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EGATSU-SP practice questions

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Question 1Fundamentals and Terminology

In the context of electronic gaming machine terminology, what does the abbreviation 'EGM' most commonly stand for?

  1. Electronic Game Meter
  2. Electronic Gaming Machine Correct answer.
  3. Extended Gaming Method
  4. External Game Module

Explanation

EGM is the standard industry abbreviation for Electronic Gaming Machine, the general term for a device on which games of chance are played, including slots and video gaming terminals. It is the umbrella term that regulators and standards bodies use when defining device requirements.

Question 2Fundamentals and Terminology

Which term describes the percentage of all wagers that a gaming machine is statistically expected to return to players over the long run?

  1. Volatility index
  2. Hit frequency
  3. House edge
  4. Return to player Correct answer.

Explanation

Return to player (RTP) expresses the long-run percentage of total wagers paid back to players. It is typically calculated from the paytable and reel-strip weighting, and its complement is the house edge.

Question 3Fundamentals and Terminology

A game's paytable shows a top award of 5,000 credits. Which term best describes this stated, fixed maximum prize amount?

  1. Progressive jackpot
  2. Theoretical hold
  3. Top award Correct answer.
  4. Expected value

Explanation

The top award is the highest fixed prize printed on the paytable for a game outcome. It is distinguished from a progressive jackpot, which grows with contributions and is not a fixed printed amount.

Question 4Fundamentals and Terminology

What is the 'hit frequency' of a gaming machine?

  1. The number of machines in a bank that are active
  2. The percentage of the wager retained by the operator
  3. The maximum number of plays per hour allowed
  4. The proportion of plays that result in any winning outcome Correct answer.

Explanation

Hit frequency is the probability that a single play produces a winning outcome of any size, expressed as a proportion or percentage of plays. It is distinct from RTP because it counts wins rather than measuring their value.

Question 5Fundamentals and Terminology

Which term refers to the physical or logical set of reels and symbol positions used to determine outcomes in a slot game?

  1. Denomination
  2. Reel strip Correct answer.
  3. Credit meter
  4. Payline

Explanation

A reel strip is the ordered sequence of symbols on each reel that the random selection maps onto. Virtual reel mapping uses logical reel strips that may contain far more stops than the visible reel.

Question 6Fundamentals and Terminology

In gaming terminology, what does 'denomination' refer to on an electronic gaming machine?

  1. The manufacturer's model number
  2. The maximum number of paylines available
  3. The credit value assigned to a single bet unit Correct answer.
  4. The currency in which the machine's jackpot is paid

Explanation

Denomination is the monetary value of one credit or bet unit on the machine, such as one cent or one dollar. It determines the actual stake when multiplied by the number of credits wagered.

Question 7Fundamentals and Terminology

Which of the following best defines a 'random number generator' (RNG) in an electronic gaming machine?

  1. A device that displays the outcome of the previous game
  2. A program that adjusts payouts to meet a target RTP in real time
  3. A meter that records the total amount wagered
  4. A process that produces unpredictable values used to determine game outcomes Correct answer.

Explanation

An RNG produces values that cannot be predicted, and those values are mapped to game outcomes. It is a core fairness component, and regulators test it to confirm that outputs are statistically random and independent of prior results.

Question 8Fundamentals and Terminology

A player inserts cash and the machine shows available funds. Which meter typically displays the amount available for wagering?

  1. Bill-in meter
  2. Credit meter Correct answer.
  3. Coin-in meter
  4. Attendant paid meter

Explanation

The credit meter shows the player's available credits for wagering. The coin-in and bill-in meters are accounting meters that record amounts accepted, not the player's current balance.

Question 9Fundamentals and Terminology

A slot game has an RTP of 94 percent. What does this figure describe?

  1. The machine pays a prize on 94 percent of all plays
  2. Each player will lose exactly 6 percent of every wager
  3. Over the long run, 94 percent of total wagers are returned as prizes Correct answer.
  4. The jackpot is 94 percent of the maximum bet

Explanation

RTP is a long-run theoretical measure: across a very large number of plays, 94 percent of total wagers is returned as prizes and 6 percent is retained. It does not predict the result of any individual session or play.

Question 10Fundamentals and Terminology

A game has 2,000,000 equally likely reel outcomes, and 50,000 of them produce a win. What is the hit frequency?

