I85PREP
⌘ K
MO Esthetician study materials
MO Esthetician study resources

MO Esthetician practice questions

One question at a time. Build your MO Esthetician understanding.

First 50 of 199 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Which process removes most disease-producing microorganisms from a surface but does not reliably destroy bacterial spores?

  1. Sanitation
  2. Decontamination
  3. Disinfection Correct answer.
  4. Sterilization

Explanation

Disinfection destroys most pathogenic bacteria, fungi, and viruses on inanimate surfaces, but it does not reliably kill bacterial endospores. Sterilization is the only process that destroys all microbial life, including spores.

Question 2Infection control, sanitation, and safety

How long should you lather and scrub your hands with soap and water during routine handwashing?

  1. At least 20 seconds Correct answer.
  2. At least 5 seconds
  3. At least 2 minutes
  4. At least 45 seconds

Explanation

Standard hand hygiene guidance calls for lathering with soap and scrubbing all surfaces of the hands for at least 20 seconds, then rinsing and drying with a clean towel. Longer scrubs are reserved for settings such as surgical preparation.

Question 3Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Which item is porous and therefore cannot be reliably disinfected for reuse on another client?

  1. Unsealed wooden spatula Correct answer.
  2. Stainless steel spatula
  3. Hard plastic tray
  4. Glass mixing dish

Explanation

Porous materials such as unsealed wood, paper, and cotton absorb liquids and microorganisms into their structure, so disinfectant cannot reach all contaminated areas. Items that cannot be cleaned and disinfected must be used once and discarded.

Question 4Infection control, sanitation, and safety

What does an EPA-registered hospital disinfectant claim on a product label indicate?

  1. It requires no gloves or ventilation
  2. It sterilizes every implement in one minute
  3. It is FDA-approved for applying to skin
  4. It kills labeled germs on hard nonporous surfaces Correct answer.

Explanation

EPA registration with a hospital disinfectant claim means the maker submitted efficacy data showing the product kills specified organisms on inanimate, hard, nonporous surfaces when used exactly per label directions. It is not a skin-care approval, and it does not sterilize.

Question 5Infection control, sanitation, and safety

What is the correct hand-hygiene practice between clients?

  1. Rinse with water only when gloves were worn
  2. Wash before and after each client, even gloved Correct answer.
  3. Use sanitizer alone after removing gloves
  4. Wash only at the start and end of the day

Explanation

Hands must be washed with soap and water before and after every client because gloves can tear, slip, or be worn incorrectly and are never a substitute for handwashing. Alcohol-based sanitizer is a fallback only when hands are not visibly soiled and soap and water are unavailable.

Question 6Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Which item is intended for a single use and must be discarded after one client?

  1. Metal comedone extractor
  2. Cotton-tipped applicator Correct answer.
  3. Glass mixing bowl
  4. Reusable plastic spatula

Explanation

Cotton-tipped applicators and other porous, absorbent items cannot be cleaned and disinfected, so they are used once and thrown away. Nonporous metal, glass, and hard plastic implements are cleaned and disinfected for reuse.

Question 7Infection control, sanitation, and safety

How should implements be stored after they have been cleaned and disinfected?

  1. In a clean, covered container Correct answer.
  2. On an open tray beside the sink
  3. Submerged in disinfectant until the next client
  4. Loose in a drawer with used linens

Explanation

Disinfected implements must be kept in a clean, closed container or drawer so dust, moisture, and splashing cannot recontaminate them. Storage beside a sink or with soiled linens undoes the disinfection step.

Question 8Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Where should a used single-use razor blade be placed when you are finished with it?

  1. In a lined wastebasket
  2. In a sealed linen bag
  3. In a rigid sharps container Correct answer.
  4. In a recycling bin

Explanation

Sharp items that can puncture skin belong in a closable, puncture-resistant sharps container so that no one is stuck while handling or emptying trash. Bags and open bins allow the blade to pierce through and injure staff.

