms. Its hydrophobic nature is the reason it does not hold moisture like cotton.

Question 31Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

A candidate compares cotton and viscose rayon. Which statement is correct?

  1. Both are cellulosic, but viscose has lower wet strength than cotton Correct answer.
  2. Cotton is a regenerated fibre while viscose is natural
  3. Both are protein fibres with similar burning behaviour
  4. Viscose is stronger when wet than when dry

Explanation

Cotton and viscose are both based on cellulose, but viscose loses a large part of its strength when wet, whereas cotton retains most of its strength. This is why viscose needs gentler washing and handling.

Question 32Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

What is the main purpose of sizing applied to warp yarns before weaving?

  1. To increase the lustre of the finished fabric
  2. To set the twist permanently in the weft
  3. To remove natural waxes from the cotton
  4. To improve abrasion resistance and reduce breakage during weaving Correct answer.

Explanation

Sizing coats the warp yarn with a film of starch or similar adhesive, which improves abrasion resistance and reduces hairiness, so the yarn withstands the repeated rubbing of healds and reed. The size is later removed in desizing.

Question 33Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which process removes natural impurities such as pectins, waxes and proteins from grey cotton fabric?

  1. Mercerising
  2. Calendering
  3. Scouring Correct answer.
  4. Desizing

Explanation

Scouring uses hot alkaline liquor to saponify waxes and dissolve pectins and other impurities, making the cotton absorbent. Desizing removes added size, while mercerising and calendering are finishing treatments.

Question 34Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

A fabric is treated with strong caustic soda solution while held under tension. Which effect is produced?

  1. Conversion of cotton into a synthetic fibre
  2. Shrinkage of the fabric in both directions
  3. Increased lustre and improved dye uptake Correct answer.
  4. Complete removal of the size

Explanation

Mercerisation swells the cotton fibre under tension, producing a rounder cross-section that reflects light better and increasing the accessible cellulose for dyes. The tension prevents the shrinkage that would otherwise occur.

Question 35Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which dye class is most suitable for dyeing cotton fabric in a simple, economical process using soda ash as the fixing alkali?

  1. Acid dyes
  2. Basic (cationic) dyes
  3. Reactive dyes Correct answer.
  4. Disperse dyes

Explanation

Reactive dyes form a covalent bond with cellulose in the presence of alkali such as soda ash, giving good wash fastness on cotton. Disperse dyes are used for polyester, and acid and basic dyes suit protein or acrylic fibres.

Question 36Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

What is the primary function of a mordant in dyeing with natural or mordant dyes?

  1. To soften the water used in the dye bath
  2. To fix the dye on the fibre by forming a complex with it Correct answer.
  3. To increase the pH of the dye bath
  4. To bleach the fabric before dyeing

Explanation

A mordant, such as alum or an iron salt, combines with the dye to form an insoluble complex inside the fibre, improving fixation and often changing the shade. Without a mordant many natural dyes wash out easily.

Question 37Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which test is used to distinguish cotton from wool by observing the fibre under a microscope?

  1. Both show identical smooth cylindrical shapes
  2. Cotton shows a flattened, twisted ribbon, wool shows overlapping scales Correct answer.
  3. Cotton shows a triangular cross-section, wool shows a lobed one
  4. Cotton shows scales, wool shows a smooth rod

Explanation

Under the microscope cotton appears as a flattened, convoluted ribbon, while wool shows a scaly surface formed by overlapping cuticle cells. These structural differences are the basis of microscopic fibre identification.

Question 38Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which of the following correctly describes the term 'selvedge' in a woven fabric?

  1. The self-finished edge formed by the weft turning back Correct answer.
  2. The cut end of a fabric roll
  3. The diagonal line produced by twill weaving
  4. The central portion of the fabric between the two edges

Explanation

The selvedge is the narrow, self-finished edge of a woven fabric where the weft thread reverses direction, and it prevents the edge from fraying. It is usually stronger and denser than the body of the fabric.

Question 39Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

A candidate needs a fabric with good dimensional stability and high strength for making school blazers. Which combination of weave and fibre is the most appropriate?

  1. Pile weave woollen fabric
  2. Twill weave polyester-viscose blend Correct answer.
  3. Plain weave cotton with low twist
  4. Satin weave silk filament

Explanation

A twill weave gives a firm, durable structure with good drape, and a polyester-viscose blend combines strength and wrinkle resistance with moisture absorbency. This combination suits tailored garments such as blazers.

Question 40Textile Fibres, Yarns and Fabrics

Which statement about the effect of twist on yarn properties is correct?

  1. Increasing twist always increases yarn strength without limit
  2. Twist reduces the cohesion between fibres
  3. Increasing twist first increases strength and then decreases it beyond an optimum Correct answer.
  4. Twist has no effect on yarn strength

Explanation

As twist is increased, fibre cohesion improves and yarn strength rises up to an optimum level; beyond that point the fibres become too inclined to the yarn axis and strength falls. This is why every yarn has an optimum twist factor.

Question 41Pattern Making and Drafting

In the standard women's basic bodice block, the bust dart is positioned primarily to control fullness at which location?

