I85PREP
⌘ K
Lebanese University Faculty of Public Health Entrance Exam study materials
Lebanese University Faculty of Public Health Entrance Exam study resources

Lebanese University Faculty of Public Health Entrance Exam practice questions

One question at a time. Build your Lebanese University Faculty of Public Health Entrance Exam understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Biology

Which organelle is the primary site of ATP production by oxidative phosphorylation in a human cell?

  1. Golgi apparatus
  2. Mitochondrion Correct answer.
  3. Lysosome
  4. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation

The inner mitochondrial membrane houses the electron transport chain and ATP synthase, which together carry out oxidative phosphorylation. The other listed organelles perform packaging, digestion, or protein synthesis and do not generate most cellular ATP.

Question 2Biology

During which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

  1. G2 phase
  2. S phase Correct answer.
  3. G1 phase
  4. M phase

Explanation

The S phase (synthesis phase) of interphase is when the genome is duplicated so each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes. G1 and G2 are gap phases, and M phase is when chromosomes are segregated and the cell divides.

Question 3Biology

A couple who are both carriers of an autosomal recessive disease have a child. What is the probability that the child is an affected homozygote?

  1. 25% Correct answer.
  2. 50%
  3. 0%
  4. 75%

Explanation

Two heterozygous carriers (Aa × Aa) produce offspring in a 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa ratio, so one quarter of conceptions are homozygous recessive and affected. The 50% figure describes the chance of a carrier child, not an affected one.

Question 4Biology

Which molecule serves as the direct energy currency for most cellular reactions in human cells?

  1. Pyruvate
  2. Glucose
  3. ATP Correct answer.
  4. NADH

Explanation

ATP couples exergonic and endergonic reactions by transferring its terminal phosphate group, making it the immediate energy currency of the cell. Glucose and pyruvate are fuels that must first be catabolized, and NADH is an electron carrier rather than a direct phosphorylation donor.

Question 5Biology

Which blood vessel type has the thinnest walls and is the main site of exchange of gases and nutrients with tissues?

  1. Arteriole
  2. Vein
  3. Capillary Correct answer.
  4. Artery

Explanation

Capillaries consist of a single layer of endothelial cells, which minimizes diffusion distance and permits exchange between blood and tissue fluid. Arteries and veins have thick, multi-layered walls, and arterioles are resistance vessels that regulate flow.

Question 6Biology

Which process produces the greatest number of ATP molecules per molecule of glucose in an aerobic human cell?

  1. Lactic acid fermentation
  2. Oxidative phosphorylation Correct answer.
  3. The Krebs cycle alone
  4. Glycolysis

Explanation

Oxidative phosphorylation accounts for the large majority of ATP yield because the electron transport chain creates a proton gradient that drives ATP synthase. Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle each contribute only small direct amounts of substrate-level ATP.

Question 7Biology

Which type of immunity is acquired after natural infection with a pathogen?

  1. Passive artificial immunity
  2. Active artificial immunity
  3. Passive natural immunity
  4. Active natural immunity Correct answer.

Explanation

Natural infection exposes the body to antigens and triggers its own antibody and memory cell response, which is active natural immunity. Passive immunity involves receiving antibodies rather than producing them, and artificial immunity follows medical intervention such as vaccination or immunoglobulin injection.

Question 8Biology

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between DNA, genes, and chromosomes in human cells?

  1. A gene contains many DNA molecules, each forming a chromosome
  2. A chromosome contains many genes, each being a segment of DNA Correct answer.
  3. A chromosome is a protein that contains many genes but no DNA
  4. A gene contains many chromosomes, each being a segment of DNA

Explanation

Chromosomes are structures of DNA wrapped around histone proteins, and each chromosome carries many genes arranged along the DNA. A gene is a functional segment of DNA, so genes are contained within chromosomes rather than containing them.

Question 9Biology

In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, a recessive allele has a frequency of 0.3. What proportion of the population is expected to be heterozygous?

