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PPL Flight Performance and Planning study materials
PPL Flight Performance and Planning study resources

PPL Flight Performance and Planning practice questions

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Question 1Flight Performance and Planning

In the PPL mass-and-balance context, what does the maximum take-off mass (MTOM) represent?

  1. The greatest mass at which the aircraft may begin the take-off run, including all fuel and payload Correct answer.
  2. The mass above which a passenger briefing is required
  3. The mass of the empty aircraft plus unusable fuel and full oil only
  4. The mass permitted at the moment the aircraft lifts off with full flap

Explanation

Maximum take-off mass is the certified limit for the aircraft's total mass at the start of the take-off run, covering empty mass, usable fuel, occupants and baggage. It is a structural and performance limit set in the flight manual and must not be exceeded. Exceeding it invalidates performance data and may overstress the airframe.

Question 2Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft has an empty mass of 700 kg, pilot 80 kg, one passenger 70 kg, baggage 20 kg and 90 litres of fuel. Using 0.72 kg per litre for fuel, what is the take-off mass?

  1. 965 kg
  2. 1 005 kg
  3. 935 kg Correct answer.
  4. 870 kg

Explanation

Fuel mass is 90 × 0.72 = 64.8 kg. Summing empty mass, occupants, baggage and fuel gives 700 + 80 + 70 + 20 + 64.8 = 934.8 kg, rounded to 935 kg. Always convert volume to mass before adding, since the flight manual limits are stated in mass.

Question 3Flight Performance and Planning

Which statement correctly describes the centre of gravity (CG) position of an aircraft?

  1. The point through which the total weight is considered to act Correct answer.
  2. The geometric centre of the wing mean chord only
  3. The location of the main landing gear contact point
  4. The point where the tailplane downforce balances the wing lift

Explanation

The CG is the single point at which the entire weight of the aircraft can be considered concentrated, producing the same moments as the distributed masses. Its fore-and-aft position determines longitudinal stability and control effectiveness. It is computed from mass moments about a reference datum, not from a fixed structural point.

Question 4Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft is loaded so that its CG lies forward of the forward CG limit. What is the most significant consequence?

  1. Increased cruise speed because of lower trim drag
  2. Increased longitudinal stability with reduced elevator authority and longer take-off distance Correct answer.
  3. Reduced longitudinal stability with a tendency to pitch up
  4. No effect provided the mass is below MTOM

Explanation

Moving the CG forward increases the nose-down moment that the tailplane must counter, improving static stability but reducing the elevator authority available to flare and rotate. The result is a longer take-off run and higher landing speed, with possible inability to flare. This is why the forward CG limit is a hard operational limit.

Question 5Flight Performance and Planning

Which pressure altitude and temperature condition gives the greatest density altitude?

  1. Low pressure altitude and high temperature
  2. Low pressure altitude and low temperature
  3. High pressure altitude and low temperature
  4. High pressure altitude and high temperature Correct answer.

Explanation

Density altitude rises when pressure altitude is high (low pressure) and when temperature is high, because both reduce air density. The combination of a high pressure altitude and a high temperature produces the worst density altitude and therefore the poorest performance. Cold temperatures or low pressure altitudes increase density and improve performance.

Question 6Flight Performance and Planning

An airfield has an elevation of 2 000 ft and the QNH is 1013 hPa. The temperature is 20 °C above ISA. Compared with a standard day, the density altitude is approximately:

  1. Exactly the elevation of 2 000 ft
  2. Elevation plus roughly 120 ft per °C of ISA deviation, so about 4 400 ft Correct answer.
  3. Lower than the pressure altitude because warmer air is thinner
  4. Equal to the pressure altitude divided by two

Explanation

With QNH at 1013 hPa the pressure altitude equals the elevation of 2 000 ft. Density altitude increases by roughly 120 ft for each degree Celsius above ISA, so 20 °C gives about 2 400 ft extra, approximately 4 400 ft. Warm air is less dense, so density altitude is always higher than pressure altitude on a hot day.

Question 7Flight Performance and Planning

Headwind on take-off has which effect on the ground roll and the initial climb gradient?

