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Iran CAO ATPL Theory study materials
Iran CAO ATPL Theory study resources

Iran CAO ATPL Theory practice questions

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Question 1Air Law and ATC Procedures

Under ICAO Annex 2, which class of airspace requires an ATC clearance for all IFR flights and provides separation between all IFR flights, while VFR flights are only separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights?

  1. Class F airspace
  2. Class E airspace
  3. Class C airspace Correct answer.
  4. Class D airspace

Explanation

In Class C airspace IFR flights require an ATC clearance and are separated from both IFR and VFR flights, while VFR flights require a clearance and are separated from IFR flights and given traffic information regarding other VFR traffic. Class D provides separation only between IFR flights, and Class E provides no separation for VFR at all.

Question 2Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot operating under IFR in Iranian airspace loses two-way radio communication. According to standard ICAO contingency procedures, which action should be taken?

  1. Turn back to the departure aerodrome and hold until interception by a military aircraft
  2. Squawk 7600 and proceed to the nearest aerodrome regardless of the flight plan
  3. Descend immediately to the minimum safe altitude and circle until radio contact is restored
  4. Continue according to the last acknowledged clearance or the filed flight plan and land at the destination within 30 minutes of the ETA Correct answer.

Explanation

The ICAO procedure for communication failure in IFR flight is to maintain the last acknowledged clearance limit, or if none, the route and levels in the filed flight plan, and to land at the destination within 30 minutes of the estimated time of arrival. Squawking 7600 is also required, but the routing and timing follow the flight plan rather than a diversion to the nearest aerodrome.

Question 3Air Law and ATC Procedures

For a flight under the IFR in controlled airspace, what is the standard minimum vertical separation provided by ATC between aircraft at the same cruising level?

  1. 3000 ft
  2. 1000 ft Correct answer.
  3. 500 ft
  4. 2000 ft

Explanation

ICAO sets the standard minimum vertical separation between aircraft at the same level at 1000 ft, except where reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) of 1000 ft applies in designated airspace. In non-RVSM airspace above FL290, 2000 ft is used, but the standard baseline is 1000 ft.

Question 4Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft is cleared to enter the Tehran CTR. Which minimum flight visibility and distance from cloud must the VFR flight maintain to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface?

  1. 8 km visibility and 1500 m horizontally, 300 m vertically from cloud
  2. 1500 m visibility and clear of cloud
  3. 5 km visibility and clear of cloud and in sight of the surface Correct answer.
  4. 5 km visibility and 1500 m horizontally, 300 m vertically from cloud

Explanation

In a control zone, VFR flights must maintain at least 5 km flight visibility and remain clear of cloud with the surface in sight. The 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical cloud clearance applies to controlled airspace at higher levels, not to the CTR.

Question 5Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does a red flashing light signal directed at an aircraft on the ground by ATC mean?

  1. Return to starting point on the aerodrome
  2. Taxi clear of the landing area in use Correct answer.
  3. Stop
  4. Cleared for take-off

Explanation

A flashing red light directed at an aircraft on the ground means taxi clear of the landing area in use. A steady red light means stop, and a flashing white light means return to the starting point.

Question 6Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Which action should the intercepted pilot take first?

  1. Establish radio contact with the intercepting aircraft or the appropriate ATC unit on the emergency frequency Correct answer.
  2. Immediately descend to the lowest safe altitude and increase speed
  3. Turn away from the intercepting aircraft to avoid a collision
  4. Squawk 7700 and continue on the current heading without deviation

Explanation

The first action on interception is to attempt radio contact with the intercepting aircraft or the appropriate ATC unit on the emergency frequency, and to comply with the visual signals given. Deviation from the cleared route should only follow interception instructions or an emergency.

Question 7Air Law and ATC Procedures

According to ICAO Annex 2, an aircraft on a flight plan must report its position to ATC at which of the following points?

  1. Only at the top of descent
  2. Only when entering a new FIR
  3. Only when requested by ATC
  4. When passing each designated compulsory reporting point Correct answer.

Explanation

Aircraft on an IFR or controlled VFR flight plan must report position when passing each designated compulsory reporting point, unless ATC has authorized omission of those reports. Position reports are not limited to entry into a new FIR or to ATC request.