  1. 0.42 Correct answer.
  2. 0.21
  3. 0.09
  4. 0.49

Explanation

With q = 0.3, p = 0.7, and the heterozygote frequency is 2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42. The value q² = 0.09 gives the homozygous recessive proportion, while p² = 0.49 gives the homozygous dominant proportion.

Question 10Biology

A mutation changes a single DNA base but the resulting amino acid sequence of the protein is unchanged. What kind of mutation is this?

  1. Missense mutation
  2. Nonsense mutation
  3. Silent mutation Correct answer.
  4. Frameshift mutation

Explanation

A silent mutation alters a codon without changing the amino acid it encodes, thanks to the redundancy of the genetic code. Missense and nonsense mutations change the amino acid sequence or create a stop codon, and frameshifts shift the reading frame entirely.

Question 11Biology

Which enzyme unwinds the double helix ahead of the replication fork during DNA replication?

  1. DNA polymerase III
  2. RNA primase
  3. DNA ligase
  4. DNA helicase Correct answer.

Explanation

DNA helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases to separate the two strands, creating the replication fork. Ligase joins fragments, primase lays RNA primers, and polymerase extends the new strand.

Question 12Biology

During which stage of meiosis does crossing over between homologous chromosomes occur?

  1. Anaphase I
  2. Prophase I Correct answer.
  3. Metaphase II
  4. Telophase II

Explanation

Crossing over occurs during prophase I, when homologous chromosomes pair as bivalents and exchange segments at chiasmata. This recombination is a key source of genetic variation in gametes.

Question 13Biology

A man with blood group AB and a woman with blood group O have a child. Which blood group is impossible for this child?

  1. B
  2. O
  3. AB Correct answer.
  4. A

Explanation

The AB father can pass only an A or a B allele, while the O mother can pass only an O allele. Offspring are therefore AO (group A) or BO (group B); neither AB nor O is possible.

Question 14Biology

Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary gland?

  1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
  2. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  3. Oxytocin Correct answer.
  4. Prolactin

Explanation

The posterior pituitary stores and releases oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are synthesized in the hypothalamus. TSH, ACTH, and prolactin are anterior pituitary hormones.

Question 15Biology

Which structure of the nephron is primarily responsible for the reabsorption of most filtered glucose and amino acids?

  1. Loop of Henle
  2. Glomerulus
  3. Collecting duct
  4. Proximal convoluted tubule Correct answer.

Explanation

The proximal convoluted tubule has abundant microvilli and transporters that reabsorb the bulk of filtered glucose, amino acids, and sodium. The glomerulus filters, the loop of Henle concentrates urine, and the collecting duct fine-tunes water balance under hormonal control.

Question 16Biology

Which statement best explains why the genetic code is described as degenerate?

  1. The code differs between species and between tissues
  2. Some codons are read in both the forward and reverse direction
  3. Most amino acids are specified by more than one codon Correct answer.
  4. Each codon can specify several different amino acids

Explanation

Degeneracy means that several different codons can encode the same amino acid, which buffers the effect of some point mutations. The code is not ambiguous, however: a given codon always specifies the same amino acid.

Question 17Biology

A bacterial population is exposed to an antibiotic, and a few cells survive because they already carry a resistance gene. Over time, the resistant cells dominate the population. Which mechanism does this illustrate?

  1. Gene flow
  2. Stabilizing selection
  3. Genetic drift
  4. Directional selection Correct answer.

Explanation

Directional selection favors one extreme phenotype, shifting the population mean toward resistance under antibiotic pressure. Stabilizing selection favors intermediate phenotypes, drift is random sampling error, and gene flow involves migration between populations.

Question 18Biology

Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

  1. Small nuclear RNA
  2. Ribosomal RNA
  3. Messenger RNA
  4. Transfer RNA Correct answer.

Explanation

Transfer RNA molecules recognize codons on mRNA through their anticodons and deliver the corresponding amino acids to the ribosome. Messenger RNA carries the coding sequence, ribosomal RNA forms the ribosome, and small nuclear RNA participates in splicing.

Question 19Biology

A person's diet lacks iron, leading to impaired hemoglobin synthesis. Which function is most directly affected?

