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CMI (Other exams) practice questions

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Question 1Leading and Managing People

In the CMI framework, which management style is defined by the leader making the decision alone and then communicating it to the team?

  1. Democratic
  2. Autocratic Correct answer.
  3. Laissez-faire
  4. Consultative

Explanation

Autocratic leadership concentrates decision rights in the leader, who decides and then informs the team. Democratic and consultative styles deliberately involve others in the decision, and laissez-faire hands decision rights to the team.

Question 2Leading and Managing People

A manager uses a coaching approach with a new starter. Which behaviour best matches that approach?

  1. Setting the task and giving detailed instructions for every step
  2. Asking questions to help the individual find their own solution Correct answer.
  3. Comparing the individual's output publicly with peers
  4. Delegating the whole project with no further contact

Explanation

Coaching develops capability by using questioning and reflection so the individual reaches their own conclusions. Directive instruction is a telling style, and full delegation without support is a hands-off approach that does not develop the person.

Question 3Leading and Managing People

According to the classic situational leadership model, which follower readiness level calls for a delegating style?

  1. Low competence and high commitment
  2. High competence and high commitment Correct answer.
  3. Low competence and low commitment
  4. High competence and variable commitment

Explanation

Situational leadership pairs delegating with followers who are both able and willing, because they need little direction or support. Lower readiness combinations call for telling, selling or participating instead.

Question 4Leading and Managing People

A team member is consistently capable but has recently become disengaged. Using a situational approach, which leader response is most appropriate?

  1. Reassign their work to a more motivated colleague
  2. Reduce contact until their motivation returns
  3. Increase directive instruction to tighten control
  4. Adopt a participative style that involves them in decisions Correct answer.

Explanation

A capable but disengaged follower has high ability and variable willingness, which calls for a supportive, participative style that rebuilds involvement. Adding direction addresses a skill gap that does not exist, and withdrawing contact would deepen the disengagement.

Question 5Leading and Managing People

Which statement best describes the difference between a manager and a leader in the CMI model?

  1. Managers focus on doing things right, while leaders focus on doing the right things Correct answer.
  2. Managers set direction, while leaders control resources
  3. Managers and leaders differ only in job title
  4. Managers inspire change, while leaders maintain stability

Explanation

The classic distinction is that management pursues efficiency and order, doing things right, while leadership pursues direction and change, doing the right things. The other options invert or deny this distinction.

Question 6Leading and Managing People

A manager wants to build a high-performing team. Which action most directly supports the forming stage of team development?

  1. Stepping back so the team resolves all conflict alone
  2. Introducing stretch targets before roles are clear
  3. Clarifying purpose, roles and ground rules for the group Correct answer.
  4. Reassigning members before relationships form

Explanation

In the forming stage, members need clarity about purpose, roles and expected behaviour, so the leader provides structure and direction. Conflict resolution belongs to the storming stage, and stretch targets are premature before roles are settled.

Question 7Leading and Managing People

In Tuckman's model of team development, which stage is characterised by intra-group conflict over roles and influence?

  1. Norming
  2. Performing
  3. Storming Correct answer.
  4. Forming

Explanation

Storming is the stage where members test boundaries, compete for influence and disagree about roles and approach. Forming is polite orientation, norming is agreement on norms, and performing is focused delivery.

Question 8Leading and Managing People

Which action is the clearest example of effective delegation by a team leader?

  1. Giving a task to the least busy person regardless of capability
  2. Handing over a task with clear outcomes, authority and a review point Correct answer.
  3. Assigning a task and retaining every decision for yourself
  4. Delegating only routine tasks that carry no risk

Explanation

Effective delegation transfers a clear outcome, the authority to act and an agreed review point so accountability is shared without losing control. Retaining all decisions or delegating only trivial work fails to develop people or free the leader.

Question 9Leading and Managing People

A leader applies the SMART principle when setting objectives. Which element ensures an objective can be tracked?

  1. Measurable Correct answer.
  2. Specific
  3. Time-bound
  4. Achievable

Explanation

The measurable element provides a metric or indicator against which progress can be tracked. Specificity clarifies what is required, achievability checks feasibility, and time-bound sets a deadline rather than a measure.

Question 10Leading and Managing People

A manager gives feedback to a team member after a project. Which approach best reflects good feedback practice?

  1. Focus on observed behaviour and its impact, with a specific example Correct answer.
  2. Delay feedback until the annual appraisal to avoid discomfort
  3. Focus on the person's character so the message is memorable
  4. Give feedback only when performance falls below standard

Explanation

Effective feedback describes specific observed behaviour and its impact, which keeps it objective and actionable. Attacking character, delaying feedback or giving it only when things go wrong all reduce its usefulness.