Question 8Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft is flying VFR at 6500 ft in airspace where the transition altitude is 5000 ft. Which altimeter setting should be used?

  1. QNE
  2. QFE
  3. Standard pressure 1013.25 hPa
  4. QNH Correct answer.

Explanation

Below the transition altitude, the altimeter is set to QNH so that the indicated altitude corresponds to the elevation above mean sea level. Standard pressure 1013.25 hPa is used at or above the transition level, not below the transition altitude.

Question 9Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the purpose of the ATC clearance limit in an IFR clearance?

  1. The point to which the aircraft is cleared to proceed Correct answer.
  2. The altitude to which the aircraft is cleared to climb
  3. The maximum speed authorized on the route
  4. The time at which the clearance expires

Explanation

The clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is cleared to proceed, and it must be clearly stated in the ATC clearance. It is not an altitude, speed, or time limit, though the clearance may also specify those separately.

Question 10Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot receives an ATC clearance that is not understood. What is the correct action?

  1. Request clarification or amendment before proceeding Correct answer.
  2. Accept the clearance and query it after take-off
  3. Ignore the clearance and continue under the previous one
  4. Read back the clearance as understood and proceed

Explanation

If any part of an ATC clearance is not understood, the pilot must request clarification or amendment before acting on it. Proceeding on an uncertain clearance risks a deviation or loss of separation.

Question 11Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which document contains the rules of the air, including right-of-way rules and signals, applicable in Iranian civil aviation?

  1. ICAO Annex 14
  2. ICAO Annex 2 Correct answer.
  3. ICAO Annex 10
  4. ICAO Annex 11

Explanation

ICAO Annex 2, Rules of the Air, contains the general rules including right-of-way, lights and signals, and flight plan provisions. Annex 11 covers air traffic services, Annex 14 aerodromes, and Annex 10 aeronautical telecommunications.

Question 12Air Law and ATC Procedures

Two aircraft are approaching head-on at the same level. Which aircraft has the right of way, and what action should each take?

  1. The aircraft on the left has right of way; the other climbs
  2. The faster aircraft has right of way; the slower aircraft descends
  3. Neither has right of way; both alter course to the right Correct answer.
  4. The aircraft on the right has right of way; the other descends

Explanation

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or nearly so at approximately the same level, neither has the right of way and both must alter course to the right. This rule avoids ambiguity and ensures a predictable separation.

Question 13Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft on final approach experiences a sudden windshear and cannot maintain the required approach path. According to standard procedures, what should the pilot do?

  1. Execute a go-around and inform ATC Correct answer.
  2. Reduce power to slow down and stabilize the approach
  3. Increase the rate of descent to regain the glidepath
  4. Continue the approach and land long to compensate

Explanation

If the approach cannot be stabilized or the required path cannot be maintained after windshear, the correct action is to go around and inform ATC. Attempting to force the aircraft onto the glidepath risks an unstable approach and a hard landing or undershoot.

Question 14Air Law and ATC Procedures

The transition level is the level at which the altimeter setting changes from QNH to standard pressure. If the transition altitude is 5000 ft and the QNH is below 1013.25 hPa, what is the transition level relative to the transition altitude?

  1. Equal to the transition altitude
  2. Independent of QNH
  3. Lower than the transition altitude
  4. Higher than the transition altitude Correct answer.

Explanation

When QNH is below standard pressure, the true altitude corresponding to a given pressure level is higher than the indicated altitude, so the transition level is higher than the transition altitude. The transition level is determined by ATC and varies with the pressure.

Question 15Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the minimum horizontal distance from cloud that an IFR flight must maintain when operating in controlled airspace below FL100, where the prescribed minima apply?

  1. 1500 m Correct answer.
  2. 8 km
  3. No cloud clearance is required for IFR
  4. 5 km

Explanation

In controlled airspace, IFR flights below FL100 must maintain at least 1500 m horizontal distance from cloud and 300 m vertical distance, along with the prescribed flight visibility. IFR flights are not exempt from cloud clearance requirements.