  1. 0.25 percent
  2. 0.025 percent
  3. 25 percent
  4. 2.5 percent Correct answer.

Explanation

Hit frequency equals winning outcomes divided by total outcomes: 50,000 divided by 2,000,000 equals 0.025, or 2.5 percent. This means roughly one play in forty produces any win.

Question 11Fundamentals and Terminology

Which statement correctly distinguishes a progressive jackpot from a fixed top award?

  1. A progressive jackpot cannot be linked across multiple machines
  2. A fixed top award grows with each wager placed on the machine
  3. A progressive jackpot is funded by contributions from wagers and grows until won, while a fixed top award is a set amount Correct answer.
  4. A progressive jackpot is always printed on the paytable as a fixed amount

Explanation

A progressive jackpot accumulates a portion of wagers, often across a linked network, and resets after a win. A fixed top award is a predetermined prize amount stated in the paytable and does not grow.

Question 12Fundamentals and Terminology

What is 'volatility' describing when applied to a gaming machine game?

  1. The electrical stability of the machine's power supply
  2. The speed at which the RNG generates values
  3. The percentage of wagers retained by the operator
  4. The frequency and size distribution of payouts relative to the wager Correct answer.

Explanation

Volatility, also called variance, describes how payouts are distributed: low-volatility games pay smaller amounts more often, while high-volatility games pay larger amounts less frequently. Two games with the same RTP can have very different volatility profiles.

Question 13Fundamentals and Terminology

A game uses virtual reel mapping where each visible reel has 32 stops but the logical reel has 256 stops. What is the primary purpose of this technique?

  1. To weight symbol probabilities independently of the visible reel layout Correct answer.
  2. To eliminate the need for a random number generator
  3. To reduce the physical size of the machine cabinet
  4. To increase the maximum bet allowed

Explanation

Virtual reel mapping assigns multiple logical stops to symbols, letting designers set probabilities that differ from the visible symbol counts. This decouples the displayed reel appearance from the actual odds of each symbol landing on a payline.

Question 14Fundamentals and Terminology

Which of these best describes the role of a 'payline' in a slot game?

  1. It is the maximum amount a player can win on a single spin
  2. It is the sequence of symbols shown on a physical reel strip
  3. It is a defined path across the reels on which winning combinations are evaluated Correct answer.
  4. It is the communication link between the machine and the central system

Explanation

A payline is a designated pattern or path across the reels, such as a straight horizontal line or a zigzag, on which symbol combinations are checked for wins. Games may offer a single payline or hundreds of them.

Question 15Fundamentals and Terminology

A player asks why the machine 'must be due' for a jackpot after many losses. Which concept explains why this reasoning is incorrect?

  1. Independence of each game outcome, because outcomes are determined by the RNG Correct answer.
  2. The credit meter, which resets the odds after each spin
  3. The house edge, which guarantees the player will eventually win
  4. The hit frequency, which rises after a losing streak

Explanation

Compliant RNG-based games produce independent outcomes, so previous results do not influence future ones. The belief that a machine is 'due' is a gambler's fallacy, and regulators test that outcomes show no such dependency.

Question 16Fundamentals and Terminology

Which term describes the total amount wagered on a machine over a defined period, used for accounting and tax reporting?

  1. Attendant paid
  2. Coin-in Correct answer.
  3. Net win
  4. Credit balance

Explanation

Coin-in, sometimes called turnover, is the cumulative amount wagered. Operators and regulators compare coin-in with payouts to compute net win and to verify reported revenue.

Question 17Fundamentals and Terminology

In electronic gaming terminology, what is a 'theoretical hold' percentage?

  1. The percentage of a machine's memory reserved for game software
  2. The percentage of credits a player must wager before cashing out
  3. The percentage of wagers the operator expects to retain over the long run Correct answer.
  4. The amount physically held in the drop box

Explanation

Theoretical hold is the expected long-run retention expressed as a percentage of wagers, equal to 100 percent minus RTP. It is a statistical expectation, distinct from the actual win observed in a given period.

Question 18Fundamentals and Terminology

A game's paytable lists a combination that pays 10 credits for 1 credit wagered. How is this expressed as an odds multiplier?

  1. 1 to 10
  2. 10 percent
  3. 10 to 1 Correct answer.
  4. 1 percent

Explanation

A payout of 10 credits for each 1 credit wagered is expressed as 10 to 1, meaning the win is ten times the stake. Multipliers describe the ratio of prize to wager, not a percentage.