Question 9Infection control, sanitation, and safety

A disinfectant label states a contact time of 10 minutes. What does this require?

  1. The solution must be changed every 10 minutes
  2. Implements may be pulled out once debris loosens
  3. The product may be wiped off after 10 seconds
  4. Implements stay fully immersed for 10 minutes Correct answer.

Explanation

Contact time, also called dwell time, is the period an item must remain in full contact with the disinfectant at the label dilution for the product to achieve its claimed kill. Removing the item early leaves surviving organisms on the surface.

Question 10Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Quaternary ammonium compounds used in salons are best described as which type of product?

  1. A tuberculocidal sterilizer
  2. A skin antiseptic
  3. A low-level disinfectant cleaner Correct answer.
  4. An autoclave sterilant

Explanation

Quats are widely used low-level disinfectant cleaners that act against many bacteria and some viruses, but generally not against spores or mycobacteria. They are not sterilants, and they are not formulated for use on skin.

Question 11Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Which method destroys all microbial life, including bacterial spores, on metal implements?

  1. Soaking in 70 percent isopropyl alcohol
  2. Rinsing in hot running water
  3. Wiping with an antibacterial wipe
  4. Steam under pressure in an autoclave Correct answer.

Explanation

Sterilization in an autoclave uses pressurized steam to kill all microorganisms, including spores, on heat-tolerant metal tools. Alcohol and wipes are disinfectants at best, and hot rinsing only removes soil.

Question 12Infection control, sanitation, and safety

An esthetician uses a whirlpool foot spa. Which practice best prevents transmission of organisms such as Mycobacterium fortuitum?

  1. Drain the basin and wipe it dry between clients
  2. Rinse with hot water and let it air dry
  3. Clean residue, then disinfect basin and lines per label Correct answer.
  4. Add extra disinfectant to the soaking water

Explanation

Whirlpool basins and internal plumbing trap biofilm, moisture, and hardy organisms such as Mycobacterium fortuitum, so all surfaces and lines must first be cleaned of residue and then disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital disinfectant used per its label. A rinse or towel wipe does not meet the requirement.

Question 13Infection control, sanitation, and safety

How is a 10 percent household bleach solution prepared for disinfecting surfaces?

  1. 9 parts bleach to 1 part water
  2. 1 part bleach to 99 parts water
  3. 1 part bleach to 1 part water
  4. 1 part bleach to 9 parts water Correct answer.

Explanation

A 10 percent solution means one part household bleach mixed with nine parts water, which yields roughly 5,000 ppm available chlorine from 5.25 percent bleach. The solution is mixed fresh because chlorine loses strength as it sits.

Question 14Infection control, sanitation, and safety

What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) kept on file in the salon?

  1. Hazards, safe handling, and first aid Correct answer.
  2. Each client's treatment history
  3. Proof that the product is FDA approved
  4. The salon's cleaning schedule

Explanation

An SDS, required under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, summarizes a chemical's hazards, safe handling and storage practices, and emergency first-aid measures. Employees must be trained on the hazards and be able to access the sheets.

Question 15Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Which statement about hepatitis B virus is accurate?

  1. It is killed only by scrubbing floors with bleach
  2. It is caused by bacteria that grow in lotions
  3. It survives on surfaces and spreads through blood Correct answer.
  4. It spreads through casual contact such as hugging

Explanation

Hepatitis B is a bloodborne virus that can remain infectious on dried surfaces and implements for days and spreads through blood and other body fluids. Estheticians control it with gloves, careful sharps handling, disinfection of blood-contaminated items, and vaccination.

Question 16Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Why should disinfectants and skin or nail chemicals be used in a well-ventilated area?

  1. To reduce the need for gloves
  2. To limit inhalation of harmful vapors Correct answer.
  3. To make the products work faster
  4. To prevent the products from freezing

Explanation

Many salon chemicals release vapors that irritate the respiratory tract and can be harmful with repeated exposure, so fresh air or local exhaust reduces inhalation risk. Ventilation does not speed up product action or replace gloves and other protective equipment.