Question 16Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot is cleared to descend to FL120 and subsequently receives a clearance to FL100. The aircraft is at FL120 when the second clearance is received. What is the correct readback?

  1. "Leaving FL120, descending to FL100" Correct answer.
  2. "Cleared FL120 to FL100"
  3. "Descending to FL100"
  4. "Descending FL120, wilco"

Explanation

The readback should state the level being left and the level being descended to, so that ATC can confirm the aircraft's position and the clearance. A simple "wilco" or incomplete readback does not confirm the cleared level.

Question 17Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a transport aeroplane hydraulic system, what is the primary function of the accumulator?

  1. To cool the hydraulic fluid after it leaves the engine-driven pump
  2. To store pressurised fluid so it can supply transient high demands and damp pressure fluctuations Correct answer.
  3. To filter metallic particles from the return line before the reservoir
  4. To convert hydraulic pressure into mechanical force at the actuator

Explanation

A hydraulic accumulator contains a gas-charged chamber separated from the fluid, so it stores energy under pressure. It supplies extra flow during peak demand, smooths pump pressure ripple and maintains pressure during brief pump drop-out. It does not cool, filter or generate actuation force.

Question 18Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

Which statement correctly describes the purpose of a fuselage frame (former) as opposed to a stringer?

  1. Both the frame and the stringer run longitudinally and are interchangeable in semi-monocoque construction
  2. The frame attaches the wing spar to the fuselage while the stringer carries only pressurisation loads
  3. The frame carries longitudinal bending loads while the stringer maintains the cross-sectional shape
  4. The frame maintains the cross-sectional shape and supports the skin, while the stringer runs longitudinally and carries bending loads Correct answer.

Explanation

In semi-monocoque construction the frames are transverse members that define and preserve the cross-section and stiffen the skin. Stringers run lengthwise, stiffen the skin and contribute to bending strength together with the skin. Confusing the two directions is the classic error.

Question 19Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

An aeroplane is fitted with a constant-speed propeller controlled by a propeller governor. What happens when the pilot moves the propeller lever to increase RPM?

  1. Governor spring force decreases and blade angle increases to absorb more torque
  2. The propeller is driven to feather regardless of the selected RPM
  3. Governor speeder-spring setting increases, so the governor allows oil to reduce blade angle until RPM rises Correct answer.
  4. Blade angle is increased directly by the cockpit lever through a mechanical linkage

Explanation

The propeller lever sets the speeder-spring tension in the governor, which defines the RPM the governor will hold. Increasing the selected RPM raises that reference, the governor senses underspeed and reduces blade angle so the engine can accelerate. Blade angle changes are produced by governor-controlled oil pressure, not directly by the lever.

Question 20Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a gas turbine engine, what is the main consequence of a compressor stall (surge)?

  1. A gradual decrease in oil pressure with no effect on engine thrust
  2. A rise in compressor delivery pressure accompanied by falling exhaust gas temperature
  3. A momentary loss of airflow through the compressor with possible loud bangs and turbine temperature rise Correct answer.
  4. A permanent increase in compressor efficiency at high altitude

Explanation

Compressor stall occurs when the airflow separates from the blades, so delivery pressure falls sharply and flow may reverse momentarily. This produces bangs, vibration and a rapid rise in turbine gas temperature because combustion is no longer matched by airflow. Recovery is normally achieved by reducing fuel and/or throttle.

Question 21Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

Why is a DC generator on a transport aeroplane usually connected to the battery bus through a reverse-current cut-out?

  1. To convert generator AC output into DC for the battery
  2. To limit generator output current to the rated value by field weakening
  3. To step up generator voltage to a higher bus voltage
  4. To prevent the battery from discharging through the generator when generator voltage falls below bus voltage Correct answer.

Explanation

A reverse-current cut-out is a relay that closes when generator voltage exceeds bus voltage and opens when current tries to flow back into the generator. Without it the battery would discharge through the generator armature whenever the generator output fell, for example at low engine RPM. Current limiting and voltage regulation are performed by other components.

Question 22Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the arming function on an emergency power supply (standby generator or battery) in a transport aeroplane?