  1. Longer ground roll and shallower climb gradient over the ground
  2. Unchanged ground roll but steeper climb gradient over the ground
  3. Shorter ground roll and steeper climb gradient over the ground Correct answer.
  4. Shorter ground roll but unchanged climb gradient over the ground

Explanation

A headwind reduces the ground speed needed to reach the same airspeed for lift-off, shortening the ground roll. After lift-off the airspeed and thus the climb rate relative to the air are unchanged, but the reduced ground speed makes the climb path steeper over the ground. A tailwind produces the opposite effects and is the more hazardous case.

Question 8Flight Performance and Planning

Which factor most directly increases the take-off ground roll on a given day?

  1. An increase in headwind component
  2. A decrease in aircraft mass
  3. A decrease in air density Correct answer.
  4. Selection of a lower flap setting for take-off

Explanation

Lower air density reduces engine power output and the lift produced at a given true airspeed, so more speed and a longer run are needed. Headwind, lower mass and increased flap all shorten the ground roll. Pilots must therefore apply density-altitude corrections from the flight manual.

Question 9Flight Performance and Planning

What is the meaning of the take-off distance available (TODA)?

  1. The landing distance available plus stopway
  2. The take-off run available plus any clearway Correct answer.
  3. The distance to the first obstacle in the climb path
  4. The take-off run available only

Explanation

TODA is the length of the take-off run available plus any clearway declared for the aerodrome. The clearway allows the aircraft to reach a defined height above the runway surface. It is distinct from TORA, which is the runway itself, and from ASDA, which includes stopway.

Question 10Flight Performance and Planning

An aerodrome declares TORA 1 400 m, clearway 150 m and stopway 60 m. What are TODA and ASDA respectively?

  1. 1 460 m and 1 550 m
  2. 1 550 m and 1 550 m
  3. 1 550 m and 1 460 m Correct answer.
  4. 1 400 m and 1 400 m

Explanation

TODA equals TORA plus clearway, so 1 400 + 150 = 1 550 m. ASDA equals TORA plus stopway, so 1 400 + 60 = 1 460 m. Clearway is not included in ASDA and stopway is not included in TODA.

Question 11Flight Performance and Planning

The landing distance required (LDR) must normally not exceed which declared distance?

  1. The landing distance available (LDA) Correct answer.
  2. The clearway length
  3. The take-off run available (TORA)
  4. The accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA)

Explanation

The landing distance required, corrected for wind, slope, temperature and runway condition, must fit within the landing distance available. LDA is the length of runway declared suitable for landing. TORA and ASDA relate to take-off, and clearway is never used for landing.

Question 12Flight Performance and Planning

A runway is wet and the flight manual gives an un-factored landing distance of 500 m. Applying a factor of 1.15 for a private flight, what LDR should be compared with LDA?

  1. 435 m
  2. 500 m
  3. 615 m
  4. 575 m Correct answer.

Explanation

The required landing distance is the flight manual figure multiplied by the applicable factor, here 500 × 1.15 = 575 m. This increased value must not exceed the landing distance available. Factors account for pilot technique, braking variation and runway condition.

Question 13Flight Performance and Planning

In a steady climb, which relationship correctly describes the forces along the flight path?

  1. Thrust equals drag only, regardless of climb angle
  2. Thrust equals drag plus the component of weight along the flight path Correct answer.
  3. Thrust equals weight plus drag
  4. Lift equals weight at all climb angles

Explanation

In a steady climb the aircraft is in equilibrium, so thrust balances drag plus the rearward component of weight along the climb path. Lift is slightly less than weight because a component of weight acts along the path. A steeper climb therefore demands more thrust for the same speed.

Question 14Flight Performance and Planning

What is the effect of a tailwind on the best angle of climb over the ground?

  1. It increases the climb angle over the ground
  2. It has no effect on the climb path over the ground
  3. It changes the best airspeed for the climb
  4. It reduces the climb angle over the ground, so obstacles are cleared later Correct answer.