Question 17Infection control, sanitation, and safety

A client arrives for a facial with a visible cold sore on the lip. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Work around the area and finish the facial
  2. Double-glove and proceed with extractions
  3. Apply a disinfectant to the sore first
  4. Postpone and refer the client to a doctor Correct answer.

Explanation

A cold sore is an active herpes simplex infection and is contagious, so esthetic services are contraindicated because the virus can be spread to the client's eyes or to your hands and other clients. The service should be rescheduled until the lesion has completely healed.

Question 18Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Which condition is a contagious fungal infection that contraindicates an esthetic service?

  1. Tinea corporis Correct answer.
  2. Rosacea
  3. Seborrheic keratosis
  4. Melasma

Explanation

Tinea corporis, commonly called ringworm, is a contagious fungal skin infection, so the service is postponed and the client is referred to a physician. The other listed conditions are not infectious.

Question 19Infection control, sanitation, and safety

A disinfectant jar holds a cloudy solution with visible debris floating in it. What should you do?

  1. Discard it and refill with fresh solution Correct answer.
  2. Add extra concentrate to strengthen it
  3. Strain out the debris and continue using it
  4. Top off the jar with fresh disinfectant

Explanation

Visible soil shows the solution is contaminated, and the organic load can deplete the active ingredient so that the label claim is no longer reliable. Empty and clean the jar, then refill with disinfectant mixed fresh at the label dilution.

Question 20Infection control, sanitation, and safety

How should reusable makeup brushes be handled between clients?

  1. Wiped on a paper towel only
  2. Spritzed with water and reused
  3. Stored with clean brushes in the same closed case
  4. Cleaned, disinfected, and dried before reuse Correct answer.

Explanation

Brushes contact skin and product, so they must be washed with soap and water, disinfected with a product appropriate for the material, and dried fully before reuse or storage. Porous applicators such as mascara wands are single-use.

Question 21Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Why is it a problem to dip the same spatula back into a product jar after it has touched a client's skin?

  1. It transfers skin organisms into the product Correct answer.
  2. It makes the product evaporate faster
  3. It changes the product's color over time
  4. It causes the jar lid to seal too tightly

Explanation

Double-dipping introduces bacteria and other contaminants from the skin into the container, where they can multiply and be spread to later clients. Use a clean spatula each time or a single-use applicator to remove product from the jar.

Question 22Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Under OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, what must an employer provide to employees?

  1. Client records kept in a locked file
  2. A new uniform every month
  3. Bloodborne pathogen training and PPE at no cost Correct answer.
  4. Annual flu shots for every employee

Explanation

The standard requires employers to provide bloodborne pathogen training at hiring and annually, to offer hepatitis B vaccination, and to supply personal protective equipment such as gloves at no charge to employees. Flu shots and uniforms are not part of this requirement.

Question 23Infection control, sanitation, and safety

A metal extractor has visible sebum on it after a facial. What is the correct order of steps to make it safe for reuse?

  1. Wash, dry, then immerse fully in disinfectant Correct answer.
  2. Rinse with water and place it in a covered container
  3. Disinfect it, then wash and dry it
  4. Store it wet and disinfect it at day's end

Explanation

Implements must be cleaned free of all residue and dried before immersion, because organic matter and residual water dilute the disinfectant and shield microorganisms. Only after complete immersion for the label contact time is the item considered disinfected and ready for clean storage.

Question 24Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Why must an implement be scrubbed free of all debris before it is soaked in a disinfectant?

  1. Debris makes the tool heavier to handle
  2. Residue shields microbes and dilutes the product Correct answer.
  3. Debris makes the tool rust more quickly
  4. Debris makes the disinfectant smell stronger

Explanation

Blood, sebum, and product residue form a barrier that protects microorganisms and chemically interferes with the disinfectant, so the label claim cannot be met. Cleaning is always the required first step before any disinfection step.