  1. It brings the emergency source online automatically when main electrical power is lost, without pilot action Correct answer.
  2. It allows the pilot to test the emergency source only on the ground
  3. It increases the output of the main generators during single-generator operation
  4. It automatically disconnects all non-essential loads before the main generators fail

Explanation

When armed, the emergency source is connected automatically upon loss of the normal supply so that essential loads keep operating immediately. The pilot may also select it manually. Arming does not itself shed loads, boost the main generators or restrict testing to the ground.

Question 23Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

On a pressurised aeroplane, what is the function of the outflow valve?

  1. To mix recirculated cabin air with engine bleed air before delivery
  2. To relieve excessive differential pressure only in the event of a failure of the cabin altimeter
  3. To modulate the rate at which cabin air leaves the aircraft, thereby controlling cabin pressure Correct answer.
  4. To admit conditioned air into the cabin at a controlled rate

Explanation

Cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the escape of air through the outflow valve while conditioned air is supplied at a roughly constant rate. Modulating the valve opening therefore sets cabin altitude and rate of climb or descent. Inflow is controlled elsewhere, and the positive-pressure relief valve is a separate protective device.

Question 24Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the principal reason for using a dual (tandem) hydraulic system with two independent pumps on a transport aeroplane?

  1. To allow the use of a single type of fluid for both the hydraulic and fuel systems
  2. To reduce the size of the reservoir required for the aircraft
  3. To provide redundancy so that loss of one system does not prevent operation of essential services Correct answer.
  4. To double the pressure available to each actuator

Explanation

Splitting the hydraulic supply into independent systems limits the effect of a single failure such as a pump, line or engine loss. Essential services are distributed between systems, or a power transfer unit allows one system to drive the other. Redundancy, not increased pressure or fluid commonality, is the design driver.

Question 25Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a high-bypass turbofan, what proportion of the total thrust is typically produced by the fan (cold) stream?

  1. About 20 percent
  2. About 95 percent
  3. About 80 percent Correct answer.
  4. About 40 percent

Explanation

In a high-bypass turbofan most of the air passes through the fan duct, and the cold stream provides the majority of thrust, typically around 75 to 85 percent. The core exhaust contributes the remainder. This is why fan efficiency dominates overall propulsive efficiency at cruise.

Question 26Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the function of the fire detection loop in an engine nacelle that uses a continuous sensing element?

  1. It detects only overheat conditions and cannot indicate a fire
  2. It changes resistance or capacitance when heated, triggering a fire warning at a set threshold Correct answer.
  3. It provides a continuous signal proportional to temperature so the crew can monitor trend
  4. It releases extinguishing agent directly when the element is heated

Explanation

Continuous-loop detectors change an electrical property when the element reaches a threshold temperature, which the control unit interprets as a fire or overheat warning. They are threshold devices, not thermometers, and they do not release agent themselves. Agent release requires crew action or a separate automatic system.

Question 27Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

Why are transport aeroplane wings often fitted with a stall strip on the leading edge outboard of the engine?

  1. To ensure the outboard section stalls before the root, giving a natural stall warning and reducing tip stall Correct answer.
  2. To prevent ice accretion on the leading edge
  3. To ensure the wing root stalls before the tip, preserving aileron effectiveness
  4. To increase the critical angle of attack of the outer wing

Explanation

A stall strip is a small triangular device that triggers local separation at high angle of attack, causing the outboard section to stall first. This produces a buffet warning and keeps the inboard section flying, which helps maintain roll control. Root-first stalling is achieved by other means such as twist and aerofoil selection.

Question 28Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

Aircraft skin is often bonded and riveted in a semi-monocoque structure. What is the main structural role of the skin in such a design?

  1. It transfers all loads directly to the wing spar fittings
  2. It acts only as an aerodynamic fairing and carries no structural load
  3. It carries a large share of the bending and shear loads together with the stringers and frames Correct answer.
  4. It carries only pressurisation loads and no bending loads

Explanation

In semi-monocoque construction the skin is stressed and works with the stringers and frames to resist bending, shear and torsion. This shared load path allows a lighter structure than a pure framework. The skin is therefore far more than a fairing.

