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MT POST practice questions

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Question 1Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient's chart lists a blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg. Which term describes the 88 mmHg value?

  1. Diastolic pressure Correct answer.
  2. Systolic pressure
  3. Mean arterial pressure
  4. Pulse pressure

Explanation

Blood pressure is recorded as systolic over diastolic. The diastolic value is the lower number, representing arterial pressure during ventricular relaxation, so 88 mmHg is the diastolic reading.

Question 2Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which prefix appears in the term 'bradycardia' and correctly indicates its meaning?

  1. a-, meaning without
  2. hyper-, meaning excessive
  3. tachy-, meaning fast
  4. brady-, meaning slow Correct answer.

Explanation

The combining form brady- denotes slowness, so bradycardia means an abnormally slow heart rate. Tachy- is its opposite and would form tachycardia.

Question 3Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A surgical report states that a procedure was performed on the 'hepatic' region. Which organ does this describe?

  1. Stomach
  2. Liver Correct answer.
  3. Spleen
  4. Kidney

Explanation

The combining form hepat- refers to the liver, so hepatic means pertaining to the liver. Renal refers to the kidney, splenic to the spleen, and gastric to the stomach.

Question 4Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which abbreviation on a medication order indicates that the drug should be given by mouth?

  1. IV
  2. IM
  3. PO Correct answer.
  4. PR

Explanation

PO comes from the Latin per os, meaning by mouth, and is the standard abbreviation for oral administration. PR means per rectum, IV means intravenous, and IM means intramuscular.

Question 5Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which suffix converts a word root into a term meaning 'inflammation of' that structure?

  1. -oma
  2. -pathy
  3. -ectomy
  4. -itis Correct answer.

Explanation

The suffix -itis denotes inflammation, as in hepatitis (inflammation of the liver). The other suffixes indicate removal, tumor, and disease respectively.

Question 6Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

The term 'dyspnea' is best defined as which of the following?

  1. Coughing up blood
  2. Difficult or labored breathing Correct answer.
  3. Absence of breathing
  4. Rapid deep breathing

Explanation

The prefix dys- means difficult or abnormal and -pnea means breathing, so dyspnea is difficult or labored breathing. Absence of breathing is apnea, and coughing blood is hemoptysis.

Question 7Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A term describing a structure as 'distal' indicates which relationship?

  1. Farther from the point of attachment or origin Correct answer.
  2. Toward the head end of the body
  3. Closer to the midline of the body
  4. On the same side of the body

Explanation

Distal means farther from the trunk or point of origin, as the hand is distal to the elbow. Its opposite is proximal, which means closer to the point of attachment.

Question 8Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which abbreviation on a laboratory report indicates the hematocrit value?

  1. Hgb
  2. WBC
  3. Hct Correct answer.
  4. Plt

Explanation

Hct is the standard abbreviation for hematocrit, the percentage of blood volume occupied by red cells. Hgb refers to hemoglobin, WBC to white blood cells, and Plt to platelets.

Question 9Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient is described as having 'tachycardia and tachypnea.' Which pair of findings does this describe?

  1. Irregular heart rate and deep breathing
  2. Fast heart rate and slow breathing
  3. Slow heart rate and shallow breathing
  4. Fast heart rate and fast breathing Correct answer.

Explanation

The prefix tachy- means fast, so tachycardia is a rapid heart rate and tachypnea is rapid breathing. The two terms together describe fast heart rate with fast respiratory rate.

Question 10Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient's chart notes 'hematuria.' Which finding should the clinician expect?

  1. Glucose in the urine
  2. Pus in the urine
  3. Protein in the urine
  4. Blood in the urine Correct answer.

Explanation

The combining form hemat- or hem- means blood and -uria means urine condition, so hematuria is blood in the urine. Glycosuria, proteinuria, and pyuria describe other abnormal urine constituents.

Question 11Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A term ending in '-plegia,' as in paraplegia, indicates which condition?

  1. Weakness
  2. Paralysis Correct answer.
  3. Inflammation
  4. Pain

Explanation

The suffix -plegia means paralysis, so paraplegia refers to paralysis of the lower half of the body. Weakness is -paresis, pain is -algia, and inflammation is -itis.

Question 12Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which combining form would be used to build a term meaning 'pertaining to the heart muscle'?

  1. cardi/o
  2. angi/o
  3. ather/o
  4. my/o Correct answer.

Explanation

My/o means muscle, so myocardium refers to the heart muscle. Cardi/o means heart generally, angi/o means vessel, and ather/o means fatty plaque.

