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WBCHSE HS Vocational Health Care study materials
WBCHSE HS Vocational Health Care study resources

WBCHSE HS Vocational Health Care practice questions

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Question 1Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which type of muscle tissue is under voluntary control and attaches to bones to produce movement of the skeleton?

  1. Skeletal muscle Correct answer.
  2. Cardiac muscle
  3. Smooth muscle
  4. Glandular epithelium

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is striated tissue controlled by somatic motor neurons, so the person can consciously contract it to move bones at joints. Cardiac and smooth muscle are involuntary, and epithelium is not contractile tissue at all.

Question 2Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A health care worker counts 18 respirations in 30 seconds. What respiratory rate should be recorded per minute?

  1. 18 per minute
  2. 36 per minute Correct answer.
  3. 9 per minute
  4. 54 per minute

Explanation

If 18 breaths occur in 30 seconds, the per-minute rate is found by multiplying by two, giving 36 breaths per minute. This is well above the normal adult resting range, so it would be recorded as tachypnoea and reported.

Question 3Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which blood vessel type carries blood away from the heart under high pressure?

  1. Lymphatic capillary
  2. Venule
  3. Artery Correct answer.
  4. Vein

Explanation

Arteries carry blood away from the heart and have thick, elastic, muscular walls to withstand the pressure generated by ventricular contraction. Veins and venules return blood toward the heart at low pressure, and lymph vessels carry lymph, not blood.

Question 4Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which formed element of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to tissues?

  1. Erythrocyte Correct answer.
  2. Platelet granule
  3. Thrombocyte
  4. Leukocyte

Explanation

Erythrocytes contain haemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the pulmonary capillaries and releases it in peripheral tissues. Leukocytes defend against infection, while thrombocytes and platelet granules function in haemostasis.

Question 5Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?

  1. Soft palate
  2. Glottis
  3. Epiglottis Correct answer.
  4. Uvula

Explanation

During swallowing the epiglottis folds over the opening of the larynx, directing the bolus into the oesophagus and protecting the airway. The uvula and soft palate help close the nasopharynx, and the glottis is the opening itself rather than the flap that guards it.

Question 6Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which organ produces bile, which is then stored in the gallbladder?

  1. Kidney
  2. Liver Correct answer.
  3. Spleen
  4. Pancreas

Explanation

Hepatocytes in the liver secrete bile, which travels through the hepatic ducts to the gallbladder for concentration and storage before release into the duodenum. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes, while the spleen and kidney have no role in bile production.

Question 7Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

What is the normal oral body temperature range for a healthy adult?

  1. 34.0 to 35.0 degrees Celsius
  2. 38.0 to 39.0 degrees Celsius
  3. 36.1 to 37.2 degrees Celsius Correct answer.
  4. 39.5 to 40.5 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Oral temperature in a healthy adult is generally about 36.1 to 37.2 degrees Celsius, with slight variation by site and time of day. Values near 34 to 35 indicate hypothermia, and values of 38 and above indicate fever.

Question 8Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which hand hygiene action should a health care worker take before touching a patient, according to standard infection control practice?

  1. Apply hand cream to protect the skin
  2. Wear sterile gloves without washing hands
  3. Perform hand hygiene with soap and water or alcohol-based rub Correct answer.
  4. Wipe hands on a clean towel only

Explanation

Hand hygiene before patient contact removes transient organisms acquired from the environment and reduces cross-transmission. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene, and a dry towel or cream does not decontaminate the skin.

Question 9Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which sequence correctly describes the flow of blood through the heart after it enters the right atrium?

  1. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta Correct answer.
  2. Right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle, aorta, lungs, pulmonary artery
  3. Right atrium, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta
  4. Right atrium, right ventricle, aorta, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, left ventricle

Explanation

Venous blood enters the right atrium, passes to the right ventricle, and is pumped through the pulmonary artery to the lungs. Oxygenated blood returns by the pulmonary veins to the left atrium and left ventricle, which ejects it into the aorta.

Question 10Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient's blood pressure is recorded as 150/95 mmHg. Which term best describes the 95 mmHg value?