Question 19Fundamentals and Terminology

Which definition correctly describes 'expected value' for a single wager on a gaming machine?

  1. The probability-weighted average of all possible outcomes Correct answer.
  2. The maximum prize available on the machine
  3. The guaranteed amount returned to the player
  4. The most likely single outcome of the next play

Explanation

Expected value is the sum of each possible outcome multiplied by its probability, giving the average result per play over the long run. It is not a prediction of any single play and can be expressed in credits or as a percentage of the wager.

Question 20Fundamentals and Terminology

A regulator requires that a machine's software be certified against a published standard. Which term best describes this formal confirmation of compliance?

  1. Denomination change
  2. Meter reconciliation
  3. Game certification Correct answer.
  4. Random seeding

Explanation

Game certification is the formal process by which an approved laboratory or authority verifies that software and hardware meet applicable technical standards. Certification typically covers RNG testing, RTP verification, and rule compliance before the game is approved for use.

Question 21Fundamentals and Terminology

Two slot games each have an RTP of 96 percent, but Game A pays small prizes frequently while Game B pays rare large prizes. Which conclusion is correct?

  1. The two games must have identical paytables
  2. The games differ in volatility but have the same long-run expected return Correct answer.
  3. Game B must have a higher hit frequency than Game A
  4. Game A has a lower house edge than Game B

Explanation

RTP and volatility are independent properties: equal RTP means equal long-run expected return, while the differing payout patterns reflect different volatility. Game A is low-volatility and Game B is high-volatility despite the shared RTP.

Question 22Fundamentals and Terminology

A game's logical reel strips give symbol X a probability of 1 in 40 on each of three independent reels. What is the probability that symbol X lands on all three reels in one play?

  1. 1 in 64,000 Correct answer.
  2. 1 in 120
  3. 1 in 40
  4. 3 in 40

Explanation

For independent reels, the joint probability is the product of the individual probabilities: (1/40) times (1/40) times (1/40) equals 1/64,000. Multiplying probabilities, not adding them, is required for simultaneous independent events.

Question 23Fundamentals and Terminology

A meter audit shows coin-in of 1,000,000 credits and prizes paid of 940,000 credits. Which figure represents the actual hold percentage for that period?

  1. 6 percent Correct answer.
  2. 94 percent
  3. 9.4 percent
  4. 60 percent

Explanation

Actual hold equals wagers minus prizes paid, divided by wagers: (1,000,000 minus 940,000) divided by 1,000,000 equals 0.06, or 6 percent. This observed figure is compared with the theoretical hold to monitor performance.

Question 24Fundamentals and Terminology

Why do regulators require that RNG output be statistically tested for uniformity and independence before a game is approved?

  1. To verify that the machine's display brightness meets standards
  2. To ensure the machine's RTP increases over time
  3. To guarantee that players will win at least once per session
  4. To confirm that each outcome is equally likely to follow any prior outcome and that outputs are evenly distributed Correct answer.

Explanation

Statistical testing checks that RNG outputs are uniformly distributed and independent, meaning no outcome is predictable from prior results. This supports fairness and prevents exploitable patterns, and it underpins the integrity claims made about the game.

Question 25Fundamentals and Terminology

A jurisdiction defines 'net win' for a gaming device. Which formula correctly expresses it?

  1. Total credits inserted minus credits cashed out only
  2. Total wagers plus total prizes paid
  3. Total wagers minus total prizes paid Correct answer.
  4. Total prizes paid minus total wagers

Explanation

Net win is the operator's gross gaming revenue from the device: total amounts wagered minus total prizes paid out. It excludes operating expenses and is the base often used for tax and fee calculations.

Question 26Fundamentals and Terminology

In electronic gaming machine terminology, what is a 'credit'?

  1. A unit of machine memory used to store game outcomes
  2. A unit of player funds that can be wagered or paid out, often equivalent to a fixed cash value Correct answer.
  3. A regulatory approval code for game software
  4. A bonus feature that awards free spins

Explanation

A credit is the basic unit of account on an electronic gaming machine. It represents a portion of the player's funds, typically with a fixed monetary value (such as one cent or one dollar per credit), and is used to place wagers and receive awards. This distinguishes it from memory units, bonus features, or approval codes.