  1. Antibody production by lymphocytes
  2. Fat digestion by bile salts
  3. Oxygen transport in the blood Correct answer.
  4. Blood clotting by platelets

Explanation

Iron is a cofactor in the heme group of hemoglobin, which binds oxygen in red blood cells, so iron deficiency impairs oxygen transport. Clotting, antibody production, and fat digestion depend on other molecules and nutrients.

Question 20Biology

Which feature distinguishes an enzyme from a simple inorganic catalyst in biological systems?

  1. Enzymes are consumed in the reactions they catalyze
  2. Enzymes increase the equilibrium constant of a reaction
  3. Enzymes are highly specific and are usually proteins Correct answer.
  4. Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction

Explanation

Enzymes are typically proteins with active sites that give them high substrate specificity, unlike simple inorganic catalysts. Like all catalysts they lower activation energy without being consumed, and they do not change the equilibrium constant.

Question 21Biology

In a pedigree, a trait appears in every generation and affects both males and females, and an affected father passes it to all of his daughters but none of his sons. Which inheritance pattern is most likely?

  1. Autosomal dominant
  2. Autosomal recessive
  3. Y-linked
  4. X-linked dominant Correct answer.

Explanation

An affected father transmitting the trait to all daughters and no sons is the classic signature of X-linked dominant inheritance, since daughters always receive his X chromosome and sons receive his Y. Autosomal patterns would not produce this sex-specific transmission.

Question 22Biology

A deletion of one nucleotide occurs in the coding region of a gene. Which consequence is most likely?

  1. Duplication of the entire chromosome during the next mitosis
  2. A shift in the reading frame producing a truncated or altered protein Correct answer.
  3. A single amino acid substitution with no other change
  4. No change in the protein because the code is degenerate

Explanation

Deleting one nucleotide shifts the reading frame, so every downstream codon is misread, usually producing a premature stop codon and a nonfunctional protein. Degeneracy can mask base substitutions but cannot correct a frameshift.

Question 23Biology

A patient's blood gas results show a low pH with a low plasma bicarbonate concentration. Which acid-base disturbance does this indicate?

  1. Metabolic alkalosis
  2. Respiratory alkalosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis
  4. Metabolic acidosis Correct answer.

Explanation

A primary fall in bicarbonate lowers pH and defines metabolic acidosis, which may occur with bicarbonate loss or accumulation of metabolic acids. Respiratory disturbances change pH primarily through altered carbon dioxide levels rather than bicarbonate.

Question 24Biology

In a dihybrid cross between two individuals heterozygous for both unlinked genes, what proportion of offspring is expected to show both recessive traits?

  1. 1/16 Correct answer.
  2. 3/16
  3. 1/4
  4. 9/16

Explanation

Independent assortment gives a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio, so the double recessive class occurs at 1/16. The 9/16 class is double dominant, and each single-recessive class is 3/16.

Question 25Biology

A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder has children with an unaffected man. Which statement about their offspring is correct?

  1. No child can inherit the disorder because the father is unaffected
  2. All sons will be affected and all daughters will be carriers
  3. Each son has a 50% chance of being affected, and each daughter has a 50% chance of being a carrier Correct answer.
  4. Only daughters can inherit the disorder, and none will be carriers

Explanation

Sons receive their X chromosome from the mother, so each son has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutant allele and being affected. Daughters receive a normal X from the father, so they cannot be affected but each has a 50% chance of being a carrier.

Question 26Biology

Which cellular organelle is the primary site of oxidative phosphorylation and ATP production in a human cell?

  1. Mitochondrion Correct answer.
  2. Lysosome
  3. Golgi apparatus
  4. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation

The inner mitochondrial membrane hosts the electron transport chain and ATP synthase, which together carry out oxidative phosphorylation. This is where most ATP from aerobic respiration is generated, making the mitochondrion the cell's main energy-producing organelle.

Question 27Biology

A red blood cell is placed in a beaker of pure distilled water. What will happen to the cell?

  1. It will remain unchanged because water movement is balanced.
  2. It will swell briefly and then shrink back to its original volume.
  3. It will swell and may burst because water enters by osmosis. Correct answer.
  4. It will shrink because water leaves the cell.

