Hygienist Licensing Examination flashcards

32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.

Clinical attachment level

CAL equals probing depth plus recession measured from the cementoenamel junction; it reflects cumulative attachment loss and is the preferred measure of periodontal destruction over probing depth alone.

Bleeding on probing

A site-level indicator of gingival inflammation recorded within 10–30 seconds after gentle probing; a BOP score below 10–20% of sites is a common target after periodontal therapy.

ASA Physical Status

A six-category classification of systemic health from ASA I (healthy) to ASA VI (brain-dead organ donor); ASA III or higher typically requires medical consultation before elective dental care.

O'Leary plaque index

A plaque control record calculated as the number of tooth surfaces with visible plaque divided by total surfaces, multiplied by 100 to yield a percentage.

Dental hygiene diagnosis

A statement identifying an actual or potential oral health problem, its contributing etiology, and supporting signs and symptoms; it guides selection of hygiene interventions within the care plan.

Nonsurgical periodontal therapy endpoint

Successful NSPT typically aims for bleeding on probing under 10–20% of sites and residual probing depths of 4 mm or less without bleeding, reevaluated 4–8 weeks after completion.

Risk-based recall interval

Recall frequency set by disease risk rather than insurance: low risk every 6–12 months, moderate every 3–6 months, and high risk every 2–3 months.

SMART care plan goal

A goal written to be Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound, stated in patient-centered behavioral terms such as reducing plaque score within four weeks.

Gracey curette adaptation

Area-specific curettes: Gracey 1/2 for anterior teeth, 7/8 and 9/10 for posterior facial and lingual surfaces, and 11/12 and 13/14 for posterior mesial and distal surfaces.

Optimal scaling angulation

The lower third of the cutting edge is adapted at 70–80 degrees to the tooth surface for effective calculus removal; 0 degrees is used for exploration and 45 degrees for insertion.

Air polishing contraindication

Sodium bicarbonate powder is avoided in patients with sodium-restricted diets, renal disease, or respiratory compromise; glycine or erythritol powders are subgingival alternatives.

Maximum lidocaine dose

The maximum recommended dose is 4.4 mg/kg without epinephrine and 7 mg/kg with epinephrine; a 1.8 mL cartridge of 2% lidocaine contains 36 mg of lidocaine.

CAMBRA risk categories

Caries Management by Risk Assessment classifies patients as low, moderate, or high risk using disease indicators, biological predisposing factors, and protective factors to guide preventive treatment.

Stephan curve

A graph of plaque pH after sugar exposure showing a rapid fall below the critical pH of 5.5 for enamel, followed by recovery over roughly 20–30 minutes.

Five A's tobacco intervention

A brief cessation framework: Ask about tobacco use, Advise quitting, Assess willingness, Assist with resources, and Arrange follow-up; even brief counseling improves quit rates.

Motivational interviewing

A patient-centered counseling style using open-ended questions, reflective listening, and affirmation to strengthen intrinsic motivation, rather than confrontation or unsolicited advice.

Autoclave sterilization parameters

Gravity displacement autoclaves typically use 121 degrees Celsius at 15 psi for 15–30 minutes; flash cycles use 132 degrees Celsius for about 4 minutes, verified by biological spore testing.

Standard precautions

Infection control practices applied to every patient regardless of diagnosis, including hand hygiene, gloves, masks, eye protection, and gowns based on anticipated exposure to blood or body fluids.

HIV post-exposure prophylaxis

Antiretroviral prophylaxis started as soon as possible after occupational exposure, ideally within 2 hours and no later than 72 hours, following source testing and expert consultation.

Amalgam separator requirement

A device complying with ISO 11143 that removes amalgam particles from dental wastewater to reduce mercury discharge, required in many jurisdictions under environmental regulations.

Critical pH for enamel

Enamel demineralizes when plaque fluid pH falls below approximately 5.5; root dentin demineralizes at a higher threshold near 6.2, explaining higher root caries risk.

RANKL and OPG

RANKL stimulates osteoclast differentiation and bone resorption, while osteoprotegerin (OPG) acts as a decoy receptor that blocks RANKL and protects against resorption.

Stimulated salivary flow

Normal stimulated whole saliva flow is about 1–2 mL per minute, while unstimulated flow is about 0.3–0.5 mL per minute; reduced flow raises caries and erosion risk.

Permanent tooth eruption timing

First permanent molars erupt around 6 years, central incisors 6–7, canines 9–12, second molars 12–13, and third molars 17–21 years of age.

Incidence versus prevalence

Incidence counts new cases arising in a population at risk during a period; prevalence counts all existing cases at a point or period, reflecting both incidence and disease duration.

Sensitivity and specificity

Sensitivity is the proportion of true cases correctly identified; specificity is the proportion of non-cases correctly identified; predictive values additionally depend on disease prevalence.

DMFT index

The Decayed, Missing, and Filled Teeth index counts affected permanent teeth per person to measure caries experience; dmft is its primary dentition counterpart.

Ottawa Charter

A 1986 WHO framework for health promotion built on five action areas: healthy public policy, supportive environments, community action, personal skills, and reorienting health services.

Direct versus general supervision

Direct supervision requires the dentist on the premises and examining the patient; general supervision authorizes procedures but does not require the dentist to be present.

Mandatory reporting duty

Licensed clinicians must report suspected child abuse or neglect, elder abuse, and specified communicable diseases to designated authorities under state law, even without patient consent.

Malpractice elements

A malpractice claim requires four elements: a duty of care, a breach of that duty, causation linking the breach to harm, and actual damages; all four must be proven.

Informed consent elements

Valid consent requires a competent, voluntary decision after disclosure of the diagnosis, proposed treatment, material risks and benefits, alternatives, and consequences of declining care.