Question 27Fundamentals and Terminology

Which term describes the physical or logical mechanism that determines the stopping position of each reel in an electronic gaming machine?

  1. Random number generator (RNG)
  2. Reel mapping
  3. Virtual reel
  4. Reel stop control Correct answer.

Explanation

The reel stop control is the component that uses the RNG output to determine where each reel stops. It translates random numbers into specific reel positions, which may involve virtual reel mapping. The RNG itself generates random numbers, but the reel stop control applies them to the reels.

Question 28Fundamentals and Terminology

A player wins a prize of 100 credits on a machine where one credit equals $0.01. The machine's meter shows a 'hand-paid jackpot' was awarded. What does this indicate?

  1. The prize was part of a progressive jackpot.
  2. The prize was automatically paid to the credit meter.
  3. The prize was paid by an attendant rather than by the machine. Correct answer.
  4. The prize was awarded as free play credits.

Explanation

A hand-paid jackpot means the machine does not dispense the prize automatically; instead, an attendant verifies the win and pays the player manually. This is common for large jackpots that exceed the machine's automatic payout limit or for regulatory reasons. The other options describe different payout methods.

Question 29Fundamentals and Terminology

In gaming machine accounting, what does the term 'drop' refer to?

  1. The total amount wagered on a machine since its last reset
  2. The percentage of wagers retained by the machine
  3. The amount of cash removed from the drop box Correct answer.
  4. The difference between coin-in and coin-out

Explanation

The drop is the actual cash (or cash-equivalent) removed from the machine's drop box, representing funds inserted by players that were not paid out. It is a physical count used for reconciliation and tax purposes. Coin-in, net win, and hold percentage are related but distinct concepts.

Question 30Fundamentals and Terminology

A game's paytable shows a 'wild' symbol that can substitute for other symbols to complete winning combinations. Which statement best describes the role of a wild symbol in game design?

  1. It triggers a bonus round when it appears on the payline.
  2. It guarantees a minimum payout on every spin.
  3. It increases the game's volatility by reducing hit frequency.
  4. It acts as a substitute for other symbols to create additional winning combinations. Correct answer.

Explanation

A wild symbol is designed to substitute for other symbols (often except scatters or other wilds) to help form winning combinations. This can increase the hit frequency and player engagement without necessarily changing the overall RTP, which is balanced through the paytable and reel strips. Wilds do not guarantee wins or automatically trigger bonuses unless specified.

Question 31Planning and Requirements Analysis

In the EGATSU-SP planning phase, a project manager must document the assumptions that underpin the requirements baseline. Which artifact primarily serves this purpose?

  1. The stakeholder register
  2. The assumptions log Correct answer.
  3. The configuration management plan
  4. The requirements traceability matrix

Explanation

An assumptions log explicitly records the conditions treated as true for planning purposes, along with the risk if each assumption proves false. Traceability matrices link requirements to sources and tests, while the stakeholder register lists interested parties, so neither is the designated home for assumptions.

Question 32Planning and Requirements Analysis

A business analyst is eliciting requirements for a system that must support regulatory reporting. Which elicitation technique is most appropriate for confirming the precise wording of a statutory obligation?

  1. A focus group of end users
  2. Document analysis of the regulation and its guidance Correct answer.
  3. Observation of current operational workflows
  4. Brainstorming with the delivery team

Explanation

Statutory wording is authoritative only in the regulation and its published guidance, so document analysis is the technique that grounds requirements in that source. Brainstorming, focus groups, and observation generate stakeholder perspectives but cannot confirm the exact legal text.

Question 33Planning and Requirements Analysis

Which statement best describes the purpose of a requirements baseline in the EGATSU-SP planning process?

  1. It lists the technical debt accepted by the architecture team
  2. It is the approved, agreed set of requirements against which changes are assessed Correct answer.
  3. It records every change request received after go-live
  4. It summarizes the project schedule and resource loading

Explanation

A baseline is the formally approved version of requirements that subsequent changes must be evaluated against. Change requests are compared to the baseline rather than stored in it, and schedule or debt information belongs to other planning artifacts.

Question 34Planning and Requirements Analysis

During scope definition, a team finds that two stakeholder groups describe the same business process with conflicting terminology. Which planning action resolves this most directly?