Question 11Leading and Managing People

A team member's performance has slipped. According to a structured performance-management cycle, what should the manager do first?

  1. Begin a formal capability procedure immediately
  2. Gather evidence and discuss the gap against agreed objectives Correct answer.
  3. Withhold the next pay increment as a warning
  4. Move the individual to a different team

Explanation

A performance cycle begins with evidence-based diagnosis against agreed objectives, followed by support and review. Escalating to formal procedures or sanctions before diagnosis skips the early stages and is likely to be unfair or ineffective.

Question 12Leading and Managing People

Which statement best explains why Maslow's hierarchy is treated cautiously in modern people management?

  1. It assumes a fixed order of needs that evidence does not strongly support Correct answer.
  2. It applies only to senior managers
  3. It has been replaced by scientific management
  4. It proves that pay is the only motivator that matters

Explanation

The hierarchy is often criticised because the strict sequence of needs is not well supported by evidence and people can be driven by several needs at once. It does not claim pay is the only motivator, and it has not been replaced by scientific management.

Question 13Leading and Managing People

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, which item is a hygiene factor rather than a motivator?

  1. Recognition for achievement
  2. The nature of the work itself
  3. Opportunities for advancement
  4. Company policy and working conditions Correct answer.

Explanation

Hygiene factors such as policy and working conditions prevent dissatisfaction but do not create positive motivation. Recognition, advancement and the work itself are motivators that drive satisfaction and effort.

Question 14Leading and Managing People

A manager wants to raise intrinsic motivation in a team doing repetitive work. Which change is most consistent with job-design theory?

  1. Rotating staff between identical tasks with no added responsibility
  2. Adding more supervisors to check output
  3. Increasing the hourly rate for everyone
  4. Giving individuals ownership of a complete piece of work with feedback Correct answer.

Explanation

Job enrichment increases intrinsic motivation by giving people whole tasks, autonomy and feedback on results. Pay is an extrinsic lever, closer supervision adds control, and simple rotation without added responsibility does not enrich the work.

Question 15Leading and Managing People

A leader is choosing between a directive and a supportive style for an experienced specialist facing a complex, ambiguous problem. Which choice is best justified?

  1. Supportive, because specialists should never be given targets
  2. Supportive, because the specialist has the expertise and needs autonomy Correct answer.
  3. Directive, because ambiguity always requires close supervision
  4. Directive, because the leader must retain control of complex work

Explanation

An experienced specialist with high expertise benefits from support and autonomy, since the leader lacks superior technical knowledge and the problem requires judgement. Directive control would undermine expertise and motivation without improving the decision.

Question 16Leading and Managing People

A manager must handle a confidential grievance from a team member about a colleague. Which action best reflects fair process?

  1. Decide the outcome based on the manager's prior view of the colleague
  2. Persuade the individual to drop the grievance to protect team harmony
  3. Investigate impartially, keep information confidential and record the process Correct answer.
  4. Tell the whole team about the grievance to deter similar behaviour

Explanation

Fair process requires impartial investigation, confidentiality and a documented, consistent procedure. Publicising the grievance, pressuring withdrawal or prejudging the outcome all breach fairness and may expose the organisation to legal risk.

Question 17Leading and Managing People

Which behaviour is the strongest example of inclusive leadership in a diverse team?

  1. Recruiting people who resemble the existing team
  2. Holding social events that only some staff can attend
  3. Actively inviting dissenting views and acting on them Correct answer.
  4. Avoiding discussion of difference to keep things neutral

Explanation

Inclusive leadership seeks out and uses minority and dissenting perspectives, which improves decisions and belonging. Hiring in one's own image, exclusionary events and avoiding difference all reduce inclusion rather than build it.

Question 18Leading and Managing People

A leader wants to build psychological safety in a team. Which action is most likely to achieve this?

  1. Setting targets that reward hiding problems
  2. Punishing the first person to raise a risk
  3. Limiting questions to formal meetings only
  4. Responding constructively when someone admits a mistake Correct answer.

Explanation

Psychological safety grows when people see that admitting error is met with a constructive, learning response rather than blame. Punishing risk-raising, rewarding concealment or restricting questions all increase fear and silence.

Question 19Leading and Managing People

A manager is preparing a development plan for a team member. Which principle is most consistent with the 70-20-10 model of learning?

