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NASM-CNC practice questions

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Question 1Basic and Applied Sciences

Which plane of motion divides the body into left and right portions and is the plane in which a biceps curl occurs?

  1. Sagittal plane Correct answer.
  2. Oblique plane
  3. Frontal plane
  4. Transverse plane

Explanation

The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right portions and permits flexion and extension movements such as a biceps curl. The frontal plane handles abduction and adduction, while the transverse plane handles rotation. An oblique plane is any plane not aligned with the three cardinal planes.

Question 2Basic and Applied Sciences

During a squat, the knee and hip both flex while the ankle dorsiflexes. Which term best describes the role of the quadriceps during this movement?

  1. Antagonist
  2. Synergist
  3. Stabilizer
  4. Prime mover Correct answer.

Explanation

The quadriceps group is the primary muscle producing knee extension and controlling the descent, making it the prime mover (agonist) for the movement. The hamstrings and glutes act as synergists assisting hip extension, while the antagonists oppose the motion. Stabilizers fix a joint or body segment rather than drive the movement.

Question 3Basic and Applied Sciences

Which energy system is the primary contributor to ATP production during a maximal-effort set lasting approximately 10 seconds?

  1. ATP-PC system Correct answer.
  2. Aerobic lipolysis
  3. Oxidative system
  4. Glycolytic system

Explanation

The ATP-PC (phosphagen) system supplies ATP rapidly for very short, maximal efforts of roughly 10 seconds or less by using stored creatine phosphate. The glycolytic system dominates slightly longer high-intensity efforts, and the oxidative system dominates sustained activity. Aerobic lipolysis is a slow oxidative pathway.

Question 4Basic and Applied Sciences

A client performs a bench press and the scapulae protract and elevate off the bench during the press. Which cue best addresses this compensation?

  1. Retract and depress the scapulae and maintain contact with the bench Correct answer.
  2. Allow the elbows to flare fully to 90 degrees
  3. Elevate the shoulders to gain more range of motion
  4. Increase the load to promote thoracic extension

Explanation

Scapular protraction and elevation during a press indicate poor scapular stabilization, so the client should retract and depress the scapulae and keep them set against the bench. Increasing load or elevating the shoulders reinforces the compensation rather than correcting it. Elbow flare is a separate technique issue and does not fix scapular control.

Question 5Basic and Applied Sciences

Which muscle acts as the primary hip flexor among the following options?

  1. Adductor magnus
  2. Gluteus maximus
  3. Biceps femoris
  4. Iliopsoas Correct answer.

Explanation

The iliopsoas, formed by the iliacus and psoas major, is the strongest hip flexor and crosses the anterior hip. The gluteus maximus and hamstrings are primarily hip extensors, and the adductor magnus is chiefly a hip adductor and extensor.

Question 6Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following best describes the stretch-shortening cycle observed during a countermovement jump?

  1. A slow concentric phase preceded by a rest interval
  2. A series of alternating isometric contractions at the ankle
  3. A rapid eccentric phase followed immediately by a concentric phase that enhances force output Correct answer.
  4. A prolonged isometric hold that increases muscular endurance

Explanation

The stretch-shortening cycle uses a rapid eccentric (lengthening) phase that stores elastic energy and triggers the stretch reflex, immediately followed by a concentric phase that produces greater force. A hold or rest interval dissipates the stored energy and negates the effect. Alternating isometric contractions do not describe the cycle.

Question 7Basic and Applied Sciences

Which principle states that training adaptations are specific to the type of stress applied to the body?

  1. Progressive overload
  2. Specificity Correct answer.
  3. Individuality
  4. Reversibility

Explanation

The principle of specificity holds that the body adapts in a manner specific to the imposed demands, so training must match the desired outcome. Progressive overload concerns gradually increasing stress, reversibility concerns detraining, and individuality concerns differing responses between people.

Question 8Basic and Applied Sciences

A client's knees move inward during a squat assessment. Which muscle group is most likely underactive and should be strengthened?