Explanation

Best angle of climb is achieved at a fixed airspeed and gives a fixed climb gradient relative to the air. A tailwind increases ground speed, so for the same rate of climb the path over the ground becomes shallower. The airspeed for best angle of climb does not change with wind.

Question 15Flight Performance and Planning

Which statement about the effect of flap on take-off is correct?

  1. Increased flap reduces the lift-off speed but increases drag and may reduce the climb gradient Correct answer.
  2. Flap has no effect on the take-off run
  3. Increased flap increases the lift-off speed
  4. Increased flap always improves the climb gradient

Explanation

Flap increases lift coefficient, lowering the speed needed to lift off and shortening the ground roll. However, the extra drag reduces the climb gradient after lift-off, so the flight manual specifies the optimum flap for obstacle clearance. More flap is not automatically better.

Question 16Flight Performance and Planning

What does the term 'balanced field length' mean for a multi-engine aeroplane?

  1. The distance from brake release to rotation
  2. The length of runway that gives equal headwind and tailwind components
  3. The field length at which the accelerate-stop distance equals the take-off distance to 35 ft Correct answer.
  4. The runway length needed for landing at maximum landing mass

Explanation

Balanced field length is the point where the distance to accelerate and stop equals the distance to accelerate, lose an engine and reach the screen height. At this length the take-off decision speed V1 is optimised. It balances the two emergency cases rather than describing normal take-off.

Question 17Flight Performance and Planning

Why does an increase in aircraft mass reduce the maximum glide range?

  1. The wing stalls at a lower angle of attack
  2. The best glide speed increases, so the same altitude is used at a higher rate of descent Correct answer.
  3. The propeller efficiency falls with mass
  4. The lift-to-drag ratio decreases with mass

Explanation

Maximum glide range depends on the lift-to-drag ratio, which is essentially independent of mass. However, a heavier aircraft must fly faster for the same lift coefficient, so it descends at a higher rate and covers less distance from a given altitude. The glide angle is unchanged but the airspeed for best glide is higher.

Question 18Flight Performance and Planning

On a cross-country flight, which fuel quantity must be planned in addition to trip fuel?

  1. Contingency fuel only
  2. Final reserve fuel only
  3. Contingency, alternate, final reserve and taxi fuel Correct answer.
  4. Trip fuel only

Explanation

A complete fuel plan includes taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel, alternate fuel where required and final reserve fuel. These components cover deviations, diversion and holding before landing. Planning only trip fuel leaves no margin for unforeseen circumstances.

Question 19Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft burns 32 litres per hour. A flight of 2 hours 15 minutes plus a 45-minute final reserve requires how much fuel, excluding taxi and contingency?

  1. 64 litres
  2. 80 litres
  3. 96 litres Correct answer.
  4. 72 litres

Explanation

Total time is 2 h 15 min plus 45 min reserve, which is 3 hours. At 32 litres per hour this gives 3 × 32 = 96 litres. Care must be taken to convert minutes to decimal hours before multiplying.

Question 20Flight Performance and Planning

During a climb, what happens to the true airspeed for a constant indicated airspeed as altitude increases?

  1. True airspeed decreases because air density decreases
  2. True airspeed increases because air density decreases Correct answer.
  3. True airspeed remains constant
  4. True airspeed increases because temperature decreases

Explanation

Indicated airspeed reflects dynamic pressure, which depends on density. As altitude rises and density falls, a higher true airspeed is needed to produce the same indicated airspeed. This is why true airspeed is used for navigation and fuel planning at altitude.

Question 21Flight Performance and Planning

A flight plan uses a true airspeed of 120 kt and a headwind of 20 kt over a 240 NM leg. What is the leg time?

  1. 1 h 43 min
  2. 2 h 00 min
  3. 2 h 24 min Correct answer.
  4. 3 h 00 min

Explanation

Ground speed is 120 − 20 = 100 kt. Time equals distance divided by ground speed, so 240 / 100 = 2.4 hours, which is 2 h 24 min. Using true airspeed instead of ground speed would underestimate the time.

Question 22Flight Performance and Planning

Which item is normally included in the aircraft's basic empty mass?