  1. Development should rely mainly on mentoring
  2. Most development should come from formal courses
  3. Development should be limited to annual training days
  4. Most development should come from on-the-job experience Correct answer.

Explanation

The 70-20-10 model suggests that most learning comes from challenging on-the-job experience, with a smaller share from relationships such as mentoring and a smaller share again from formal courses. Options that centre formal training or mentoring invert that weighting.

Question 20Leading and Managing People

A team leader is asked to manage a project with no formal authority over the specialists involved. Which approach is most likely to be effective?

  1. Avoid contact with specialists until deliverables are due
  2. Rely on positional authority to compel cooperation
  3. Escalate every disagreement to senior management
  4. Build influence through clear purpose, relationships and mutual benefit Correct answer.

Explanation

Without positional authority, a leader must build influence through a shared purpose, trust and demonstrating mutual benefit. Relying on authority that does not exist, constant escalation or avoidance all undermine cooperation.

Question 21Leading and Managing People

Which statement best describes the purpose of a one-to-one meeting in people management?

  1. To review the individual's performance against targets only
  2. To replace team meetings entirely
  3. To build the relationship, discuss development and surface issues early Correct answer.
  4. To record attendance and monitor working hours

Explanation

One-to-ones are primarily a relationship and development forum where concerns can be raised early, alongside performance discussion. They do not replace team meetings and are not an attendance-monitoring tool.

Question 22Leading and Managing People

A leader must communicate a significant organisational change to a worried team. Which approach is most likely to maintain trust?

  1. Share information only with those whose roles are unaffected
  2. Announce the change only once it is fully implemented
  3. Reassure staff that nothing will change
  4. Explain what is known, what is not yet known, and when updates will come Correct answer.

Explanation

Trust during change depends on honest, timely communication that distinguishes known facts from uncertainty and commits to further updates. Silence, false reassurance or selective sharing all invite rumour and erode trust.

Question 23Leading and Managing People

A manager must resolve a conflict between two team members over shared resources. Which first step best reflects a principled approach?

  1. Impose a solution without hearing either party
  2. Meet each party to understand the facts and interests involved Correct answer.
  3. Transfer one party to another team immediately
  4. Ignore the conflict in the hope it settles itself

Explanation

Principled conflict resolution begins by gathering facts and understanding each party's interests before agreeing a solution. Imposing an outcome, avoiding the issue or separating people without diagnosis risks recurrence and resentment.

Question 24Leading and Managing People

A team leader is designing a reward approach. Which design best supports sustained performance?

  1. A single large bonus tied only to individual output
  2. A blend of fair base pay, recognition and development opportunities Correct answer.
  3. Bonuses that reward individual output regardless of team impact
  4. Recognition given only to the highest individual performer

Explanation

Sustained performance is supported by a balanced reward approach combining fair base pay, recognition and development, which addresses both extrinsic and intrinsic needs. Narrow individual output bonuses can damage collaboration and overlook fairness.

Question 25Leading and Managing People

A manager is deciding how much to involve the team in a decision that affects their daily work. Which factor most strongly justifies greater involvement?

  1. The decision has little effect on the team
  2. The manager wants to avoid responsibility for the outcome
  3. The decision must be made within the next hour
  4. Team members hold relevant knowledge and acceptance matters Correct answer.

Explanation

Involvement adds most value when those affected hold relevant information and their acceptance is needed for implementation. Low impact, avoidance of responsibility or extreme time pressure argue against participation rather than for it.

Question 26Leading and Managing People

A team leader is introducing a new performance dashboard. According to the ADKAR model of change management, which element represents the team member's personal decision to support the change?

  1. Reinforcement
  2. Knowledge
  3. Awareness
  4. Desire Correct answer.

Explanation

ADKAR stands for Awareness, Desire, Knowledge, Ability, and Reinforcement. Desire is the personal decision to participate in and support the change, so it is the element that captures an individual's choice to back the new dashboard. Awareness is only understanding why change is needed, while Knowledge and Reinforcement address how-to and sustainment.

Question 27Leading and Managing People

A manager is deciding how to allocate decision rights in a team that handles complex client cases. Which approach best reflects the principle of subsidiarity in people management?

  1. Push decisions to the lowest competent level and provide clear escalation criteria. Correct answer.
  2. Rotate decision authority weekly so every member experiences leadership.
  3. Centralise all decisions with the manager to ensure consistency across cases.
  4. Delegate decisions only after the manager has personally approved each similar case.