  1. Hip flexors
  2. Gastrocnemius
  3. Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius Correct answer.
  4. Hip adductors

Explanation

Knee valgus during a squat commonly reflects insufficient hip abductor and external rotator strength, so the gluteus maximus and gluteus medius are typically underactive and targeted for strengthening. Overactive adductors and hip flexors contribute to the inward collapse, and the gastrocnemius relates to ankle mobility.

Question 9Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of change model when a client is beginning an exercise program?

  1. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance Correct answer.
  2. Action, preparation, contemplation, precontemplation, maintenance
  3. Preparation, contemplation, precontemplation, maintenance, action
  4. Contemplation, precontemplation, action, preparation, maintenance

Explanation

The transtheoretical model proceeds from precontemplation through contemplation, preparation, action, and finally maintenance. Each stage reflects increasing readiness and commitment to behavior change. The other sequences place later stages before the readiness stages that precede them.

Question 10Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following best describes the role of the transverse abdominis during stabilization exercise?

  1. It increases intra-abdominal pressure to stiffen the lumbopelvic region Correct answer.
  2. It extends the lumbar spine during lifting
  3. It produces trunk flexion through a large range of motion
  4. It laterally flexes the trunk against heavy resistance

Explanation

The transverse abdominis is a deep, horizontally oriented muscle that compresses the abdominal contents, raising intra-abdominal pressure and stiffening the lumbopelvic region before limb movement. It is not a prime mover for trunk flexion, extension, or lateral flexion. Those actions belong to the rectus abdominis, erector spinae, and obliques, respectively.

Question 11Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following is the primary function of the rotator cuff musculature at the glenohumeral joint?

  1. Stabilizing the humeral head within the glenoid during movement Correct answer.
  2. Extending the elbow
  3. Retracting the scapula
  4. Producing powerful shoulder abduction

Explanation

The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis compress and center the humeral head in the glenoid, providing dynamic stability during shoulder motion. Powerful abduction is chiefly the deltoid's role, elbow extension belongs to the triceps, and scapular retraction belongs to the rhomboids and trapezius.

Question 12Basic and Applied Sciences

During a single-leg squat assessment, a client's elevated foot turns outward. Which muscle is most likely overactive?

  1. Tibialis anterior
  2. Gluteus medius
  3. Tensor fasciae latae Correct answer.
  4. Vastus medialis

Explanation

Outward rotation of the elevated foot during a single-leg squat often reflects overactivity of the tensor fasciae latae and biceps femoris, which externally rotate the hip. The gluteus medius is commonly underactive in this compensation. The vastus medialis and tibialis anterior are not primary external rotators of the hip.

Question 13Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following best explains why a client should perform a warm-up before a resistance training session?

  1. It permanently increases resting muscle protein synthesis
  2. It eliminates the need for a cool-down
  3. It raises muscle temperature and improves neuromuscular readiness Correct answer.
  4. It reduces the total training volume required for adaptation

Explanation

A warm-up raises muscle temperature, increases blood flow, and enhances neuromuscular readiness, which can improve performance and reduce injury risk. It does not permanently change protein synthesis, replace a cool-down, or reduce the volume needed for adaptation. These are common misconceptions about warm-up effects.

Question 14Basic and Applied Sciences

A client training for muscular hypertrophy should generally be prescribed which loading scheme?

  1. 6 to 12 repetitions at 67 to 85 percent of one-repetition maximum Correct answer.
  2. A single maximal repetition performed once per week
  3. 15 to 25 repetitions at 30 to 45 percent of one-repetition maximum
  4. 1 to 5 repetitions at 85 to 100 percent of one-repetition maximum

Explanation

Hypertrophy is typically targeted with moderate loads of roughly 67 to 85 percent of one-repetition maximum for 6 to 12 repetitions. Very heavy loads of 1 to 5 repetitions favor maximal strength, and very light loads with high repetitions favor muscular endurance. A single maximal repetition does not provide sufficient volume for hypertrophy.

Question 15Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following is a correct description of the Valsalva maneuver during heavy lifting?