  1. Escalate to the sponsor for a unilateral decision
  2. Add both descriptions to the backlog as separate items
  3. Build a glossary and data dictionary for shared terms Correct answer.
  4. Defer both descriptions to the design phase

Explanation

A glossary and data dictionary establish agreed definitions so that conflicting terminology is resolved at the source. Escalation, deferral, or duplicating backlog items leaves the ambiguity in place and pushes rework downstream.

Question 35Planning and Requirements Analysis

Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-formed functional requirement?

  1. It describes a behavior the system must perform Correct answer.
  2. It specifies the hardware platform to be procured
  3. It states a measurable performance threshold
  4. It records the rationale for a design decision

Explanation

Functional requirements describe what the system must do, that is, behaviors and capabilities. Measurable thresholds are non-functional quality constraints, hardware selection is a design decision, and rationale belongs to decision records.

Question 36Planning and Requirements Analysis

A planning team needs to prioritize a large backlog using a method that explicitly weighs business value against implementation effort. Which technique fits best?

  1. Weighted shortest job first Correct answer.
  2. Story mapping
  3. Requirements traceability
  4. MoSCoW prioritization

Explanation

Weighted shortest job first ranks items by value relative to effort, making the trade-off explicit. MoSCoW classifies by must/should/could/won't without a formal effort weighting, story mapping organizes the user journey, and traceability links artifacts.

Question 37Planning and Requirements Analysis

Which document defines how requirements will be identified, controlled, and changed throughout the project lifecycle?

  1. The requirements management plan Correct answer.
  2. The business case
  3. The communication plan
  4. The test strategy

Explanation

The requirements management plan describes the activities, roles, and controls used to manage requirements, including identification and change handling. The business case justifies investment, the test strategy addresses verification, and the communication plan covers information flow.

Question 38Planning and Requirements Analysis

A stakeholder insists that a requirement be included although no business justification exists. What is the most appropriate planning response?

  1. Include it silently to preserve the relationship
  2. Assign it the highest priority to avoid conflict
  3. Reject it and close the discussion
  4. Challenge it and request the underlying business need Correct answer.

Explanation

Requirements should be traceable to a business need, so the analyst should probe for the justification before accepting or rejecting the item. Silent inclusion and automatic high priority introduce scope without value, while outright rejection forecloses a legitimate need that may exist.

Question 39Planning and Requirements Analysis

A requirements traceability matrix shows that a high-priority requirement has no downstream test case. What planning risk does this most directly indicate?

  1. The requirement may be over-engineered
  2. The requirement may go unverified before release Correct answer.
  3. The requirement duplicates another item
  4. The requirement is likely to be descoped

Explanation

Traceability from requirement to test provides evidence that the requirement will be verified; a missing link means no planned verification exists. Over-engineering, descoping, and duplication are different concerns that the absence of a test link does not establish.

Question 40Planning and Requirements Analysis

When defining non-functional requirements for a reporting service, which formulation is most verifiable?

  1. The service must be user-friendly and reliable
  2. The service must return 95 percent of report queries within 3 seconds at 200 concurrent users Correct answer.
  3. The service should be highly available at all times
  4. The service should respond quickly under normal load

Explanation

A verifiable non-functional requirement states a measurable metric, threshold, and condition so that a test can pass or fail objectively. The other formulations use subjective qualifiers such as quickly, highly available, or user-friendly that cannot be tested consistently.

Question 41Planning and Requirements Analysis

An organization plans to replace a legacy system in phases. Which planning consideration most affects how requirements are grouped for delivery?

  1. The number of test environments available
  2. The dependency order between migrated business capabilities Correct answer.
  3. The color scheme of the user interface
  4. The seniority of the development team

Explanation

Phased replacement requires grouping requirements by capability dependencies so that each release leaves the business operational. Interface styling, environment counts, and team seniority influence execution but do not determine capability grouping.

Question 42Planning and Requirements Analysis

A business analyst is planning elicitation for a domain with many tacit workarounds that staff do not articulate. Which combination of techniques is most suitable?

  1. Observation followed by interviews Correct answer.
  2. Questionnaires followed by a focus group
  3. Brainstorming followed by voting
  4. Surveys followed by document analysis

Explanation

Observation surfaces workarounds that people perform without describing, and follow-up interviews let the analyst probe what was seen. Surveys and questionnaires depend on respondents already knowing and articulating their behavior, which is exactly the gap here.

Question 43Planning and Requirements Analysis

Which action best ensures that requirements remain aligned with business objectives during a long planning cycle?