  1. Systolic pressure during ventricular contraction
  2. Mean arterial pressure
  3. Diastolic pressure during ventricular relaxation Correct answer.
  4. Pulse pressure

Explanation

The lower figure of a blood pressure reading is the diastolic pressure, measured while the ventricles relax and the arteries recoil. The systolic value is the higher figure, pulse pressure is the difference between the two, and mean arterial pressure is a calculated average.

Question 11Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which part of the nephron is the main site of glomerular filtration of blood plasma?

  1. Loop of Henle
  2. Distal convoluted tubule
  3. Glomerulus Correct answer.
  4. Collecting duct

Explanation

The glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries where hydrostatic pressure forces water and small solutes into Bowman's capsule, forming filtrate. The loop of Henle, distal tubule, and collecting duct mainly reabsorb and secrete substances rather than perform initial filtration.

Question 12Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient with a fracture of the neck of the femur is most at risk of which complication because of prolonged immobility?

  1. Diabetes insipidus
  2. Deep vein thrombosis Correct answer.
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Pulmonary emphysema

Explanation

Immobility causes venous stasis in the legs, which promotes clot formation and can lead to deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diabetes insipidus, and emphysema are not caused by immobility after a hip fracture.

Question 13Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which hormone lowers blood glucose by promoting cellular uptake and storage of glucose?

  1. Insulin Correct answer.
  2. Cortisol
  3. Adrenaline
  4. Glucagon

Explanation

Insulin, secreted by pancreatic beta cells, increases glucose uptake by cells and promotes glycogen formation, lowering blood glucose. Glucagon, adrenaline, and cortisol all act to raise blood glucose through glycogen breakdown or gluconeogenesis.

Question 14Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

During a bed bath, which action best protects the patient's dignity and safety?

  1. Leave the patient unattended to collect supplies
  2. Expose only the area being washed and keep the rest covered Correct answer.
  3. Wash from the feet toward the head
  4. Use water hot enough to redden the skin

Explanation

Exposing only the part being washed preserves warmth and privacy and reduces embarrassment, which is central to dignified care. Leaving the patient alone risks falls, very hot water can burn skin, and washing from feet to head spreads contamination toward the face.

Question 15Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which description correctly matches the anatomical position used as a reference in health care?

  1. Standing upright, facing forward, arms at the sides with palms facing forward Correct answer.
  2. Sitting with knees flexed at 90 degrees
  3. Standing with arms raised above the head
  4. Lying supine with arms crossed over the chest

Explanation

In the anatomical position the body is upright and facing forward, with arms hanging at the sides and palms turned forward. This standard orientation allows terms such as anterior, medial, and proximal to be used consistently.

Question 16Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient reports burning pain on passing urine and an increased frequency of urination. Which body system should the health care worker focus assessment on?

  1. Respiratory system
  2. Endocrine system
  3. Urinary system Correct answer.
  4. Digestive system

Explanation

Dysuria and urinary frequency point to inflammation or infection of the urinary tract, so the urinary system is the priority for assessment. Respiratory, digestive, and endocrine disorders do not typically present with these urinary symptoms.

Question 17Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which statement correctly distinguishes the pulmonary artery from the pulmonary vein?

  1. Both vessels carry deoxygenated blood toward the heart
  2. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs, while the pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood to the heart Correct answer.
  3. The pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood to the lungs, while the pulmonary vein carries deoxygenated blood to the heart
  4. Both vessels carry oxygenated blood away from the heart

Explanation

The pulmonary circulation is the exception to the usual rule that arteries carry oxygenated blood. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs, and the pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to the left atrium.

Question 18Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which mechanism of heat loss occurs when a febrile patient is sponged with tepid water?

  1. Evaporation Correct answer.
  2. Radiation
  3. Conduction only
  4. Shivering thermogenesis

Explanation

As tepid water on the skin changes to vapour, it removes heat from the body by evaporation. Radiation is heat transfer by infrared waves, conduction requires direct contact with a cooler solid, and shivering generates heat rather than losing it.

Question 19Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which fluid compartment contains the largest proportion of total body water in a healthy adult?

  1. Intracellular fluid Correct answer.
  2. Interstitial fluid
  3. Plasma
  4. Cerebrospinal fluid

Explanation

About two-thirds of total body water is inside cells as intracellular fluid, making it the largest compartment. Plasma and interstitial fluid together form the smaller extracellular compartment, and cerebrospinal fluid is only a small part of that.