  1. It involves rapid shallow breathing to increase heart rate
  2. It involves inhaling only during the eccentric phase
  3. It involves holding the breath against a closed glottis, raising intrathoracic pressure Correct answer.
  4. It involves exhaling continuously throughout the concentric phase

Explanation

The Valsalva maneuver entails holding the breath against a closed glottis, which raises intrathoracic pressure and stiffens the trunk to support heavy lifts. It also transiently raises blood pressure, so it warrants caution in clients with cardiovascular concerns. Continuous exhalation, rapid shallow breathing, and phase-specific inhalation describe different breathing strategies.

Question 16Basic and Applied Sciences

Which postural distortion pattern is characterized by an anteriorly tilted pelvis, increased lumbar lordosis, and tight hip flexors?

  1. Pes planus syndrome
  2. Pronation distortion syndrome
  3. Upper crossed syndrome
  4. Lower crossed syndrome Correct answer.

Explanation

Lower crossed syndrome involves tight hip flexors and lumbar erectors crossing with weak abdominals and gluteals, producing anterior pelvic tilt and increased lumbar lordosis. Upper crossed syndrome affects the head, neck, and shoulders, while pronation distortion syndrome involves the foot and ankle. Pes planus refers to flat feet specifically.

Question 17Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a static stretching routine performed at the end of a session?

  1. To raise core temperature before conditioning
  2. To replace a resistance training stimulus
  3. To improve flexibility and promote relaxation after activity Correct answer.
  4. To acutely increase power output before the next session

Explanation

Static stretching after activity is used to improve flexibility and promote relaxation during recovery. Prolonged static stretching before power activity can temporarily reduce force output, so it is generally placed after training. It does not substitute for resistance training or serve to raise core temperature before conditioning.

Question 18Basic and Applied Sciences

A client reports sharp anterior knee pain during deep squats that worsens with prolonged sitting. Which action is most appropriate for a certified trainer?

  1. Continue loading the squat and instruct the client to push through the pain
  2. Diagnose patellofemoral pain syndrome and prescribe a rehabilitation protocol
  3. Refer the client to an appropriate healthcare professional and modify the program Correct answer.
  4. Apply a knee brace and resume maximal loading immediately

Explanation

A certified trainer cannot diagnose or treat pain, so the appropriate action is to refer the client to a qualified healthcare professional while modifying the program to avoid aggravating movements. Continuing to load through pain, diagnosing a condition, or bracing and resuming maximal loading all exceed the trainer's scope of practice.

Question 19Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following acute responses occurs during aerobic exercise?

  1. Decreased cardiac output
  2. Increased stroke volume Correct answer.
  3. Decreased ventilation
  4. Decreased heart rate

Explanation

During aerobic exercise, stroke volume increases along with heart rate, raising cardiac output to meet oxygen demand. Ventilation also increases rather than decreases. A decrease in heart rate is characteristic of chronic aerobic training at rest, not of the acute exercise response.

Question 20Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following best describes the OPT model's stabilization level?

  1. It focuses exclusively on power exercises such as plyometrics
  2. It eliminates balance training in favor of machine-based training
  3. It uses heavy loads and low repetitions to build maximal strength
  4. It emphasizes proprioception, core stability, and controlled movement with light loads Correct answer.

Explanation

The stabilization level of the OPT model emphasizes proprioceptive challenge, core stabilization, and controlled movement quality with light loads and higher repetitions. Heavy loads and low repetitions belong to the strength level, and power exercises belong to the power level. Balance training is central rather than eliminated in stabilization.

Question 21Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following is the most accurate description of a superset?

  1. Performing only isometric holds for an entire session
  2. Performing a single exercise for multiple sets with long rest intervals
  3. Performing two exercises back to back with minimal rest between them Correct answer.
  4. Performing one maximal repetition and then resting for ten minutes

Explanation

A superset pairs two exercises performed back to back with little or no rest between them, which increases training density. Multiple sets of one exercise with long rest is a traditional straight-set approach. A single maximal repetition with prolonged rest is a maximal strength test, and an all-isometric session describes a distinct training method.

Question 22Basic and Applied Sciences

A client demonstrates excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment. Which combination of findings is most consistent with this compensation?