Explanation

Distilled water is hypotonic relative to the cytoplasm, which contains dissolved solutes. Water therefore moves down its concentration gradient into the cell by osmosis across the plasma membrane, and because red blood cells lack a rigid wall, they swell and can lyse.

Question 28Biology

Which molecule is the immediate energy source used directly by the myosin heads during muscle contraction?

  1. ATP Correct answer.
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Glucose
  4. Creatine phosphate

Explanation

Myosin heads hydrolyse ATP to ADP and phosphate, and the energy released drives the power stroke of the cross-bridge cycle. Creatine phosphate and glucose only regenerate ATP indirectly, so ATP itself is the direct energy currency for contraction.

Question 29Biology

A child recovering from measles is later found to have antibodies against the measles virus in the blood. Which cells are responsible for the long-term production of these antibodies after the acute infection resolves?

  1. Natural killer cells that release perforin onto infected cells
  2. Neutrophils that phagocytose viral particles in the bloodstream
  3. Cytotoxic T cells that directly destroy infected epithelial cells
  4. Memory B cells that differentiate into antibody-secreting plasma cells Correct answer.

Explanation

After an infection, some activated B lymphocytes persist as memory B cells. On re-exposure they proliferate and differentiate rapidly into plasma cells that secrete large quantities of specific antibody, which is the basis of humoral immunological memory.

Question 30Biology

In a eukaryotic cell, an inhibitor blocks the enzyme RNA polymerase. Which process is most directly prevented?

  1. Translation of messenger RNA into protein
  2. Replication of the DNA double helix
  3. Transcription of DNA into messenger RNA Correct answer.
  4. Splicing of introns from pre-messenger RNA

Explanation

RNA polymerase catalyses the synthesis of an RNA strand using DNA as a template, which defines transcription. Blocking it stops production of mRNA and other RNA classes, although DNA replication and translation use different enzymes.

Question 31Biology

A patient with chronic kidney disease has a reduced glomerular filtration rate. Which change is the most direct expected consequence?

  1. Accumulation of urea and creatinine in the blood Correct answer.
  2. Reduced oxygen saturation of arterial blood
  3. Increased reabsorption of water in the loop of Henle
  4. Increased secretion of glucose by the proximal tubule

Explanation

The glomerular filtration rate determines how much plasma is filtered per unit time. When it falls, nitrogenous wastes such as urea and creatinine are cleared less efficiently and therefore rise in the blood, a hallmark of renal impairment.

Question 32Biology

During the cardiac cycle, which event coincides with the first heart sound and the closure of the atrioventricular valves?

  1. Closure of the semilunar valves
  2. Atrial systole
  3. Ventricular filling
  4. Ventricular systole Correct answer.

Explanation

As ventricular pressure rises above atrial pressure at the start of ventricular systole, the atrioventricular valves snap shut and produce the first heart sound. The semilunar valves open later in systole once ventricular pressure exceeds aortic and pulmonary pressure.

Question 33Biology

A couple in which both partners are heterozygous for an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a single gene ask about the risk to their children. What is the probability that a child will be affected?

  1. 75 percent
  2. 25 percent Correct answer.
  3. 50 percent
  4. 0 percent

Explanation

Each heterozygous parent carries one mutant and one normal allele, so each child inherits two alleles independently. Only the homozygous mutant genotype produces the disease, and that combination occurs with probability one quarter for every child.

Question 34Biology

Which mechanism best explains why a person with type 1 diabetes develops hyperglycaemia after a meal?

  1. Insulin receptors on target cells become desensitised to normal insulin levels
  2. Pancreatic beta cells fail to secrete sufficient insulin Correct answer.
  3. Muscle cells increase their uptake of glucose independently of insulin
  4. Glucagon secretion is completely suppressed by the meal

Explanation

Type 1 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, so insulin secretion is deficient. Without adequate insulin, glucose uptake by muscle and adipose tissue falls and hepatic glucose output continues, causing hyperglycaemia.