Question 20Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient has a pulse rate of 48 beats per minute and feels dizzy on standing. Which term correctly describes the pulse rate?

  1. Arrhythmia
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Bradycardia Correct answer.
  4. Normocardia

Explanation

A resting adult rate below 60 beats per minute is bradycardia, and the dizziness suggests reduced cardiac output. Tachycardia is a rate above 100, normocardia is a normal rate, and arrhythmia refers to irregular rhythm rather than a slow rate.

Question 21Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which structure of the respiratory tract is the primary site of gas exchange between air and blood?

  1. Larynx
  2. Trachea
  3. Bronchus
  4. Alveolus Correct answer.

Explanation

Alveoli have a very thin wall and a dense capillary network, allowing oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse between air and blood. The trachea, bronchi, and larynx are conducting airways that move air but do not exchange gases.

Question 22Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient is prescribed a drug that must be given intramuscularly. Which site is commonly chosen for this route?

  1. Ventrogluteal region of the buttock Correct answer.
  2. Epidermis of the forearm
  3. Subcutaneous fat of the abdomen
  4. Lumen of a vein in the antecubital fossa

Explanation

The ventrogluteal region contains a large muscle mass away from major nerves and vessels, making it a preferred intramuscular site. The epidermis is used for intradermal injection, a vein for intravenous administration, and abdominal fat for subcutaneous injection.

Question 23Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which statement best explains why a patient with chronic kidney disease may develop anaemia?

  1. Reduced erythropoietin production lowers red cell formation Correct answer.
  2. The kidneys stop producing haemoglobin directly
  3. Renal disease blocks oxygen binding to platelets
  4. Increased erythropoietin production destroys red cells

Explanation

The kidneys produce erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production in bone marrow. When renal function declines, erythropoietin secretion falls, so red cell production drops and anaemia develops.

Question 24Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which change in the alveoli of a patient with emphysema most directly reduces the surface area available for gas exchange?

  1. Reduced production of surfactant by the liver
  2. Narrowing of the trachea by cartilage
  3. Thickening of the pleural membranes
  4. Destruction of alveolar walls with formation of large air spaces Correct answer.

Explanation

Emphysema destroys alveolar walls so that many small alveoli merge into fewer large air sacs, sharply reducing total surface area for diffusion. Pleural thickening, tracheal narrowing, and hepatic surfactant production do not describe the primary emphysematous change.

Question 25Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient with severe vomiting for two days is likely to develop which acid-base and electrolyte disturbance?

  1. Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia Correct answer.
  2. Respiratory alkalosis with hypercalcaemia
  3. Respiratory acidosis with hypernatraemia
  4. Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalaemia

Explanation

Vomiting removes gastric acid and potassium-rich fluid, so the body loses hydrogen and chloride ions and becomes alkalotic, while potassium falls. Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalaemia is more typical of diarrhoea or renal failure, not prolonged vomiting.

Question 26Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which type of blood cell contains haemoglobin and is mainly responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?

  1. Lymphocyte
  2. Thrombocyte
  3. Erythrocyte Correct answer.
  4. Neutrophil

Explanation

Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, are packed with haemoglobin, an iron-containing pigment that binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the tissues. The other cell types listed serve clotting or immune defence rather than oxygen carriage.

Question 27Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of the stomach and intestine and works without conscious control?

  1. Striated voluntary muscle
  2. Skeletal muscle
  3. Smooth muscle Correct answer.
  4. Cardiac muscle

Explanation

Smooth muscle lines the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach, intestine and blood vessels and contracts involuntarily under autonomic control. Skeletal muscle is voluntary and striated, while cardiac muscle is involuntary but confined to the heart.

Question 28Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which vitamin is essential for the absorption of calcium from the intestine and for healthy bone mineralisation?

  1. Vitamin D Correct answer.
  2. Vitamin C
  3. Vitamin B12
  4. Vitamin K

Explanation

Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption in the small intestine and helps maintain adequate plasma calcium for bone mineralisation; deficiency in children causes rickets. Vitamin C supports collagen synthesis, vitamin K supports clotting factor production, and B12 supports nerve function and red cell formation.

Question 29Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which structure of the nervous system is the control centre for body temperature, thirst and the release of hormones that regulate the pituitary gland?