Question 25Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Why is a tuberculocidal hospital disinfectant specified for implements contaminated with blood?

  1. It is the only type sold in gallon containers
  2. It sterilizes the implement for surgical use
  3. It kills a hardy organism used as a benchmark Correct answer.
  4. It works faster than any other class of disinfectant

Explanation

Tuberculocidal products have demonstrated the ability to kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis, one of the more resistant vegetative organisms, and that claim is used as a benchmark indicating activity against bloodborne pathogens such as hepatitis B. Such a product is still a disinfectant, not a sterilant.

Question 26Infection control, sanitation, and safety

According to standard infection-control practice, when should an esthetician wash their hands with soap and warm water?

  1. Only when arriving at the salon at the start of the day
  2. Only when the hands are visibly soiled
  3. Only after handling blood or visible body fluids
  4. Before and after contact with each client Correct answer.

Explanation

Hand hygiene is performed before and after every client contact, even when gloves are worn, because gloves are not a substitute for washing and can fail or be torn. Routine handwashing removes transient organisms picked up from clients, tools, and surfaces. Visible soil calls for washing immediately as well, but it is not the only trigger.

Question 27Infection control, sanitation, and safety

Which federal agency registers disinfectants and requires that their labels state the product's claims, dilution, and directions for use?

  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
  3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  4. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Correct answer.

Explanation

Disinfectants are pesticides regulated under federal law, and the EPA registers them and approves the label language, including efficacy claims and use directions. Salon practice requires following that label exactly. Other agencies play different roles in workplace safety, cosmetics, or public health guidance.

Question 28Infection control, sanitation, and safety

While performing extractions, an esthetician notices that one glove has torn at the fingertip. What is the correct action?

  1. Wipe the torn area with disinfectant and keep working
  2. Continue the service and change gloves once the service is finished
  3. Remove both gloves, wash hands, and put on a new pair of gloves Correct answer.
  4. Pull a second glove over the torn glove and continue

Explanation

A torn glove no longer provides a barrier, so it must be replaced immediately to protect both the client and the esthetician. Gloves are removed, hands are washed, and a fresh pair is donned before service resumes. Disinfectants are not for use on the skin and do not restore a damaged glove.

Question 29Infection control, sanitation, and safety

After a facial, how should the soiled linens and towels be handled?

  1. Keep them in an open hamper in the treatment room until the day ends
  2. Fold and reuse them for the next client if they look clean
  3. Place them in a closed receptacle and launder them before reuse Correct answer.
  4. Shake them over the sink to loosen product residue before laundering

Explanation

Soiled linens are a reservoir for organisms and must be contained and then laundered before any reuse. Holding them in a closed receptacle prevents contamination of the room and of clean supplies. Shaking or reusing them spreads contamination.

Question 30Infection control, sanitation, and safety

An esthetician pours a small amount of disinfectant concentrate into a spray bottle and tops it off with tap water, estimating the ratio. Which statement best explains why this practice is unsafe?

  1. The product becomes a sterilant and needs a shorter contact time
  2. Water inactivates every type of disinfectant chemical on contact
  3. Organisms may survive because the dilution is below label strength Correct answer.
  4. The mixture will evaporate too quickly to be effective on surfaces

Explanation

A disinfectant is only proven effective at the concentration and contact time printed on its registered label, so guessing at the ratio can leave the solution too weak to kill organisms. Over-dilution gives a false sense of safety while implements and surfaces remain contaminated. Only the manufacturer's stated dilution should be used.

Question 31Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which layer of the epidermis is the outermost, consisting of flattened, dead keratinized cells?

  1. Stratum basale
  2. Stratum granulosum
  3. Stratum spinosum
  4. Stratum corneum Correct answer.

Explanation

The stratum corneum is the surface layer of the epidermis, made of fully keratinized, flattened cells that are continually shed. The other strata lie deeper, with the stratum basale at the base of the epidermis.