Question 35Biology

A mutation changes the codon for an amino acid into a premature stop codon in the middle of a coding sequence. What is the most likely effect on the protein?

  1. The reading frame shifts and the protein becomes longer
  2. The protein is produced normally because the code is degenerate
  3. A truncated, usually non-functional polypeptide is produced Correct answer.
  4. A single amino acid is substituted with no other change

Explanation

A nonsense mutation converts an amino acid codon into a termination codon, so translation stops early. The resulting polypeptide is shortened and typically loses function, which is why nonsense mutations are often deleterious.

Question 36Biology

In an ecosystem, a large proportion of the energy at each trophic level is lost before transfer to the next level. Which statement best explains this loss?

  1. Energy is dissipated as heat during respiration and lost in excretory products Correct answer.
  2. Energy is destroyed when organisms die and decompose
  3. Energy passes to the next level with about 90 percent efficiency
  4. Energy is converted entirely into biomass at each trophic level

Explanation

At each trophic level, organisms use much of the assimilated energy for respiration, releasing it as heat, and excrete some in waste. Only a small fraction, roughly ten percent, is stored as new biomass available to the next trophic level.

Question 37Biology

In the alveoli, oxygen diffuses from alveolar air into the blood. Which factor most directly increases the rate of this diffusion?

  1. A large partial pressure gradient for oxygen across the membrane Correct answer.
  2. Thickening of the alveolar-capillary membrane
  3. Reduced blood flow through the pulmonary capillaries
  4. A decrease in the surface area of the alveolar walls

Explanation

Fick's law states that diffusion rate is proportional to the concentration or partial pressure gradient and the surface area, and inversely proportional to membrane thickness. A large oxygen gradient between alveolar air and deoxygenated capillary blood therefore accelerates diffusion.

Question 38Biology

A patient's plasma osmolarity rises sharply because of dehydration. Which physiological response is expected?

  1. Dilation of the afferent arteriole with increased urine output
  2. Increased secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide
  3. Increased release of antidiuretic hormone from the posterior pituitary Correct answer.
  4. Decreased reabsorption of water in the collecting duct

Explanation

Plasma hyperosmolarity is detected by hypothalamic osmoreceptors, which trigger release of antidiuretic hormone from the posterior pituitary. The hormone increases water permeability of the collecting duct, so more water is reabsorbed and concentrated urine is produced.

Question 39Biology

A woman is heterozygous for a balanced reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 2 and 7. During meiosis, which outcome is most likely if the translocated chromosomes segregate in an adjacent pattern?

  1. Gametes with unbalanced chromosome complements are produced Correct answer.
  2. Gametes are produced with a doubled chromosome number
  3. All gametes carry a normal chromosome complement
  4. All gametes carry the balanced translocation

Explanation

In a balanced translocation carrier, homologous regions pair in a quadrivalent during meiosis. Adjacent segregation sends one normal and one translocated chromosome to the same pole, producing gametes with duplicated and deleted segments, which are unbalanced.

Question 40Biology

A newborn presents with persistent vomiting, dehydration and metabolic alkalosis, and laboratory tests show elevated blood 17-hydroxyprogesterone. Which enzyme deficiency best explains this presentation?

  1. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
  2. Lactase deficiency
  3. 21-hydroxylase deficiency Correct answer.
  4. Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency

Explanation

21-hydroxylase deficiency blocks cortisol and aldosterone synthesis, shunting precursors into the androgen pathway and raising 17-hydroxyprogesterone. Salt wasting with hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia, together with virilisation, is the classic presentation of the severe form.

Question 41Chemistry

In a public health laboratory, a water sample is found to contain 0.002 mol of calcium ions per litre. What is the molar concentration of Ca²⁺ in this sample?

  1. 0.002 mol/L Correct answer.
  2. 0.2 mol/L
  3. 0.02 mol/L
  4. 2 mol/L

Explanation

Molar concentration equals moles of solute divided by volume in litres, so 0.002 mol in 1 L gives 0.002 mol/L. The other values would require a different volume or a different number of moles, which the data do not support.