Question 13Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A report describes a patient as 'febrile.' Which clinical finding does this indicate?

  1. Elevated heart rate
  2. Low blood pressure
  3. Absence of fever
  4. Presence of fever Correct answer.

Explanation

The word root febr- refers to fever, so febrile means feverish. Its antonym is afebrile, meaning without fever.

Question 14Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which abbreviation on a chart indicates that a medication is to be given 'as needed'?

  1. NPO
  2. BID
  3. QID
  4. PRN Correct answer.

Explanation

PRN comes from the Latin pro re nata, meaning as circumstances require, and directs as-needed dosing. NPO means nothing by mouth, BID means twice daily, and QID means four times daily.

Question 15Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

The anatomical plane that divides the body into right and left portions is called which of the following?

  1. Oblique plane
  2. Transverse plane
  3. Frontal plane
  4. Sagittal plane Correct answer.

Explanation

A sagittal plane divides the body into right and left portions; a midsagittal plane divides it into equal halves. The frontal plane separates anterior from posterior, and the transverse plane separates superior from inferior.

Question 16Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient is diagnosed with 'gastritis.' Which structure is inflamed?

  1. Esophagus
  2. Large intestine
  3. Stomach lining Correct answer.
  4. Gallbladder

Explanation

The combining form gastr- refers to the stomach, so gastritis is inflammation of the stomach, typically its mucosal lining. Colitis, esophagitis, and cholecystitis refer to other organs.

Question 17Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which term describes a substance that kills bacteria?

  1. Bacteriuria
  2. Bactericidal Correct answer.
  3. Bacteriostatic
  4. Bacteremia

Explanation

The suffix -cidal means killing, so bactericidal agents destroy bacteria. The suffix -static means inhibiting growth, and the other terms refer to bacteria in blood or urine.

Question 18Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A chart entry reads 'myocardial infarction.' Based on its components, which description is most accurate?

  1. Narrowing of a heart valve
  2. Inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart
  3. Rapid fluttering of the atria
  4. Death of heart muscle tissue due to interrupted blood supply Correct answer.

Explanation

My/o means muscle, cardi/o means heart, and -al means pertaining to; infarction refers to tissue death from ischemia. Together the term denotes necrosis of heart muscle from loss of blood supply.

Question 19Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A term formed with the suffix '-scopy' describes which type of procedure?

  1. Surgical removal of tissue
  2. Recording of electrical activity
  3. Visual examination using an instrument Correct answer.
  4. Creation of an artificial opening

Explanation

The suffix -scopy means visual examination with an instrument, as in endoscopy. Removal is -ectomy, artificial opening is -ostomy, and electrical recording is -graphy.

Question 20Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient's lab result shows an elevated 'BUN.' What does this abbreviation measure?

  1. Bilateral urinary nitrogen
  2. Basal urea neutralization
  3. Blood urea nitrogen Correct answer.
  4. Blood uric nitrogen

Explanation

BUN stands for blood urea nitrogen, a measure of urea nitrogen in the blood used to assess kidney function. The other expansions are fabricated and do not correspond to a standard laboratory test.

Question 21Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which pair of terms correctly matches a combining form with its meaning?

  1. pneum/o - stomach
  2. hepat/o - spleen
  3. oste/o - nerve
  4. nephr/o - kidney Correct answer.

Explanation

Nephr/o means kidney, as in nephritis. The other pairings are mismatched: hepat/o is liver, pneum/o is lung or air, and oste/o is bone.

Question 22Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient with 'hyperkalemia' has an abnormal level of which electrolyte?

  1. Sodium
  2. Potassium Correct answer.
  3. Calcium
  4. Chloride

Explanation

The combining form kal/i refers to potassium, so hyperkalemia means elevated blood potassium. Calcium is calc/i, sodium is natr/i, and chloride is chlor/i.

Question 23Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

In the term 'electrocardiogram,' what does the suffix '-gram' indicate?

  1. A process of recording
  2. An instrument for measuring
  3. A record or tracing Correct answer.
  4. A specialist in a field

Explanation

The suffix -gram means a record or tracing, so an electrocardiogram is the tracing of cardiac electrical activity. The instrument is indicated by -graph, the process by -graphy, and the specialist by -logist.

Question 24Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A chart entry reads 'postprandial glucose.' Which timing does this describe?

  1. Measured during fasting
  2. Measured after a meal Correct answer.
  3. Measured at bedtime
  4. Measured before breakfast

Explanation

The prefix post- means after and prandial refers to a meal, so postprandial glucose is measured after eating. Fasting glucose is measured after a period without food.