Question 32Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

The tough, fibrous protein that makes up the bulk of the epidermis and helps make skin water-resistant is:

  1. Collagen
  2. Keratin Correct answer.
  3. Melanin
  4. Elastin

Explanation

Keratinocytes accumulate keratin as they mature, and keratin gives the epidermis its toughness and resistance to water loss. Collagen and elastin are dermal proteins that provide support and recoil rather than filling epidermal cells.

Question 33Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which cells produce the pigment that determines skin color?

  1. Melanocytes Correct answer.
  2. Fibroblasts
  3. Keratinocytes
  4. Langerhans cells

Explanation

Melanocytes in the stratum basale synthesize melanin and pass it to surrounding keratinocytes, which determines visible skin color. Fibroblasts build dermal fibers and Langerhans cells are part of local immunity.

Question 34Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

The layer of skin often called the 'true skin', containing blood vessels, nerves, glands, and hair follicles, is the:

  1. Subcutaneous layer
  2. Dermis Correct answer.
  3. Epidermis
  4. Stratum corneum

Explanation

The dermis lies beneath the epidermis and houses the skin's vasculature, nerve endings, glands, and hair follicles. The epidermis is avascular and the subcutaneous layer is mainly fat and connective tissue.

Question 35Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which type of tissue predominates in the subcutaneous (hypodermal) layer and provides insulation and cushioning?

  1. Adipose tissue Correct answer.
  2. Nervous tissue
  3. Cartilage
  4. Epithelial tissue

Explanation

The hypodermis is composed mainly of adipose (fat) tissue, which insulates the body, cushions underlying structures, and stores energy. Epithelium forms the epidermis and gland linings rather than the fat layer.

Question 36Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Sweat glands found over most of the body surface that open directly onto the skin are called:

  1. Apocrine glands
  2. Eccrine glands Correct answer.
  3. Ceruminous glands
  4. Sebaceous glands

Explanation

Eccrine glands are the most numerous sweat glands, and their ducts open directly at the skin surface to release a watery secretion. Apocrine glands empty into hair follicles, sebaceous glands produce oil, and ceruminous glands produce earwax.

Question 37Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

The surface of healthy skin is best described as:

  1. Slightly acidic, pH 4.5 to 5.5 Correct answer.
  2. Strongly acidic, about pH 2
  3. Neutral, about pH 7
  4. Strongly alkaline, about pH 9

Explanation

The acid mantle is a slightly acidic film of sebum and sweat with a pH of roughly 4.5 to 5.5, which discourages bacteria and supports barrier enzymes. Neutral or alkaline values weaken this protective function.

Question 38Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which epidermal layer contains the continuously dividing cells that replace the epidermis?

  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Stratum basale Correct answer.
  3. Stratum granulosum
  4. Stratum lucidum

Explanation

Mitosis occurs in the stratum basale, the deepest epidermal layer, and the new cells migrate upward as older cells are shed. The upper strata hold cells that are already differentiating or dead.

Question 39Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Melanocytes deliver melanin to neighboring keratinocytes by transferring:

  1. Melanosomes Correct answer.
  2. Desmosomes
  3. Sebum
  4. Lysosomes

Explanation

Melanin is packaged into melanosomes, which pass from melanocyte extensions into keratinocytes. Desmosomes are attachment junctions and sebum is a glandular secretion.

Question 40Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

The process in which keratinocytes move upward, fill with keratin, and eventually die and flake away is called:

  1. Keratinization Correct answer.
  2. Melanogenesis
  3. Secretion
  4. Vasodilation

Explanation

Keratinization, or cornification, is the maturation process in which cells accumulate keratin and lose their nuclei as they rise through the epidermis. Melanogenesis is pigment production and vasodilation is widening of blood vessels.