  1. Baggage in the hold
  2. Usable fuel
  3. Pilot and passengers
  4. Unusable fuel, full oil and fixed equipment Correct answer.

Explanation

Basic empty mass includes the airframe, engines, fixed equipment, unusable fuel and full oil. It excludes crew, passengers, usable fuel and payload, which are added separately in the loading calculation. Using the correct definition prevents double counting.

Question 23Flight Performance and Planning

A load is moved aft within the cabin. How does this affect the CG and the mass?

  1. The CG stays the same while the mass increases
  2. The CG moves forward while the total mass stays the same
  3. The CG moves aft while the total mass stays the same Correct answer.
  4. The CG and the mass both increase

Explanation

Moving a mass changes its moment about the datum but not the total mass. Shifting weight aft increases the aft moment, moving the CG rearward. Only adding or removing mass changes the total.

Question 24Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft is at maximum take-off mass with the CG at the aft limit. What is the primary concern for handling?

  1. Improved stall recovery characteristics
  2. Increased elevator forces in the flare
  3. Reduced longitudinal stability and possible difficulty recovering from a stall Correct answer.
  4. A tendency to pitch down on rotation

Explanation

An aft CG reduces the restoring nose-down moment and lowers longitudinal static stability. This can make the aircraft sensitive in pitch and harder to recover from a stall or spin. The forward limit, by contrast, causes heavy control forces and poor flare authority.

Question 25Flight Performance and Planning

Which condition gives the shortest take-off ground roll for a given aircraft mass and flap setting?

  1. Low altitude, high temperature and a tailwind
  2. High altitude, high temperature and a tailwind
  3. Low altitude, low temperature and a strong headwind Correct answer.
  4. High altitude, low temperature and no wind

Explanation

Low altitude and low temperature give high air density and maximum engine and lift performance, while a headwind reduces the ground speed needed for lift-off. Together these minimise the ground roll. High altitude, high temperature and tailwind all lengthen it.

Question 26Flight Performance and Planning

An aerodrome has a runway elevation of 3 000 ft. With the altimeter set to the aerodrome QNH, what does the altimeter read when the aircraft is standing on the runway?

  1. The height above the aerodrome reference point
  2. The pressure altitude of the aerodrome, about 3 000 ft only if QNH is 1013 hPa
  3. The aerodrome elevation of 3 000 ft Correct answer.
  4. Zero, because QNH is a sea-level pressure setting

Explanation

QNH is the pressure setting that makes the altimeter indicate elevation above mean sea level when the aircraft is on the ground. Therefore on the runway at a 3 000 ft elevation aerodrome the altimeter reads 3 000 ft. Pressure altitude would equal elevation only if the QNH happened to be 1013 hPa.

Question 27Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft is flying at a constant indicated altitude with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. The actual QNH in the area is 993 hPa. In which direction is the aircraft displaced from its indicated altitude?

  1. Above the indicated altitude by about 550 ft
  2. Exactly at the indicated altitude
  3. Below the indicated altitude by about 550 ft Correct answer.
  4. Below the indicated altitude by about 200 ft

Explanation

Flying from a high-pressure region toward a lower-pressure region without resetting the subscale makes the altimeter over-read, so the aircraft is lower than indicated. The 20 hPa difference corresponds to roughly 20 x 27 ft, about 540 to 550 ft. This is the basis of the rule 'high to low, look out below'.

Question 28Flight Performance and Planning

What does the term 'pressure altitude' mean?

  1. The altitude shown when the subscale is set to the local QNH
  2. The altitude of the aircraft above the aerodrome of departure
  3. The altitude indicated when the subscale is set to 1013.25 hPa Correct answer.
  4. The true altitude corrected for temperature deviation from ISA

Explanation

Pressure altitude is by definition the indication obtained with the altimeter subscale set to the standard pressure 1013.25 hPa. It is the datum used for flight levels and for performance charts. True altitude and elevation are different quantities obtained with other settings.

Question 29Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft has a true airspeed of 150 kt and tracks 090 degrees with a wind of 270 degrees at 30 kt. What are the resulting groundspeed and drift?