Question 25Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A term combining 'nephr/o,' '-ectomy,' and the suffix meaning 'pertaining to' would describe which procedure?

  1. Surgical removal of a kidney Correct answer.
  2. Surgical repair of a kidney
  3. Visual examination of a kidney
  4. Incision into a kidney

Explanation

Nephr/o means kidney and -ectomy means surgical removal, forming nephrectomy, removal of a kidney. Incision is -tomy, repair is -plasty, and visual examination is -scopy.

Question 26Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which combining form refers to the lungs?

  1. pneumon/o Correct answer.
  2. pleur/o
  3. phren/o
  4. pulmon/o

Explanation

The combining form pneumon/o denotes the lung itself, as seen in pneumonectomy and pneumonitis. It is the standard root used when the term refers to lung tissue rather than the pleura or the diaphragm.

Question 27Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A term built from 'cyan/o' and the suffix '-osis' describes which clinical finding?

  1. A bluish discoloration of the skin Correct answer.
  2. A benign fatty tumor
  3. An abnormal enlargement of the liver
  4. A deficiency of red blood cells

Explanation

Cyan/o means blue, and -osis denotes an abnormal condition, so cyanosis is the bluish discoloration of skin and mucous membranes caused by deoxygenated hemoglobin. The other options correspond to entirely different roots and suffixes.

Question 28Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient is scheduled for a procedure in which a flexible instrument is passed to visualize the interior of the colon. Which term names this procedure?

  1. Colonoscopy Correct answer.
  2. Colectomy
  3. Colitis
  4. Colostomy

Explanation

The suffix -scopy means visual examination with an instrument, so colonoscopy is the endoscopic inspection of the colon. Each of the other options uses a different suffix that changes the meaning to removal, creation of an opening, or inflammation.

Question 29Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which abbreviation on a medication order directs that a drug be administered by mouth?

  1. NPO
  2. IM
  3. PO Correct answer.
  4. PR

Explanation

PO is the standard abbreviation for per os, meaning by mouth, and is the usual route designation for oral medications. The other abbreviations specify nothing by mouth, rectal, and intramuscular routes respectively.

Question 30Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A term uses the prefix 'hypo-' with the root 'glyc/o' and the suffix '-emia.' Which condition does this term describe?

  1. Low blood sodium
  2. Elevated blood calcium
  3. Low blood glucose Correct answer.
  4. Elevated blood glucose

Explanation

Hypo- means below normal, glyc/o means sugar or glucose, and -emia means blood condition, so hypoglycemia is abnormally low blood glucose. The prefix and root must both be read to avoid confusing this with other blood-chemistry terms.

Question 31Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient's report states that the pain is 'epigastric.' Where is this pain located?

  1. In the right lower quadrant
  2. Behind the sternum
  3. Above the stomach region, in the upper central abdomen Correct answer.
  4. Below the ribs on the left side

Explanation

The prefix epi- means above or upon, and gastr/o refers to the stomach, so epigastric describes the upper central abdominal area over the stomach. It is a surface-anatomy region term, not a description of deep organ position.

Question 32Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A pathology report describes a tumor as 'metastatic.' What does this indicate about the tumor?

  1. It has spread to a secondary site Correct answer.
  2. It is composed of benign glandular cells
  3. It has been completely excised
  4. It is confined to its site of origin

Explanation

Meta- means beyond or change, and -static relates to a fixed position, so metastatic describes a neoplasm that has spread from its primary site to distant secondary sites. This distinguishes it from a localized or in situ lesion.

Question 33Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient's record lists 'dysuria.' Which finding does this term describe?

  1. Increased frequency of urination at night
  2. Blood in the urine
  3. Absence of urine output
  4. Painful or difficult urination Correct answer.

Explanation

The prefix dys- means difficult or painful, and -uria refers to urination or urine condition, so dysuria denotes painful or difficult voiding. It is distinct from terms describing volume, timing, or blood content of urine.

Question 34Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

Which term correctly names inflammation of the membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord?

  1. Neuritis
  2. Encephalitis
  3. Meningitis Correct answer.
  4. Myelitis

Explanation

Mening/o refers to the meninges, the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord, and -itis means inflammation, so meningitis is inflammation of those membranes. The other options name inflammation of the spinal cord, brain, or nerve respectively.

Question 35Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient is described as having 'bradycardia.' How is this finding characterized?