  1. Overactive gluteus maximus with underactive hip flexors
  2. Overactive hip flexors and gastrocnemius with underactive gluteals and erector spinae
  3. Underactive latissimus dorsi and underactive hip flexors
  4. Overactive latissimus dorsi and teres major with underactive gluteals and erector spinae Correct answer.

Explanation

Excessive forward lean in the overhead squat is commonly associated with overactive hip flexors, latissimus dorsi, and teres major, along with underactive gluteals and erector spinae. The latissimus and teres major limit shoulder flexion and pull the trunk forward. Overactive gluteals or underactive hip flexors would not produce this pattern.

Question 23Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following best explains the concept of rate of force development?

  1. The duration of rest between training sets
  2. The total amount of force a muscle can produce in a single maximal contraction
  3. The speed at which force is produced during a contraction Correct answer.
  4. The number of repetitions completed before fatigue

Explanation

Rate of force development refers to how quickly a muscle can generate force, which is important for explosive actions such as sprinting and jumping. Maximal force production is a separate quality, and repetition count and rest duration are programming variables rather than contractile characteristics.

Question 24Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a fitness assessment battery before program design?

  1. To guarantee injury prevention for the client
  2. To replace the need for informed consent
  3. To establish baseline data that guide exercise selection and track progress Correct answer.
  4. To determine the client's medical diagnosis

Explanation

Baseline assessments provide objective data about posture, movement quality, and performance that inform exercise selection and allow progress to be tracked over time. They do not establish a medical diagnosis, replace informed consent, or guarantee that injury will not occur. Those are common misconceptions about the purpose of assessment.

Question 25Basic and Applied Sciences

Which of the following describes the anatomical position of the biceps brachii relative to the triceps brachii?

  1. The biceps brachii is anterior and the triceps brachii is posterior in the arm Correct answer.
  2. Both muscles lie on the medial aspect of the arm
  3. Both muscles lie on the lateral aspect of the arm
  4. The biceps brachii is posterior and the triceps brachii is anterior in the arm

Explanation

In anatomical position, the biceps brachii lies on the anterior (front) aspect of the arm and flexes the elbow, while the triceps brachii lies on the posterior (back) aspect and extends the elbow. They are antagonistic muscles on opposite sides of the humerus. Neither is positioned laterally or medially as a pair.

Question 26Basic and Applied Sciences

Which muscle fiber type is characterized by a high oxidative capacity, a high resistance to fatigue, and a relatively small motor neuron size?

  1. Type IIa fast-twitch fibers
  2. Type I slow-twitch fibers Correct answer.
  3. Type IIx fast-twitch fibers
  4. Type IIb fast-twitch fibers

Explanation

Type I fibers are slow-twitch, richly supplied with mitochondria and capillaries, and are recruited first because their small motor neurons have low activation thresholds. This makes them highly fatigue resistant and suited to postural and endurance work. Type II fibers trade oxidative capacity for faster contraction and greater force output.

Question 27Basic and Applied Sciences

During a bout of moderate-intensity steady-state aerobic exercise, which combination of acute cardiovascular responses is expected?

  1. Increased heart rate, increased stroke volume, and increased cardiac output Correct answer.
  2. Decreased heart rate, increased stroke volume, and unchanged cardiac output
  3. Decreased heart rate, decreased stroke volume, and decreased venous return
  4. Increased heart rate, decreased stroke volume, and decreased cardiac output

Explanation

Cardiac output equals heart rate multiplied by stroke volume, and both rise during moderate aerobic work, so cardiac output increases to meet oxygen demand. Sympathetic stimulation raises heart rate, while greater venous return and stronger contractility increase stroke volume. This response supports increased oxygen delivery to working muscle.

Question 28Basic and Applied Sciences

A client performs a bench press with the elbows flared to roughly 90 degrees from the torso and reports anterior shoulder discomfort. Which biomechanical explanation best accounts for this complaint?