  1. Hypothalamus Correct answer.
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Thalamus

Explanation

The hypothalamus sits below the thalamus and acts as the body's thermostat while also regulating thirst, hunger and the release of hormones that control the pituitary. The cerebellum coordinates movement, the medulla controls vital reflexes such as breathing, and the thalamus relays sensory impulses.

Question 30Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient's respiration is recorded as 26 breaths per minute. How should this finding be documented and described?

  1. Dyspnoea, because the patient finds breathing uncomfortable
  2. Bradypnoea, because the rate is below the normal adult range
  3. Hyperventilation, because the depth of breathing is increased
  4. Tachypnoea, because the rate is above the normal adult range Correct answer.

Explanation

The normal adult resting respiratory rate is about 12 to 20 breaths per minute, so a rate of 26 is raised and is termed tachypnoea. Bradypnoea describes a rate below normal, hyperventilation refers to increased depth or alveolar ventilation, and dyspnoea is the subjective sensation of breathlessness.

Question 31Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient is unconscious and has no cough reflex. Why must the nurse position the patient in the lateral recovery position rather than on the back?

  1. To reduce pressure on the sacrum and prevent a pressure ulcer
  2. To allow secretions and vomit to drain from the mouth and reduce the risk of aspiration Correct answer.
  3. To increase the volume of air entering the lungs with each breath
  4. To make it easier to measure the blood pressure in the arm

Explanation

When protective reflexes are lost, lying supine allows vomit or secretions to fall into the airway and cause aspiration. The lateral position lets gravity drain them out of the mouth and keeps the tongue from falling back, so the airway stays clear.

Question 32Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient is prescribed oxygen therapy. Which safety measure is most important while oxygen is in use?

  1. Set the flow rate as high as possible to shorten the treatment
  2. Keep the cylinder and tubing away from flames, sparks and other ignition sources Correct answer.
  3. Store the cylinder lying flat on the floor beside the bed
  4. Lubricate the flowmeter connections with oil to ease fitting

Explanation

Oxygen supports combustion, so flames, sparks, smoking and electrical equipment that may spark must be kept well away from the cylinder and tubing. Cylinders should be secured upright, connections must be kept free of oil or grease, and the flow rate must follow the prescription rather than being maximised.

Question 33Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient with a leg wound has a dressing that is saturated with fresh blood. What is the first action the health care worker should take?

  1. Leave the dressing in place and wait for the next routine round
  2. Apply direct pressure over the wound with a clean pad and raise the limb Correct answer.
  3. Wash the wound with soap and water before applying a new dressing
  4. Remove the soaked dressing to inspect the wound before doing anything else

Explanation

Fresh bleeding is controlled first by direct pressure over the bleeding point, using a clean pad, together with elevation of the limb where possible. Removing the dressing or washing the wound before bleeding is controlled wastes time and may disturb any forming clot.

Question 34Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which statement correctly describes the role of the epiglottis during swallowing?

  1. It produces mucus that lubricates the vocal cords during speech
  2. It vibrates to produce sound as air passes out of the lungs
  3. It closes over the larynx so that food passes into the oesophagus rather than the trachea Correct answer.
  4. It closes the oesophagus so that food is temporarily held in the pharynx

Explanation

During swallowing the epiglottis folds down over the opening of the larynx, directing the bolus into the oesophagus and protecting the airway. The vocal cords produce sound, and mucus secretion is a separate function of the respiratory lining.

Question 35Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient is prescribed a drug that must be absorbed through the skin. Which route is being used?

  1. Transdermal route Correct answer.
  2. Rectal route
  3. Intradermal route
  4. Sublingual route

Explanation

The transdermal route delivers a drug through intact skin, usually from a patch, for slow systemic absorption. Sublingual and rectal routes use the mucosa, and the intradermal route injects into the dermis for local testing rather than for skin absorption.

Question 36Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient is dehydrated and passing small volumes of concentrated urine. Which hormone is released to increase water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidney?

  1. Parathyroid hormone
  2. Atrial natriuretic peptide
  3. Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.
  4. Aldosterone

Explanation

Antidiuretic hormone, released from the posterior pituitary, makes the collecting ducts more permeable to water, so more water is reabsorbed and urine becomes concentrated. Aldosterone mainly increases sodium reabsorption, atrial natriuretic peptide promotes sodium and water loss, and parathyroid hormone regulates calcium.