  1. Periodically reviewing requirements against the business case and goals Correct answer.
  2. Increasing the number of approval signatures
  3. Converting all requirements into user stories
  4. Freezing all requirements at project start

Explanation

Alignment is maintained by recurring review of requirements against the business case and goals, which detects drift as conditions change. Freezing requirements prevents adaptation, additional signatures do not test alignment, and format conversion does not address business fit.

Question 44Planning and Requirements Analysis

A project has a fixed budget and a regulatory deadline. Two candidate scope options exist: one delivers full functionality late, the other delivers core functionality on time. Which planning approach best supports the decision?

  1. Defer the decision until design is complete
  2. Select the full scope and request additional budget later
  3. Choose the option preferred by the loudest stakeholder
  4. Evaluate each option against the constraints and negotiate scope with stakeholders Correct answer.

Explanation

When budget and schedule are fixed, scope becomes the variable, so options should be evaluated against the constraints and scope traded with stakeholders. Assuming later funding, deferring the choice, or yielding to the loudest voice ignores the binding constraints.

Question 45Planning and Requirements Analysis

What is the primary purpose of defining acceptance criteria during requirements planning?

  1. To record the stakeholder who requested the feature
  2. To specify the implementation approach for developers
  3. To estimate the effort required to build the feature
  4. To establish the conditions under which a requirement is judged satisfied Correct answer.

Explanation

Acceptance criteria define the testable conditions that determine whether a requirement has been met, giving a shared definition of done. They do not prescribe implementation, provide effort estimates, or record request provenance.

Question 46Planning and Requirements Analysis

A requirements workshop reveals that two departments have incompatible definitions of a customer record. Which planning artifact should be produced to resolve this before design proceeds?

  1. A change request to the vendor
  2. An agreed data dictionary defining the customer record attributes Correct answer.
  3. A risk register entry only
  4. A revised project charter

Explanation

A data dictionary specifies the attributes, types, and definitions of a shared entity, which is how conflicting definitions are reconciled. A risk entry documents the issue but does not resolve it, and charter revision or vendor change requests do not settle data semantics.

Question 47Planning and Requirements Analysis

Which planning practice most effectively reduces the risk of scope creep during delivery?

  1. Documenting requirements only at a high level
  2. Removing stakeholder involvement after sign-off
  3. Establishing a formal change control process tied to the baseline Correct answer.
  4. Accepting all requests to keep stakeholders satisfied

Explanation

A formal change control process evaluates each proposed change against the approved baseline and its impact, which is the standard defense against uncontrolled scope growth. Accepting all requests, vague documentation, and removing stakeholders all increase the risk.

Question 48Planning and Requirements Analysis

A requirements plan must account for a vendor-supplied component whose interface is not yet finalized. Which planning technique best manages this uncertainty?

  1. Exclude the component from the plan entirely
  2. Specify the interface in detail unilaterally
  3. Record the interface as an open item with an owner and resolution date Correct answer.
  4. Assume the interface will match current expectations

Explanation

Unresolved items should be tracked explicitly as open items with ownership and target resolution, so the uncertainty is visible and managed. Assuming a match, excluding the component, or dictating terms unilaterally hides or misdirects the risk.

Question 49Planning and Requirements Analysis

Which set of characteristics is commonly used to judge the quality of an individual requirement statement?

  1. Atomic, unambiguous, feasible, and testable Correct answer.
  2. Broad, flexible, aspirational, and open-ended
  3. Approved, signed, versioned, and archived
  4. Detailed, lengthy, technical, and prescriptive

Explanation

Quality characteristics for a requirement statement include being atomic, unambiguous, feasible, and testable, so it can be understood and verified. Length, prescriptiveness, administrative status, and open-endedness do not indicate requirement quality.

Question 50Planning and Requirements Analysis

A planning team must decide whether to build, buy, or reuse a component. Which factor is most directly a requirements planning concern rather than a design concern?

  1. The programming language of the implementation
  2. The internal class structure of the chosen library
  3. Whether the candidate solution satisfies the mandatory functional and quality requirements Correct answer.
  4. The code review process for the chosen option

Explanation

At planning time, build-buy-reuse decisions hinge on whether each candidate meets the mandatory requirements and quality attributes. Language choice, internal structure, and review process are design and engineering details that follow the decision.