Question 42Chemistry

Which particle is transferred when an acid donates a proton to a base in the Brønsted–Lowry model?

  1. An electron
  2. A neutron
  3. An oxide ion
  4. A hydrogen ion Correct answer.

Explanation

The Brønsted–Lowry definition treats an acid as a proton donor and a base as a proton acceptor; a proton is a hydrogen ion, H⁺. Electron transfer defines redox processes, not acid–base behaviour.

Question 43Chemistry

A solution used in a drinking-water quality test has a pH of 3. What is its hydrogen ion concentration?

  1. 1 × 10³ mol/L
  2. 3 × 10⁻⁷ mol/L
  3. 1 × 10⁻³ mol/L Correct answer.
  4. 1 × 10⁻¹¹ mol/L

Explanation

pH is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration, so [H⁺] = 10^(−pH) = 10⁻³ mol/L. A pH of 3 therefore corresponds to a millimolar hydrogen ion concentration.

Question 44Chemistry

Which functional group characterises carboxylic acids such as the preservative benzoic acid?

  1. –COOH Correct answer.
  2. –OH only
  3. –NH₂
  4. –CHO

Explanation

Carboxylic acids contain the carboxyl group –COOH, a carbonyl carbon bonded to a hydroxyl group. This group releases H⁺ and gives the acidic behaviour used in food preservation.

Question 45Chemistry

In the periodic table, which trend correctly describes atomic radius across a period from left to right?

  1. It increases because more shells are added
  2. It decreases because effective nuclear charge rises Correct answer.
  3. It increases because metallic character increases
  4. It stays constant because protons and electrons increase equally

Explanation

Across a period, protons are added to the same shell, so the effective nuclear charge rises and pulls the electron cloud inward, shrinking the radius. Additional shells are added down a group, not across a period.

Question 46Chemistry

Which type of bonding holds sodium and chloride ions together in a crystal of table salt?

  1. Covalent bonding
  2. Metallic bonding
  3. Hydrogen bonding
  4. Ionic bonding Correct answer.

Explanation

Sodium donates an electron to chlorine, producing Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions that are held in a lattice by electrostatic attraction, which is ionic bonding. There is no sharing of electron pairs between the ions.

Question 47Chemistry

Which statement correctly describes a catalyst in a chemical reaction relevant to industrial synthesis?

  1. It increases the rate by lowering the activation energy Correct answer.
  2. It is consumed stoichiometrically during the reaction
  3. It raises the energy of the products relative to the reactants
  4. It increases the equilibrium constant of the reaction

Explanation

A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy, so more collisions are effective and the rate increases. It is regenerated at the end and does not shift the position of equilibrium.

Question 48Chemistry

A laboratory reports a measurement as 12.50 g. How many significant figures does this value contain?

  1. Five
  2. Three
  3. Two
  4. Four Correct answer.

Explanation

All non-zero digits and trailing zeros after a decimal point are significant, so 1, 2, 5 and the final 0 all count, giving four significant figures. Trailing zeros are only ambiguous when no decimal point is present.

Question 49Chemistry

A public health chemist needs to prepare 250 mL of a 0.100 mol/L sodium chloride solution. What mass of NaCl (molar mass 58.5 g/mol) is required?

  1. 1.46 g Correct answer.
  2. 0.585 g
  3. 5.85 g
  4. 14.6 g

Explanation

Moles needed = 0.100 mol/L × 0.250 L = 0.0250 mol; multiplying by 58.5 g/mol gives about 1.46 g. The calculation combines concentration, volume and molar mass in the correct order.

Question 50Chemistry

Consider the equilibrium N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g). According to Le Chatelier's principle, what happens when the total pressure is increased at constant temperature?

  1. The equilibrium shifts toward the reactants
  2. The equilibrium shifts toward the products Correct answer.
  3. No change occurs because pressure does not affect gases
  4. The equilibrium constant decreases

Explanation

Increasing pressure favours the side with fewer gas molecules, and here four molecules of gas form two, so the equilibrium shifts toward ammonia. The equilibrium constant itself depends only on temperature.