Question 37Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

In which order does a bolus of food normally pass through the parts of the digestive tract?

  1. Stomach, oesophagus, jejunum, duodenum, ileum, colon
  2. Duodenum, oesophagus, stomach, jejunum, ileum, colon
  3. Oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon Correct answer.
  4. Oesophagus, duodenum, stomach, ileum, jejunum, colon

Explanation

Swallowed food travels down the oesophagus to the stomach, then into the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine, followed by the jejunum and ileum. The residue then passes into the colon, so this sequence is the only one that follows normal anatomy.

Question 38Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient with a spinal cord injury has a blocked catheter and develops a distended, tender bladder, sweating and a rising blood pressure. Which emergency should the health care worker suspect?

  1. Autonomic dysreflexia triggered by bladder distension Correct answer.
  2. Simple vasovagal fainting from prolonged bed rest
  3. Hypoglycaemia caused by a missed meal
  4. Anaphylactic shock from a latex allergy

Explanation

In autonomic dysreflexia a noxious stimulus below the level of the injury, most often a distended bladder or loaded bowel, triggers a sudden rise in blood pressure with sweating, flushing and headache. Relieving the stimulus promptly is essential because the hypertension can be dangerous.

Question 39Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient with a chronic duodenal ulcer has had repeated vomiting and now shows a low serum potassium and a raised plasma bicarbonate. Which disturbance best explains these findings?

  1. Respiratory acidosis with hypokalaemia from reduced gas exchange
  2. Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia from loss of gastric acid and potassium Correct answer.
  3. Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalaemia from retention of hydrogen ions
  4. Respiratory alkalosis with hyperkalaemia from increased ventilation

Explanation

Vomiting removes hydrochloric acid from the stomach, which raises plasma bicarbonate and produces a metabolic alkalosis. Gastric fluid also contains potassium, and the kidney excretes more potassium when hydrogen ions are lost, so hypokalaemia develops as well.

Question 40Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient with long-standing liver cirrhosis develops swelling of the abdomen and ankles. Which mechanism best explains the fluid accumulation?

  1. Increased plasma albumin raises oncotic pressure and retains fluid in the vessels
  2. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone alone raises blood pressure in the veins
  3. Reduced plasma albumin lowers oncotic pressure so fluid leaks into the tissues Correct answer.
  4. Excess red cell production thickens the blood and forces fluid out of the vessels

Explanation

The cirrhotic liver synthesises less albumin, so plasma oncotic pressure falls and fluid moves from the capillaries into the interstitial space, producing oedema and ascites. Portal hypertension adds to the problem, but the low albumin is the key oncotic mechanism described here.

Question 41Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

While recording a patient's oral temperature with a mercury-in-glass thermometer, which action keeps the reading accurate?

  1. Taking the reading immediately after the patient drinks hot tea
  2. Reading the scale while the thermometer is still tilted downward
  3. Leaving the thermometer in place for about three minutes with the lips closed Correct answer.
  4. Placing the bulb against the teeth rather than under the tongue

Explanation

Oral temperature is taken with the bulb in the sublingual pocket and the lips kept closed for roughly three minutes so the mercury reaches body temperature. Eating, drinking, or smoking just before the reading shifts the result, so a waiting period is needed. Reading the scale at eye level with the thermometer horizontal prevents parallax error.

Question 42Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

A radial pulse is most reliably counted by pressing which fingers over the wrist?

  1. The index and middle fingers Correct answer.
  2. The palm of the hand
  3. The little finger alone
  4. The thumb

Explanation

The radial artery is palpated on the thumb side of the wrist with the tips of the index and middle fingers, which are sensitive to the pulse wave. The thumb has its own arterial pulsation that can be mistaken for the patient's pulse. Light pressure is used so the artery is not occluded.

Question 43Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

A patient's blood pressure reads 148/94 mmHg on two separate occasions. How should this be documented?