Question 41Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Keratinocytes synthesize vitamin D when the skin is exposed to:

  1. UVB radiation Correct answer.
  2. Infrared rays
  3. UVA radiation
  4. Visible green light

Explanation

UVB converts 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin to previtamin D3, which the body later activates. UVA penetrates more deeply but is not the main driver of vitamin D synthesis.

Question 42Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

An increase in androgen (male hormone) levels most commonly affects the skin by:

  1. Decreasing blood flow to the dermis
  2. Thinning the stratum corneum
  3. Reducing melanin production
  4. Increasing sebum secretion Correct answer.

Explanation

Androgens stimulate sebaceous glands to enlarge and produce more sebum, which is why oiliness and acne often increase at puberty. Estrogen tends to have the opposite effect on sebum output.

Question 43Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which facial bone forms the forehead and the roof of the eye sockets?

  1. Maxilla
  2. Mandible
  3. Zygomatic bone
  4. Frontal bone Correct answer.

Explanation

The frontal bone forms the forehead and the upper orbital rims. The zygomatic bone forms the cheekbone, the maxilla forms the upper jaw, and the mandible forms the lower jaw.

Question 44Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which muscle raises the eyebrows and produces horizontal wrinkles across the forehead?

  1. Frontalis Correct answer.
  2. Platysma
  3. Masseter
  4. Orbicularis oculi

Explanation

The frontalis runs over the forehead and lifts the brows, creating horizontal lines. The orbicularis oculi closes the eyelid and the masseter elevates the jaw during chewing.

Question 45Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which cranial nerve supplies motor control to most of the muscles of facial expression?

  1. Optic nerve (II)
  2. Facial nerve (VII) Correct answer.
  3. Trigeminal nerve (V)
  4. Vagus nerve (X)

Explanation

The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression. The trigeminal nerve is mainly sensory for the face and motor for the chewing muscles.

Question 46Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which receptors located in the dermal papillae are responsible for the sense of light touch?

  1. Meissner's corpuscles Correct answer.
  2. Krause end bulbs
  3. Ruffini endings
  4. Pacinian corpuscles

Explanation

Meissner's corpuscles sit in the dermal papillae and detect light, discriminative touch. Pacinian corpuscles lie deeper and respond to pressure and vibration, while Ruffini endings detect sustained stretch.

Question 47Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Sebum produced by sebaceous glands is secreted into:

  1. An eccrine duct
  2. The hair follicle Correct answer.
  3. A lymph vessel
  4. The dermal blood supply

Explanation

Sebaceous glands are holocrine glands whose ducts empty into hair follicles, coating the hair and skin surface with oil. Eccrine ducts, blood vessels, and lymphatics do not carry sebum.

Question 48Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which layer of the dermis lies directly beneath the epidermis and forms the dermal papillae?

  1. Papillary layer Correct answer.
  2. Reticular layer
  3. Stratum spinosum
  4. Hypodermis

Explanation

The papillary layer is the thin upper dermis whose projections, the dermal papillae, interlock with the epidermis. The reticular layer is the deeper, denser portion of the dermis.

Question 49Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

Which sequence lists epidermal layers from deepest to most superficial?

  1. Stratum spinosum, stratum basale, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum
  2. Stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum corneum
  3. Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum Correct answer.
  4. Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

Explanation

New cells form in the stratum basale and move upward through the spinosum and granulosum before reaching the dead stratum corneum. In thick skin a stratum lucidum sits between the granulosum and corneum.

Question 50Anatomy and physiology of the skin and body systems

How do apocrine sweat glands differ from eccrine glands?

  1. They secrete mostly water with little organic material
  2. They empty into hair follicles and mature at puberty Correct answer.
  3. They open directly onto the skin surface
  4. They are most numerous on the palms and soles

Explanation

Apocrine glands are confined to areas such as the axillae and groin, empty into hair follicles, and become active at puberty; their organic-rich secretion is broken down by bacteria into odor. Eccrine glands open directly onto the skin and are densest on the palms and soles.