  1. At the bust apex Correct answer.
  2. At the waistline centre
  3. At the shoulder tip
  4. At the centre front neckline

Explanation

A bust dart is drafted so its point (the dart apex) lies near the bust apex, because that is where the fabric must be shaped to fit the body's curvature. The dart legs spread from the seam line and converge toward this apex. Placing the point elsewhere distorts fit.

Question 42Pattern Making and Drafting

When drafting a basic skirt block, which measurement is used to calculate the total dart intake at the waistline?

  1. Waist-to-hip depth plus waist circumference
  2. Waist circumference minus hip circumference
  3. Hip circumference minus waist circumference Correct answer.
  4. Knee circumference minus waist circumference

Explanation

Total dart intake equals the difference between the hip and waist circumferences, because the skirt must reduce from the wider hip to the narrower waist. This excess is then divided among the front, side and back darts. Depth measurements do not create intake.

Question 43Pattern Making and Drafting

In pattern drafting, the term 'grain line' on a pattern piece indicates which direction?

  1. The direction of the bias at exactly 45 degrees
  2. The direction of the fabric's lengthwise (warp) threads Correct answer.
  3. The direction of the selvedge edge only
  4. The direction of the fabric's crosswise (weft) threads

Explanation

The grain line arrow is aligned with the lengthwise grain, i.e. parallel to the selvedge, so the garment hangs correctly. Cutting on the crosswise or bias grain changes drape and stretch. The selvedge itself is an edge, not the grain direction.

Question 44Pattern Making and Drafting

A pattern piece carries the marking 'cut 2 on fold'. What does this instruction mean for the cutter?

  1. Place the fold line on the folded fabric edge and cut one double layer Correct answer.
  2. Cut two pieces and fold each one after cutting
  3. Cut one piece only and fold it during stitching
  4. Cut two separate pieces and join them at the centre

Explanation

'Cut 2 on fold' means the pattern edge marked 'place on fold' is aligned with a fold of the fabric, so cutting through both layers yields two symmetrical halves joined at the fold. The fold becomes the centre line of the garment. Cutting separate pieces would create an unnecessary seam.

Question 45Pattern Making and Drafting

Which tool is most appropriate for drawing smooth curved lines such as the armscye and neckline on a drafting sheet?

  1. French curve Correct answer.
  2. Tailor's chalk
  3. Set square
  4. Tracing wheel

Explanation

A French curve provides a range of curved edges that let the drafter draw smooth, continuous armscye and neckline curves. Straight-edged tools cannot produce these shapes. Chalk and tracing wheel are marking tools, not drawing curves.

Question 46Pattern Making and Drafting

In a basic sleeve draft, the sleeve cap height is largely determined by which factor?

  1. The depth of the armscye on the bodice Correct answer.
  2. The circumference of the neckline
  3. The length of the wrist opening
  4. The width of the waist dart

Explanation

Sleeve cap height is drafted in relation to the bodice armscye depth so the sleeve cap fits into the armhole. A deeper armscye requires a correspondingly adjusted cap. Wrist, waist and neckline measurements do not control cap height.

Question 47Pattern Making and Drafting

Why is a seam allowance added to pattern pieces after the construction lines are drafted?

  1. To indicate the grain direction
  2. To provide extra fabric for stitching the seam and finishing the edge Correct answer.
  3. To make the garment looser around the body
  4. To mark the position of darts

Explanation

Seam allowance is the extra margin beyond the stitching line that allows the seam to be sewn and finished without reducing the garment size. It is not a fitting or marking device. Darts and grain are separate pattern markings.

Question 48Pattern Making and Drafting

A pattern for a child's garment is graded from size 6 to size 8. What does grading mean in this context?

  1. Increasing or decreasing a pattern systematically to produce other sizes Correct answer.
  2. Folding the pattern to test the fit
  3. Adding seam allowance to all edges of one size
  4. Marking the grain line on each piece

Explanation

Grading is the systematic enlargement or reduction of a base pattern to create a range of sizes while keeping proportions consistent. It is distinct from adding seam allowance or checking fit. Each size is derived by controlled increments.

Question 49Pattern Making and Drafting

A bodice front block is drafted with half the body measurements. Which assumption makes this acceptable?

  1. The human body is symmetrical about the centre front line Correct answer.
  2. Darts absorb the difference between the halves
  3. The fabric stretches to compensate for the missing half
  4. The back is always wider than the front

Explanation

Drafting with half measurements works because the body is essentially symmetrical left to right, so one half pattern is cut twice or on folded fabric. Stretch, dart intake and back width do not justify discarding half the measurements. The centre front becomes the fold or mirror line.

Question 50Pattern Making and Drafting

A skirt block is drafted with a hip depth of 20 cm and skirt length of 60 cm. Where is the hip line placed on the draft?

  1. 60 cm below the waist line
  2. At the hem line
  3. 40 cm below the waist line
  4. 20 cm below the waist line Correct answer.

Explanation

The hip line is positioned at the hip depth measurement below the waist line, so here it is 20 cm down. The skirt length of 60 cm locates the hem, not the hip. Confusing length with depth places the hip incorrectly.