Question 29Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What happens to the blade angle of a constant-speed propeller when the engine oil supply to the governor is lost on a single-acting (oil-to-fine) system?

  1. The blades move to feather because oil pressure is required to hold them in fine pitch
  2. The blades move to reverse pitch and remain there
  3. The blades move towards coarse pitch or feather due to counterweights and spring, protecting the engine from overspeed Correct answer.
  4. The blades remain at the last selected angle because the hub is locked hydraulically

Explanation

In an oil-to-fine system, oil pressure drives the blades towards fine pitch while counterweights and a spring oppose it. Loss of oil pressure therefore lets the counterweights and spring drive the blades to coarse pitch or feather, which prevents engine overspeed. This is a deliberate fail-safe design feature.

Question 30Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

During a take-off with a failed generator, the battery is supplying the essential bus. What is the most significant operational limitation the crew must consider?

  1. Battery capacity is limited, so electrical endurance is short and non-essential loads must be shed Correct answer.
  2. Battery voltage rises as it discharges, so no load shedding is required
  3. The battery can supply the whole aircraft indefinitely once the generator has failed
  4. Battery discharge has no effect on navigation or communication equipment

Explanation

A battery has a finite energy content, so with the generator offline the available electrical endurance is limited, often to the order of 30 minutes or less depending on the load. The crew must shed non-essential loads and plan to land. Battery voltage falls, not rises, as it discharges.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of a torque link (scissors) on an aircraft oleo-pneumatic landing gear leg?

  1. To carry the vertical landing loads from the wheel to the airframe
  2. To transmit braking torque from the wheel to the axle
  3. To keep the piston aligned with the cylinder and prevent rotation while allowing vertical travel Correct answer.
  4. To damp torsional shimmy oscillations of the gear leg

Explanation

The torque links connect the lower piston to the upper cylinder so the piston cannot rotate within the cylinder, while still allowing it to slide vertically. This keeps the wheel and brake assembly correctly aligned. Shimmy damping is provided by the steering damper, and vertical loads pass through the oleo itself.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the effect of opening the bleed-air valve of an engine on its performance at a fixed thrust lever setting?

  1. Engine thrust increases because more air is available to the compressor
  2. Exhaust gas temperature falls with no change in thrust
  3. Specific fuel consumption improves because the compressor works less
  4. Engine thrust decreases because compressed air is diverted from the combustion section Correct answer.

Explanation

Bleed air is taken from the compressor and therefore represents work removed from the engine cycle, so net thrust falls at a given throttle setting. The crew must often increase thrust to compensate, for example during take-off with anti-ice or air-conditioning bleeds on. The effect is a loss, not a gain, of performance.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a fuel system, what is the purpose of a fuel-cooled oil cooler (fuel/oil heat exchanger)?

  1. To separate water from the fuel by boiling it off
  2. To increase the fuel's calorific value before combustion
  3. To use the fuel as a heat sink for the engine oil while warming the fuel to prevent ice formation Correct answer.
  4. To cool the fuel before it reaches the engine-driven fuel pump

Explanation

A fuel/oil heat exchanger transfers heat from the engine oil to the fuel, cooling the oil and warming the fuel. Warming the fuel reduces the risk of ice blocking the fuel filter, and cooling the oil helps maintain oil viscosity. It does not alter the fuel's energy content.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the function of the static inverter in an aircraft electrical system?

  1. To convert AC from the generator into DC for battery charging
  2. To provide a standby source of DC during engine start
  3. To change the frequency of the AC generators to match the bus
  4. To convert DC from the battery into AC for equipment requiring alternating current Correct answer.

Explanation

A static inverter uses solid-state switching to convert DC into AC, typically for standby or essential AC loads when the main AC supply is unavailable. Rectification from AC to DC is done by transformer-rectifier units. Frequency changing and DC generation are separate functions.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the thrust reverser on a transport aeroplane, and what limits its use?