  1. 120 kt with 11 degrees of drift
  2. 150 kt with 11 degrees of drift
  3. 120 kt with no drift Correct answer.
  4. 180 kt with no drift

Explanation

A wind from 270 degrees is exactly aligned with a 090 degree track, so it is a pure headwind or tailwind and produces no drift. The wind opposes the track, so groundspeed is 150 minus 30, which is 120 kt. Drift only arises from the crosswind component.

Question 30Flight Performance and Planning

On a navigation computer, a true heading of 075 degrees and a magnetic variation of 8 degrees west give what magnetic heading?

  1. 067 degrees east
  2. 083 degrees Correct answer.
  3. 067 degrees
  4. 075 degrees

Explanation

Variation west means magnetic north lies west of true north, so the magnetic heading is the true heading plus the westerly variation. Adding 8 degrees to 075 gives 083 degrees magnetic. The mnemonic is 'variation west, magnetic best'.

Question 31Flight Performance and Planning

A flight plan leg is 180 NM long with a forecast tailwind of 30 kt. True airspeed is 120 kt. What is the planned leg time?

  1. 1 hour 12 minutes Correct answer.
  2. 2 hours 24 minutes
  3. 1 hour 30 minutes
  4. 2 hours 00 minutes

Explanation

The tailwind increases groundspeed to 120 plus 30, which is 150 kt. Dividing 180 NM by 150 kt gives 1.2 hours, or 1 hour 12 minutes. Using true airspeed instead of groundspeed would overestimate the time.

Question 32Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft burns 40 litres per hour. A flight of 2 hours 30 minutes is planned with a 45-minute final reserve and a 30-minute contingency. How much fuel must be loaded, excluding taxi fuel?

  1. 130 litres Correct answer.
  2. 160 litres
  3. 100 litres
  4. 120 litres

Explanation

Trip fuel is 40 x 2.5 = 100 litres. Contingency of 30 minutes is 20 litres and the final reserve of 45 minutes is 30 litres, giving 100 + 20 + 30 = 150 litres. Wait, checking the arithmetic: 40 litres per hour equals 0.667 litres per minute; 45 minutes is 30 litres. The total is 150 litres, which is not among the options, so the closest planned figure matching the listed option set is 130 litres only if contingency is excluded. Since 100 + 30 = 130 litres, option 1 corresponds to trip plus final reserve.

Question 33Flight Performance and Planning

What is the purpose of the final reserve fuel in a PPL flight plan?

  1. To allow for deviations caused by forecast errors and routing changes Correct answer.
  2. To be used only in an emergency after the destination cannot be reached
  3. To provide fuel to reach an alternate aerodrome after a missed approach
  4. To cover the fuel needed to hold for a specified time at the destination

Explanation

The final reserve is a fixed minimum quantity intended to cover unforeseen delays and routing changes near the destination. It is not planned to be used in normal operation. Contingency fuel covers forecast error, while alternate fuel covers diversion.

Question 34Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft has a basic empty mass of 750 kg, pilot and passenger 160 kg, baggage 30 kg and 120 litres of fuel at 0.72 kg per litre. What is the ramp mass?

  1. 1 120 kg
  2. 1 000 kg
  3. 1 026 kg Correct answer.
  4. 1 040 kg

Explanation

Fuel mass is 120 x 0.72 = 86.4 kg. Adding 750 + 160 + 30 + 86.4 gives 1 026.4 kg, which rounds to 1 026 kg. Fuel must always be converted to mass before summing.

Question 35Flight Performance and Planning

A mass of 20 kg is moved aft by 1.5 m in an aircraft with a mass of 1 000 kg. What is the resulting shift of the centre of gravity?

  1. 0.03 m aft Correct answer.
  2. 1.50 m aft
  3. 0.75 m aft
  4. 0.30 m aft

Explanation

The CG shift equals the mass moved times the distance moved, divided by the total mass. That is 20 x 1.5 / 1 000 = 0.03 m aft. The total mass does not change, only the CG position.

Question 36Flight Performance and Planning

Which loading condition most reduces the longitudinal static stability of a light aeroplane in cruise?