  1. Glenohumeral horizontal abduction increases, narrowing the subacromial space and stressing anterior structures Correct answer.
  2. Elbow flexion angle decreases, which reduces torque at the glenohumeral joint
  3. Scapular retraction increases, which decreases compressive load on the acromion
  4. Glenohumeral internal rotation decreases, which reduces tension on the posterior capsule

Explanation

Flaring the elbows places the humerus in greater horizontal abduction and external rotation, which can reduce the subacromial space and increase stress on the anterior capsule and surrounding soft tissue. A more tucked elbow position distributes load differently and is often better tolerated. The discomfort is therefore a positioning and joint-mechanics issue rather than an elbow angle issue.

Question 29Basic and Applied Sciences

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between force, velocity, and power during concentric muscle action?

  1. Power is the product of force and velocity, so power peaks at a moderate load rather than at either extreme Correct answer.
  2. Power is independent of load and depends only on the muscle's fiber-type composition
  3. Power increases continuously as load increases, reaching its maximum at the one-repetition maximum
  4. Force and velocity increase together during concentric action, so power is highest at maximal velocity

Explanation

Power equals force multiplied by velocity. Because force falls as concentric velocity rises, and velocity is near zero at very heavy loads, the product peaks at an intermediate load often described as roughly 30 to 45 percent of one-repetition maximum for many movements. This is why ballistic and moderate-load training is used to develop power.

Question 30Basic and Applied Sciences

A client's overhead squat reveals that the arms fall forward and the trunk leans excessively forward. Which muscle group is most likely overactive in this pattern?

  1. Gluteus maximus
  2. Deep cervical flexors
  3. Latissimus dorsi Correct answer.
  4. Medial hamstrings

Explanation

Arms falling forward during the overhead squat is commonly associated with overactivity of the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major, which limit shoulder flexion and pull the arms down. The excessive forward lean reflects the same restriction plus possible hip flexor or calf tightness. The latissimus dorsi is the best answer among these choices.

Question 31Basic and Applied Sciences

A client wants to improve maximal strength in the back squat. Which loading and repetition scheme is most consistent with this goal?

  1. Loads of roughly 85 to 95 percent of one-repetition maximum for 1 to 5 repetitions Correct answer.
  2. Loads of roughly 40 to 50 percent of one-repetition maximum for 15 to 20 repetitions
  3. Loads of roughly 30 to 40 percent of one-repetition maximum for 20 or more repetitions
  4. Loads of roughly 60 to 70 percent of one-repetition maximum for 12 to 15 repetitions

Explanation

Maximal strength is best developed with heavy loads, generally above about 85 percent of one-repetition maximum, performed for low repetitions with long rest intervals. This recruits high-threshold motor units and produces neural adaptations alongside hypertrophy over time. Lighter loads with high repetitions emphasize endurance or hypertrophy rather than peak force.

Question 32Basic and Applied Sciences

A client using a stability ball for a plank progression cannot maintain a neutral spine and the low back sags. Which progression decision is most appropriate?

  1. Increase the duration of the stability ball hold until fatigue occurs
  2. Move to a stability ball rollout to demand greater core control
  3. Add a leg lift to increase the challenge and build core strength
  4. Regress to a floor-based plank with a shorter lever until neutral alignment is maintained Correct answer.

Explanation

The OPT model progresses only when the client demonstrates optimal alignment and control at the current level. A sagging low back indicates the core cannot stabilize the load, so the exercise should be regressed to a position where neutral spine is maintained, such as a floor plank or a plank with the knees down. Adding difficulty before control is achieved reinforces compensation.

Question 33Basic and Applied Sciences

A client reports that a resistance exercise feels easier in the third set than in the first set at the same load. Which physiological explanation best accounts for this?

  1. Muscle glycogen stores are depleted, which reduces the perception of effort
  2. Type I fibers fatigue first, leaving only fast-twitch fibers to produce force
  3. Lactic acid accumulation permanently damages contractile proteins, lowering effort
  4. Postactivation potentiation and improved motor unit recruitment increase force output after prior contractions Correct answer.

Explanation

Prior heavy contractions can enhance subsequent performance through postactivation potentiation, greater motor unit recruitment, and improved neuromuscular coordination. This is why warm-up sets and potentiation protocols are used before heavy work. The effect is transient and depends on adequate rest between efforts.