  1. To redirect fan or exhaust flow forward to produce reverse thrust, used only on the ground and inhibited in flight Correct answer.
  2. To reverse the direction of engine rotation for taxi
  3. To reduce brake wear by replacing wheel brakes entirely
  4. To provide additional forward thrust during a rejected take-off

Explanation

A thrust reverser redirects the fan or exhaust stream forward so that a rearward reaction decelerates the aircraft on the ground. Deployment is inhibited in flight by interlocks and is normally used only after touchdown or during a rejected take-off. It supplements, but never replaces, wheel brakes.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

An aeroplane experiences a rapid cabin depressurisation at high altitude. What is the primary function of the passenger oxygen system?

  1. To supply supplemental oxygen to occupants during the emergency descent to a safe altitude Correct answer.
  2. To cool the cabin air after the air-conditioning packs are shut down
  3. To maintain normal cabin pressure until descent is complete
  4. To purge smoke from the cabin after a fire

Explanation

Following depressurisation, the crew performs an emergency descent and the oxygen system supplies breathable gas to occupants while the aircraft descends to an altitude where ambient air can be breathed. The system does not restore cabin pressure or cool or purge the cabin. Chemical generators or gaseous systems provide the supply.

Question 37Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

In ICAO flight plan terminology, what does the abbreviation EOBT represent?

  1. Estimated Off-Block Time Correct answer.
  2. En-Route Obstacle Bearing Track
  3. Estimated On-Board Time
  4. Entry Operations Base Time

Explanation

EOBT stands for Estimated Off-Block Time, the estimated time at which the aircraft will commence movement associated with departure. It is the reference time used by ATS units for slot and flow management and is entered in Item 13 of the ICAO flight plan.

Question 38Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

For an IFR flight, in which flight plan item is the total elapsed time from take-off to arrival at the destination aerodrome entered?

  1. Item 15 (route)
  2. Item 13 (departure time)
  3. Item 16 (destination and total EET) Correct answer.
  4. Item 10 (equipment)

Explanation

Item 16 contains the destination aerodrome and the total estimated elapsed time (EET), measured from take-off to the point of arrival overhead the destination. Item 15 carries the route description, not the total time.

Question 39Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

An aircraft must track a magnetic course of 090° with a wind from 360° (true) at 40 kt. Using the 1-in-60 rule at a TAS of 240 kt, what is the approximate wind correction angle?

  1. 5° left
  2. 10° right Correct answer.
  3. 15° left
  4. 20° right

Explanation

The crosswind component is 40 kt (full crosswind since the wind is perpendicular to the track). The 1-in-60 rule gives drift = 60 × crosswind / TAS = 60 × 40 / 240 = 10°. The wind from the north blows the aircraft to the right of an easterly track, so the correction is 10° right.

Question 40Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

A flight departs at 0800 UTC and the total estimated elapsed time is 3 h 20 min. What ETA should be entered at the destination aerodrome?

  1. 1020 UTC
  2. 1140 UTC
  3. 1120 UTC Correct answer.
  4. 1220 UTC

Explanation

Adding 3 h 20 min to 0800 UTC gives 1120 UTC. The ETA is the EOBT plus the total EET, correctly accounting for the 60-minute hour rollover when the minutes exceed 60.

Question 41Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

Under the semi-circular rule for IFR cruising levels, which level is appropriate for a magnetic track of 275°?

  1. FL 300
  2. FL 330
  3. FL 320
  4. FL 310 Correct answer.

Explanation

Tracks from 180° to 359° use odd flight levels, while tracks from 000° to 179° use even flight levels. A track of 275° therefore requires an odd level, and FL 310 is the only odd level offered.

Question 42Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

What is the primary purpose of a fuel log or fuel monitoring chart during flight?

  1. To log ATC frequency changes
  2. To compute the aircraft's magnetic heading
  3. To compare actual fuel remaining with planned fuel at each checkpoint Correct answer.
  4. To record passenger numbers for weight and balance

Explanation

A fuel log records actual fuel remaining at waypoints and compares it with the flight plan prediction, allowing the crew to detect leaks, excessive consumption or planning errors early. Prompt comparison supports in-flight decisions such as diversion or reduced power settings.

Question 43Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

An aircraft has a planned trip fuel of 1200 kg, taxi fuel of 50 kg, contingency of 5 % of trip fuel, alternate fuel of 300 kg, final reserve of 30 minutes at 800 kg/h and no extra fuel. What is the minimum block fuel?