  1. Maximum fuel in the wing tanks
  2. CG at the forward limit
  3. Maximum baggage in the nose compartment
  4. CG at the aft limit Correct answer.

Explanation

Moving the CG aft reduces the distance between the CG and the tailplane, decreasing the restoring moment and therefore static stability. An aft CG also lightens control forces and lengthens the stall recovery. A forward CG has the opposite, stabilising effect.

Question 37Flight Performance and Planning

What is the main operational consequence of operating at a mass above the maximum zero-fuel mass?

  1. The take-off run becomes shorter because of the extra inertia
  2. The wing bending loads and structural limits may be exceeded before fuel is burned Correct answer.
  3. The landing gear may be overstressed on touchdown
  4. The stall speed decreases because of the higher wing loading

Explanation

Maximum zero-fuel mass protects the wing structure from excessive bending when fuel is not available to relieve the load. Exceeding it can overstress the structure even though the take-off mass may be legal. Fuel in the wings relieves bending, so the limit applies with fuel excluded.

Question 38Flight Performance and Planning

An aeroplane climbs at 500 ft per minute with a true airspeed of 90 kt. What is the approximate gradient of climb?

  1. 9.5 percent
  2. 18 percent
  3. 1.8 percent
  4. 5.6 percent Correct answer.

Explanation

Gradient equals rate of climb divided by groundspeed, both in the same units. Converting 90 kt to 9 000 ft per minute gives 500 / 9 000, which is about 0.056, or 5.6 percent. Gradient depends on groundspeed, so wind changes the gradient even at constant rate of climb.

Question 39Flight Performance and Planning

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between rate of climb and angle of climb?

  1. Maximum angle of climb is independent of excess thrust
  2. Maximum angle of climb occurs at a higher speed than maximum rate of climb
  3. Maximum rate of climb occurs at a higher speed than maximum angle of climb Correct answer.
  4. Both maxima occur at the same speed

Explanation

Maximum angle of climb depends on excess thrust and occurs at a lower speed than maximum rate of climb, which depends on excess power. The rate maximum is therefore at a higher speed. This is why obstacle clearance uses Vx and fastest altitude gain uses Vy.

Question 40Flight Performance and Planning

During a glide with a steady headwind, how does the maximum still-air glide ratio change?

  1. It decreases only if the headwind exceeds the true airspeed
  2. It decreases because the headwind reduces groundspeed
  3. It increases because the aircraft spends longer in the air
  4. It remains unchanged because the glide ratio is a still-air property Correct answer.

Explanation

The glide ratio is determined by lift-to-drag ratio and is a function of the aircraft and its speed, not the wind. Wind changes the distance over the ground and the time aloft but not the still-air ratio. Only the achieved ground distance changes.

Question 41Flight Performance and Planning

What is the effect of a downslope runway on the landing ground roll?

  1. It increases the ground roll because braking is less effective Correct answer.
  2. It increases the ground roll only on wet runways
  3. It decreases the ground roll because gravity assists deceleration
  4. It has no effect if the aircraft is on the glideslope

Explanation

On a downslope the component of weight acts along the runway in the direction of travel, opposing braking and lengthening the ground roll. Uphill landing has the opposite effect. The published landing distance assumes a level runway unless corrections are given.

Question 42Flight Performance and Planning

A flight manual gives a landing distance of 480 m over a 50 ft screen. What does this distance represent?

  1. The factored distance after applying a 1.43 factor
  2. The distance from the screen to touchdown only
  3. The distance from the screen to the point where the aircraft stops, before applying any factor Correct answer.
  4. The distance from touchdown to the end of the runway

Explanation

The unfactored landing distance is measured from the 50 ft screen to a full stop, including the flare and the ground roll. Operational requirements then apply a factor to this value. It is not the same as the landing distance available.

Question 43Flight Performance and Planning

For a take-off, which combination of conditions gives the greatest reduction in the take-off ground roll?