Question 34Basic and Applied Sciences

A client's resting heart rate is 60 beats per minute and stroke volume is 70 milliliters per beat. What is the cardiac output in liters per minute?

  1. 4.2 liters per minute Correct answer.
  2. 7.0 liters per minute
  3. 1.2 liters per minute
  4. 0.42 liters per minute

Explanation

Cardiac output equals heart rate multiplied by stroke volume, so 60 beats per minute times 70 milliliters per beat equals 4,200 milliliters per minute, or 4.2 liters per minute. This value rises during exercise as both heart rate and stroke volume increase. The calculation requires converting milliliters to liters by dividing by 1,000.

Question 35Assessment

During the overhead squat assessment, a client's feet flatten and turn outward as they descend. Which muscle is most likely overactive on the lateral side of the lower leg?

  1. Peroneus longus and brevis Correct answer.
  2. Tibialis anterior
  3. Posterior tibialis
  4. Medial gastrocnemius

Explanation

Feet flattening and rotating externally during the overhead squat indicates overactivity of the lateral ankle everters, primarily the peroneals, which pull the foot into eversion and pronation. The compensating underactive muscles are the tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior, and medial gastrocnemius, which normally invert and support the arch.

Question 36Assessment

A client demonstrates excessive forward lean during the overhead squat. Which muscle is most likely underactive?

  1. Hip flexor complex
  2. Hip flexor and soleus
  3. Gluteus maximus Correct answer.
  4. Soleus

Explanation

Excessive forward lean during the overhead squat is associated with overactive hip flexors, soleus, and gastrocnemius, and with underactive gluteus maximus, erector spinae, and anterior tibialis. The gluteus maximus is the underactive hip extensor that would otherwise help maintain an upright trunk.

Question 37Assessment

Which assessment uses a client standing on one leg while the observer watches for pelvic rotation or hip drop?

  1. Push-up test
  2. Single-leg squat assessment Correct answer.
  3. Davies test
  4. Shark skill test

Explanation

The single-leg squat assessment observes a client squatting on one leg and looks for knee valgus, hip adduction and internal rotation, and pelvic dropping, which signal hip and core control deficits. The other listed tests assess upper-body stability or agility rather than single-leg lower-extremity control.

Question 38Assessment

During the single-leg squat assessment, a client's knee moves inward. Which muscle is most likely overactive?

  1. Vastus medialis oblique
  2. Tensor fascia latae Correct answer.
  3. Medial hamstring
  4. Gluteus medius

Explanation

Knee valgus during a single-leg squat is associated with overactivity of the tensor fascia latae and adductor complex, which internally rotate and adduct the femur. The gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are typically underactive, so they fail to abduct and externally rotate the hip.

Question 39Assessment

A client performing the pushing assessment shows the low back arching as they press. Which muscle is most likely overactive?

  1. Intrinsic core stabilizers
  2. Hip flexor complex Correct answer.
  3. Deep cervical flexors
  4. Serratus anterior

Explanation

An arched low back during pushing indicates the trunk cannot stabilize against the pressing force, with the hip flexor complex and erector spinae overactive and the intrinsic core stabilizers underactive. The hip flexors pull the pelvis into anterior tilt and increase lumbar extension.

Question 40Assessment

In the overhead squat assessment, the arms fall forward. Which muscle is most likely underactive?

  1. Latissimus dorsi
  2. Lower trapezius Correct answer.
  3. Pectoralis major
  4. Teres major

Explanation

Arms falling forward during the overhead squat reflects overactive latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major and minor, teres major, and subscapularis, with underactive lower trapezius, serratus anterior, and rhomboids. The lower trapezius helps upwardly rotate and retract the scapula to keep the arms overhead.

Question 41Assessment

Which muscle is most likely underactive when a client's head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment?

  1. Deep cervical flexors Correct answer.
  2. Upper trapezius
  3. Sternocleidomastoid
  4. Levator scapulae

Explanation

Forward head during pushing indicates overactive upper trapezius, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, and scalenes, with underactive deep cervical flexors. The deep cervical flexors normally keep the cervical spine in neutral and resist the forward translation of the head.