  1. 1550 kg
  2. 2150 kg
  3. 1950 kg
  4. 2000 kg Correct answer.

Explanation

Trip fuel 1200 kg plus 5 % contingency (60 kg) plus alternate 300 kg plus final reserve (0.5 h × 800 kg/h = 400 kg) plus taxi 50 kg equals 2010 kg. The nearest listed value consistent with the calculation is 2000 kg, the closest option; strictly the sum is 2010 kg, so the intended answer rounds to 2000 kg.

Question 44Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

What does the abbreviation MORA represent on an en-route chart?

  1. Minimum Off-Route Altitude Correct answer.
  2. Maximum Operating Radar Altitude
  3. Mandatory Obstacle Reporting Area
  4. Minimum Obstacle-free Route Altitude

Explanation

MORA is the Minimum Off-Route Altitude, providing terrain and obstacle clearance within a defined grid area, typically 10 nm either side of the route. It is used when flying off established airways or when a diversion from track becomes necessary.

Question 45Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

An aircraft at FL 350 with a true airspeed of 480 kt experiences a headwind of 60 kt. What is the ground speed?

  1. 540 kt
  2. 480 kt
  3. 420 kt Correct answer.
  4. 600 kt

Explanation

Ground speed is true airspeed adjusted for the wind component along track. A headwind reduces ground speed, so 480 kt minus 60 kt equals 420 kt.

Question 46Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

In the ICAO flight plan, which item is used to indicate the alternate destination aerodrome?

  1. Item 18
  2. Item 15
  3. Item 16 Correct answer.
  4. Item 13

Explanation

Item 16 contains the destination aerodrome, total EET and alternate aerodrome(s). The alternate is entered after the destination and total elapsed time, separated by a space.

Question 47Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

A pilot must plan a diversion to an alternate aerodrome 180 nm away, flying at a groundspeed of 360 kt. How much diversion time should be allowed?

  1. 40 minutes
  2. 20 minutes
  3. 45 minutes
  4. 30 minutes Correct answer.

Explanation

Time equals distance divided by groundspeed: 180 nm divided by 360 kt equals 0.5 h, or 30 minutes. This diversion time is then multiplied by the fuel flow to determine the fuel required for the alternate.

Question 48Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

What is the significance of the PNR (point of no return) in flight planning?

  1. The point at which the aircraft must contact ATC for oceanic clearance
  2. The point where the aircraft begins its descent
  3. The point where the aircraft reaches its maximum cruise altitude
  4. The point beyond which the aircraft can no longer return to the departure aerodrome with the fuel remaining Correct answer.

Explanation

The PNR, also called the point of no return, is the furthest point from which the aircraft can return to the departure aerodrome with the fuel available, accounting for the wind on the return leg. Beyond it, the aircraft is committed to continuing to the destination or an alternate.

Question 49Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

An aircraft has a maximum take-off mass limited by runway performance to 68 000 kg. Operating empty mass is 42 000 kg, payload is 12 000 kg and taxi fuel is 500 kg. What is the maximum fuel that can be loaded?

  1. 14 000 kg
  2. 15 000 kg
  3. 13 500 kg Correct answer.
  4. 14 500 kg

Explanation

Take-off mass equals operating empty mass plus payload plus fuel at take-off. Fuel at take-off is 68 000 − 42 000 − 12 000 = 14 000 kg. Adding the 500 kg of taxi fuel burned before take-off gives a maximum fuel load of 14 500 kg; however, if the limit is on take-off mass, the fuel at take-off is 14 000 kg. The correct maximum fuel loaded, including taxi fuel, is therefore 14 500 kg, the closest consistent figure.

Question 50Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring

Which wind condition produces the greatest drift for a given wind speed and TAS?

  1. A wind at 90° to track Correct answer.
  2. A wind at 45° to track
  3. A wind directly along track
  4. A wind at 135° to track

Explanation

Drift depends on the crosswind component, which is greatest when the wind is perpendicular to track, i.e. at 90°. At other angles only the sine of the angle contributes to the crosswind, so drift is smaller.