  1. A heart rate slower than normal Correct answer.
  2. An irregular cardiac rhythm
  3. A heart rate faster than normal
  4. Absence of a palpable pulse

Explanation

Brady- means slow, and -cardia refers to heart rate or condition of the heart, so bradycardia is a heart rate below the normal range. The prefix distinguishes it from the term for a rapid rate.

Question 36Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A physician's note reads 'hepatomegaly with splenomegaly.' Which pair of findings does this describe?

  1. Inflammation of the liver and spleen
  2. Enlargement of the liver and spleen Correct answer.
  3. Tumors of the liver and spleen
  4. Removal of the liver and spleen

Explanation

The suffix -megaly means enlargement, so hepatomegaly and splenomegaly together indicate an enlarged liver and an enlarged spleen. The roots hepat/o and splen/o identify the organs while the shared suffix supplies the meaning of enlargement.

Question 37Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A term is constructed as 'intra-' plus 'ven/o' plus '-ous.' What does this term mean?

  1. Pertaining to between two veins
  2. Pertaining to an inflamed vein
  3. Pertaining to around a vein
  4. Pertaining to within a vein Correct answer.

Explanation

Intra- means within, ven/o means vein, and -ous means pertaining to, so intravenous means pertaining to within a vein. Each affix contributes a distinct positional or descriptive meaning that must be read together.

Question 38Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A chart entry reads 'the patient is afebrile, with normotensive vital signs.' Which interpretation is most accurate?

  1. The patient has a low-grade fever and normal blood pressure
  2. The patient has no fever and low blood pressure
  3. The patient has no fever and blood pressure within normal limits Correct answer.
  4. The patient has a fever and elevated blood pressure

Explanation

The prefix a- negates fever, so afebrile means without fever, while normo- means normal and -tensive refers to pressure, giving normotensive for normal blood pressure. Both terms must be interpreted independently to reach the combined meaning.

Question 39Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A patient has 'hyperthyroidism.' Which description best matches the meaning of this term?

  1. Deficient function of the thyroid gland
  2. Inflammation of the thyroid gland
  3. Excessive function of the thyroid gland Correct answer.
  4. Enlargement of the thyroid gland

Explanation

Hyper- means excessive, and -ism denotes a condition or state, so hyperthyroidism is a state of excessive thyroid gland activity. The prefix carries the key distinction from the opposite condition, hypothyroidism.

Question 40Medical Terminology and Basic Sciences

A term is built with 'gastr/o,' '-enter/o,' and '-logy.' Which description matches this term?

  1. Surgical repair of the stomach and intestine
  2. A record of stomach and intestinal activity
  3. The study of the stomach and intestines Correct answer.
  4. Inflammation of the stomach and intestines

Explanation

Gastr/o and enter/o identify the stomach and intestines, and -logy means study of, so gastroenterology is the study of those organs. The suffix alone determines whether the term names a study, a repair, an inflammation, or a record.

Question 41Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

A serum sample arrives in the laboratory with the requisition slip but no barcode label on the tube. What is the correct initial action according to standard specimen accessioning practice?

  1. Label the tube from the requisition and proceed
  2. Place the tube in a holding rack until the end of the shift
  3. Run the test and document the discrepancy afterward
  4. Reject the specimen and request a properly labeled redraw Correct answer.

Explanation

Specimen identity is part of the analytical result, so an unlabeled tube cannot be reliably linked to a patient and must be rejected. Standard accessioning practice requires a unique, traceable label at the point of collection, and relabeling in the laboratory breaks that chain. The requesting clinician should be notified so a new specimen can be collected.

Question 42Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

Which anticoagulant tube additive works by binding calcium ions, thereby stopping the coagulation cascade in a collected blood specimen?

  1. Sodium heparin
  2. Sodium citrate
  3. Lithium heparin
  4. Potassium EDTA Correct answer.

Explanation

EDTA chelates calcium ions, and because calcium is a required cofactor at several steps of the coagulation cascade, removing it prevents clotting. This is why EDTA tubes are used for hematology testing such as complete blood counts. Heparin inhibits through antithrombin rather than calcium binding, and citrate also chelates calcium but is used at a fixed ratio for coagulation testing.

Question 43Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

A phlebotomist fills a sodium citrate coagulation tube only halfway. What is the most likely effect on the prothrombin time result?

  1. The result will be falsely shortened
  2. The result will be falsely prolonged Correct answer.
  3. The sample will clot in the tube
  4. The result will be unaffected

Explanation

Citrate tubes are calibrated for a 9:1 blood-to-anticoagulant ratio, so underfilling leaves excess citrate relative to plasma. The surplus citrate binds additional calcium during recalcification in the assay, slowing clot formation and falsely prolonging clotting times. Proper fill volume is therefore essential for coagulation testing.