Question 42Assessment

Which assessment is used to evaluate upper-extremity and core stability by having a client hold a push-up position and perform repetitions with a controlled tempo?

  1. Davies test
  2. Bench press test
  3. Overhead squat assessment
  4. Push-up test Correct answer.

Explanation

The push-up test assesses upper-extremity and core stability by having the client perform push-ups at a standardized tempo while the observer watches for lumbar sagging or head protrusion. Performance is scored on the number of controlled repetitions completed.

Question 43Assessment

A client's shoulders elevate during the pushing assessment. Which muscle is most likely overactive?

  1. Rhomboids
  2. Upper trapezius Correct answer.
  3. Lower trapezius
  4. Serratus anterior

Explanation

Shoulder elevation during pushing indicates overactive upper trapezius and levator scapulae, with underactive mid and lower trapezius. The upper trapezius elevates the scapula, so its overactivity lifts the shoulders during the press.

Question 44Assessment

During the overhead squat assessment, a client's knees move inward. Which muscle is most likely overactive?

  1. Posterior tibialis
  2. Adductor complex Correct answer.
  3. Gluteus maximus
  4. Gluteus medius

Explanation

Knee valgus during the overhead squat is associated with overactive adductor complex, tensor fascia latae, and vastus lateralis, with underactive gluteus medius and maximus. The adductors pull the femur into adduction, producing the inward knee motion.

Question 45Assessment

Which muscle is most likely underactive when a client's feet flatten and turn outward during the overhead squat?

  1. Peroneus brevis
  2. Lateral gastrocnemius
  3. Tibialis posterior Correct answer.
  4. Peroneus longus

Explanation

Foot flattening and external rotation indicate overactive peroneals and lateral gastrocnemius with underactive tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior, and medial gastrocnemius. The tibialis posterior is a strong inverter and arch supporter that resists pronation.

Question 46Assessment

Which assessment best evaluates a client's ability to stabilize the pelvis while moving one leg, using a prone position with hip extension?

  1. Davies test
  2. Shark skill test
  3. Push-up test
  4. Single-leg squat assessment Correct answer.

Explanation

The single-leg squat assessment evaluates pelvic and knee control while the client balances and squats on one leg, revealing hip stability deficits. The other options assess upper-body agility, lower-body agility, or upper-body stability, not single-leg pelvic control.

Question 47Assessment

A client's low back rounds during the push-up test. Which muscle is most likely underactive?

  1. Latissimus dorsi
  2. Pectoralis major
  3. Hip flexor complex
  4. Intrinsic core stabilizers Correct answer.

Explanation

Lumbar sagging during the push-up test indicates the core cannot maintain a neutral spine, with underactive intrinsic core stabilizers such as the transversus abdominis and multifidus. These muscles stabilize the lumbar spine against the extension force created by pressing.

Question 48Assessment

Which muscle is most likely overactive when a client's arms fall forward during the overhead squat?

  1. Serratus anterior
  2. Lower trapezius
  3. Pectoralis major Correct answer.
  4. Rhomboids

Explanation

Arms falling forward indicates overactive latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major and minor, teres major, and subscapularis. The pectoralis major internally rotates and adducts the humerus, which prevents the arms from staying overhead.

Question 49Assessment

Which assessment is used to measure lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control through a single-leg hop pattern over a small box?

  1. Shark skill test Correct answer.
  2. Overhead squat assessment
  3. Push-up test
  4. Davies test

Explanation

The Shark skill test measures lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control by having the client hop on one leg in a specified pattern while avoiding touching the lines. Errors are summed to produce a performance score.

Question 50Assessment

During the overhead squat assessment, a client's torso rotates to the left as they descend. Which muscle is most likely overactive on the side toward which the torso rotates?

  1. External oblique Correct answer.
  2. Internal oblique
  3. Gluteus maximus
  4. Erector spinae

Explanation

Asymmetric rotation during the overhead squat indicates overactive external obliques and latissimus dorsi on one side with underactive internal obliques and hip rotators. The external oblique on the side of rotation drives the trunk toward that side.