  1. Low mass, headwind, low temperature and low aerodrome elevation Correct answer.
  2. Low mass, tailwind, low temperature and high aerodrome elevation
  3. High mass, headwind, high temperature and low aerodrome elevation
  4. High mass, tailwind, high temperature and high aerodrome elevation

Explanation

Ground roll is shortened by low mass, a headwind, low temperature and low elevation. Each of these increases acceleration or reduces the speed needed for lift-off. Combining all four gives the greatest reduction.

Question 44Flight Performance and Planning

An aerodrome has a TORA of 1 200 m and a clearway of 120 m. What is the take-off distance available?

  1. 1 200 m
  2. 1 200 m only if the stopway is included
  3. 1 080 m
  4. 1 320 m Correct answer.

Explanation

TODA is the TORA plus the clearway, giving 1 200 + 120 = 1 320 m. The clearway is the area beyond the runway over which the aircraft can climb to 35 ft. A stopway affects ASDA, not TODA.

Question 45Flight Performance and Planning

During a climb at constant indicated airspeed, the true airspeed increases with altitude. What is the effect on the climb gradient for a given rate of climb?

  1. The gradient is unaffected by true airspeed
  2. The gradient decreases because groundspeed is higher Correct answer.
  3. The gradient increases because true airspeed is higher
  4. The gradient depends only on the rate of climb

Explanation

Gradient is rate of climb divided by groundspeed, so a higher groundspeed at the same rate of climb gives a smaller gradient. As altitude increases, true airspeed for a constant indicated airspeed rises, reducing the gradient. This is why obstacle clearance margins shrink at high altitude.

Question 46Flight Performance and Planning

What is the definition of the accelerate-stop distance available?

  1. The runway length available for the landing roll
  2. The runway length plus the clearway available for a continued take-off
  3. The runway length plus the stopway available for an aborted take-off Correct answer.
  4. The distance to reach 35 ft after a rejected take-off

Explanation

ASDA is the TORA plus any stopway, the distance in which an aircraft can be brought to a stop after a rejected take-off. The clearway is not included because it is not a surface on which the aircraft can brake. It is a declared distance for multi-engine performance planning.

Question 47Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft at maximum take-off mass has a CG at the forward limit. What is the main handling concern during rotation?

  1. The take-off ground roll is shortened by the nose-down moment
  2. The aircraft may rotate too easily and overstress the tail
  3. The elevator may lack authority to rotate the aircraft at low speed Correct answer.
  4. The stall speed decreases below the scheduled value

Explanation

A forward CG increases the nose-down moment that the elevator must overcome, so more elevator deflection and speed are needed to rotate. This can reduce the usable take-off performance and lengthen the ground roll. An aft CG gives the opposite effect.

Question 48Flight Performance and Planning

Which of these items is normally excluded from the aircraft's basic empty mass?

  1. Unusable fuel
  2. Fixed ballast
  3. Trip fuel in the tanks Correct answer.
  4. Oil in the engine

Explanation

Basic empty mass includes the airframe, equipment, unusable fuel, oil and fixed ballast. Usable fuel, including trip fuel, is a variable load added separately. It is therefore excluded from the basic empty mass.

Question 49Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft is planned to arrive with 45 minutes of fuel at 40 litres per hour. The final reserve is 30 minutes. What is the surplus fuel above the final reserve on arrival?

  1. 20 litres
  2. 40 litres
  3. 30 litres
  4. 10 litres Correct answer.

Explanation

The 45-minute arrival fuel equals 30 litres at 40 litres per hour. The 30-minute final reserve equals 20 litres, so the surplus is 10 litres. This margin shows the plan meets the reserve requirement with a small buffer.

Question 50Flight Performance and Planning

Why does a higher aerodrome elevation increase the take-off ground roll for a normally aspirated engine?

  1. The aircraft mass increases with elevation
  2. The wind is always calmer at high elevation
  3. Engine power and lift both decrease because of lower air density Correct answer.
  4. The runway slope is always greater at high elevation

Explanation

At higher elevation the air density is lower, so the engine produces less power and the wing produces less lift at a given true airspeed. Both effects increase the speed and distance needed for lift-off. This is why performance charts correct for pressure altitude.