  1. As elevated blood pressure that should be reported to the nurse in charge Correct answer.
  2. As hypotension requiring urgent fluids
  3. As an instrument error to be ignored
  4. As a normal reading needing no comment

Explanation

A systolic value of 148 mmHg and diastolic of 94 mmHg both exceed the normal adult range, so the finding is recorded accurately and reported to the nurse in charge for further assessment. A single raised reading is not a diagnosis, but it must never be dismissed or concealed. Accurate charting with date, time, and arm used supports continuity of care.

Question 44Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

When counting respirations, why should the patient be unaware that breathing is being observed?

  1. Because respirations are counted only during sleep
  2. Because the count must be taken before the pulse
  3. Because awareness can make the patient alter the rate and depth voluntarily Correct answer.
  4. Because respiration cannot be counted while the patient is awake

Explanation

Breathing is partly under voluntary control, so a patient who knows it is being counted may change rate or depth and give a false record. The standard practice is to keep fingers on the radial pulse while observing chest rise and counting for one full minute. Rate, rhythm, depth, and any effort of breathing are all noted.

Question 45Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

Which sequence correctly describes the handwashing steps before a patient-care procedure?

  1. Wear gloves without washing and remove them afterwards
  2. Apply soap only to the fingertips and rinse immediately
  3. Rinse hands first, dry them, then apply soap to the palms only
  4. Apply soap, rub palms and backs and between fingers, rinse, dry with a clean towel Correct answer.

Explanation

Effective handwashing wets the hands, applies soap, and covers palms, backs of hands, finger webs, thumbs, and wrists with friction before rinsing and drying with a clean towel. Friction with soap lifts transient organisms so they are rinsed away. Gloves supplement but never replace hand hygiene.

Question 46Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

A nurse is to remove soiled linen from a patient's bed. Which practice follows standard precautions?

  1. Place the linen on the floor before bagging
  2. Carry the linen pressed against the chest
  3. Shake the linen in the air to remove dust
  4. Hold the linen away from the uniform and place it in the linen bag without shaking Correct answer.

Explanation

Soiled linen is handled so that microorganisms are not dispersed; it is held away from the body and placed directly into the bag without shaking. Shaking releases contaminated particles into the air and onto surfaces. Linen should never touch the floor or be pressed against clothing.

Question 47Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

What is the main purpose of wearing sterile gloves during a dressing change?

  1. To protect the nurse's hands from stains
  2. To prevent microorganisms from entering the wound and to keep the wound site aseptic Correct answer.
  3. To keep the dressing material dry
  4. To avoid the need for handwashing

Explanation

Sterile gloves maintain asepsis at the wound so that skin and environmental organisms are not introduced into the open tissue. They are donned after hand hygiene and only touch sterile items. Hand hygiene is still required before gloving and after removal.

Question 48Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

A patient with an indwelling urinary catheter has a drainage bag hanging on the bed rail at the level of the bladder. What is the correct action?

  1. Raise the bag above the bladder to improve drainage
  2. Reposition the bag below the level of the bladder to prevent backflow Correct answer.
  3. Leave the bag in place because the level does not matter
  4. Disconnect the catheter from the bag to let it drain freely

Explanation

The drainage bag must stay below the level of the bladder so that urine flows by gravity and does not reflux into the bladder, which can introduce bacteria and cause infection. The tubing is also kept free of kinks and loops. Disconnecting the closed system breaks asepsis.

Question 49Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

When giving a bedpan to a patient who can bear weight, which position is most suitable?

  1. In a semi-Fowler position with the head of the bed raised Correct answer.
  2. Standing beside the bed
  3. Lying prone with the face turned to one side
  4. Flat on the back with the head of the bed lowered

Explanation

A semi-Fowler position with the head raised uses gravity to help the patient pass urine and stool and is more comfortable and physiologically natural. The bedpan is warmed and its rim powdered if needed, and privacy is provided. The patient is never left alone on a bedpan for long periods without checking.

Question 50Basic Nursing and Patient Care Procedures

A patient is on strict intake and output monitoring. Which item should be recorded as intake?

  1. Vomitus collected in a bowl
  2. Ice chips swallowed by the patient Correct answer.
  3. Water used for mouth rinsing and spat out
  4. Urine drained into the measuring container

Explanation

All fluid that enters the body counts as intake, and ice chips are recorded as fluid once melted, usually at about half their volume. Output includes urine, vomitus, drainage, and liquid stool. Fluid used for rinsing and spat out is not swallowed, so it is not intake.