Question 44Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

A laboratory receives a 24-hour urine collection. Which check best confirms that the collection is complete before analysis?

  1. Verifying the collection start and stop times on the requisition
  2. Confirming the container volume matches the recorded 24-hour total
  3. Checking that the container was refrigerated during collection
  4. Measuring the specimen creatinine content against an expected range Correct answer.

Explanation

Comparing measured 24-hour creatinine excretion with an expected range appropriate to the person's characteristics is the strongest listed check for collection completeness. It can flag possible under- or over-collection. Documented times alone cannot reveal a missed void, and creatinine remains a screening measure rather than absolute proof.

Question 45Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

Which specimen type is generally unacceptable for routine bacterial culture because it is heavily contaminated with normal commensal flora?

  1. Midstream clean-catch urine
  2. Sterile body fluid
  3. Venous blood
  4. Expectorated sputum Correct answer.

Explanation

Expectorated sputum passes through the mouth and is mixed with oral flora, so culture results must be interpreted with Gram stain screening for squamous epithelial cells. Blood, sterile body fluids, and properly collected midstream urine are obtained in ways that limit commensal contamination. This distinction guides whether a culture result reflects a pathogen or normal flora.

Question 46Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

A blood gas syringe is collected for arterial blood gas analysis. Which handling step is most important immediately after collection?

  1. Freeze the syringe to halt metabolism
  2. Expel all air bubbles and cap the syringe Correct answer.
  3. Add anticoagulant by inverting with EDTA
  4. Store the syringe at room temperature for one hour

Explanation

Air bubbles in an arterial blood gas sample equilibrate with the blood and alter the measured oxygen and carbon dioxide values. Expelling bubbles promptly and capping the syringe preserves the gas tensions. The sample should then be analyzed quickly or placed on ice per local policy.

Question 47Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

Which practice best prevents hemolysis during venipuncture?

  1. Vigorously shaking the tube after collection
  2. Drawing from a site distal to an IV line
  3. Allowing the alcohol antiseptic to dry before puncture Correct answer.
  4. Using a small-gauge needle with rapid aspiration

Explanation

Residual alcohol on the skin can cause hemolysis when it contacts the specimen, so the antiseptic should be allowed to air dry before puncture. Hemolysis also increases with small-bore needles, excessive suction, and rough handling of tubes. Gentle technique preserves red cell integrity.

Question 48Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

A specimen for serum chemistry is collected in a serum separator tube. What is the correct post-collection step before centrifugation?

  1. Allow the blood to clot completely at room temperature Correct answer.
  2. Centrifuge immediately while the blood is still liquid
  3. Place the tube on ice to accelerate clotting
  4. Add thrombin and shake vigorously

Explanation

Serum tubes require complete clot formation before centrifugation so that serum can be cleanly separated from the clot. Centrifuging before clotting is complete leaves fibrin strands and can produce a short or gel-contaminated sample. Allowing the tube to stand for the manufacturer's recommended clotting time is standard practice.

Question 49Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

A urine specimen for routine urinalysis cannot be analyzed within two hours of collection. What is the most appropriate storage action?

  1. Leave it at room temperature and analyze the next morning
  2. Add formalin to preserve cellular elements
  3. Refrigerate the specimen and analyze it within the acceptable window Correct answer.
  4. Freeze the specimen until the next shift

Explanation

Refrigeration slows bacterial overgrowth and delays the degradation of formed elements and chemical analytes in urine. Specimens should still be analyzed within the timeframe specified by the laboratory, and the sample should be brought to room temperature and mixed before testing. Prolonged room-temperature storage causes falsely decreased glucose and altered pH.

Question 50Laboratory Operations and Specimen Handling

Which blood collection tube order is correct when drawing multiple tubes by the standard order of draw?

  1. Sodium citrate, serum tube, heparin tube, EDTA tube Correct answer.
  2. Heparin tube, EDTA tube, sodium citrate, serum tube
  3. EDTA tube, sodium citrate, serum tube, heparin tube
  4. Serum tube, EDTA tube, sodium citrate, heparin tube

Explanation

The standard order of draw places coagulation citrate tubes first, followed by serum tubes, then heparin tubes, and finally EDTA tubes. This sequence prevents additive carryover between tubes, particularly the transfer of EDTA or heparin into coagulation specimens. Following a consistent order protects downstream test accuracy.