Explanation

Subsidiarity means decisions should be taken as close as possible to the point of impact, provided the people there have the competence and clarity to act. Pushing decisions to the lowest competent level, with clear escalation criteria, preserves both speed and risk control. Centralising or pre-approving every case undermines the principle by keeping authority unnecessarily high.

Question 28Leading and Managing People

A team leader is diagnosing why a capable team is underperforming. The team has clear goals and adequate resources, but members avoid raising concerns and hide mistakes. According to Edmondson's research on psychological safety, which intervention is most directly targeted at this root cause?

  1. Increase the frequency of performance reviews to identify and correct individual errors.
  2. Clarify role descriptions so each member knows exactly what is expected of them.
  3. Introduce a competitive incentive scheme that rewards the highest individual performer.
  4. Model fallibility by admitting the leader's own mistakes and frame errors as learning opportunities. Correct answer.

Explanation

Psychological safety is the shared belief that speaking up carries no interpersonal risk. Leader fallibility and framing errors as learning reduce that risk and directly address the avoidance and hiding described. Performance reviews, competition, and role clarity may affect performance but do not target the fear of speaking up.

Question 29Leading and Managing People

A manager is recruiting for a role that requires close coordination under pressure. Which selection method is most likely to improve predictive validity for teamwork behaviour compared with a single unstructured interview?

  1. A structured behavioural interview with scored, job-related questions and a work sample exercise. Correct answer.
  2. A review of the candidate's academic transcripts and qualifications.
  3. A group lunch where the team gives informal impressions of the candidate.
  4. An informal conversation with the candidate's most recent manager.

Explanation

Structured interviews with predetermined, job-related questions and scoring reduce interviewer bias and improve predictive validity. Adding a work sample exercise provides direct evidence of behaviour in a relevant task. Informal references, transcripts, and unstructured impressions are weaker and less consistent predictors of teamwork behaviour.

Question 30Leading and Managing People

A manager leads a cross-functional team where two senior specialists disagree on the technical approach. The manager has limited technical expertise and the decision must be made this week. Which conflict-handling approach is most appropriate, and why?

  1. Accommodating, because preserving harmony is more important than the technical outcome.
  2. Avoiding, because the manager lacks expertise and should let the specialists resolve it later.
  3. Forcing, because the manager holds formal authority and must decide quickly.
  4. Collaborating, because it seeks a solution that fully satisfies both specialists' concerns. Correct answer.

Explanation

Collaborating is appropriate when both parties' concerns are important and there is time to integrate expertise, which fits a high-stakes technical decision. Avoidance delays a time-bound decision, accommodation sacrifices the outcome, and forcing discards the specialists' knowledge. The manager's role is to structure the collaboration, not to supply the technical answer.

Question 31Managing Performance and Development

In a formal performance management cycle, what is the primary purpose of setting SMART objectives at the start of the period?

  1. To remove the need for evidence of achievement
  2. To ensure every employee receives an identical rating
  3. To replace the need for any mid-year review conversation
  4. To give the manager a documented basis for later appraisal and to clarify the standard expected Correct answer.

Explanation

Objectives set at the start of a cycle establish the standard against which performance is later measured, so they must be specific and documented. They support appraisal and feedback rather than replacing reviews or standardising ratings.

Question 32Managing Performance and Development

A manager wants feedback to be genuinely useful to a team member. Which characteristic matters most for a line manager giving developmental feedback?

  1. It is shared with the whole team before the individual
  2. It focuses on personality traits rather than actions
  3. It is specific, behavioural and given close to the event Correct answer.
  4. It is delivered only once a year at appraisal

Explanation

Effective feedback describes observable behaviour and is timely, so the person can connect the feedback to what happened and act on it. Personality-focused or delayed feedback is far less actionable.

Question 33Managing Performance and Development

Which statement best describes the difference between a developmental (formative) review and a summative appraisal?

  1. A developmental review focuses on future capability; an appraisal judges performance against agreed standards Correct answer.
  2. Both are purely about pay decisions
  3. A developmental review replaces objective setting
  4. An appraisal never uses evidence

Explanation

Formative reviews concentrate on learning and future improvement, while summative appraisal evaluates past performance against agreed criteria. The two serve different but complementary purposes.

Question 34Managing Performance and Development

What is the main purpose of a personal development plan (PDP) agreed between a manager and an employee?

  1. To list the employee's job description tasks
  2. To set out agreed development goals, actions and support needed over a period Correct answer.
  3. To calculate the annual bonus
  4. To record disciplinary warnings

Explanation

A PDP captures development goals, the actions to achieve them and the support or resources required, giving structure to capability building. It is not a disciplinary or reward document.

Question 35Managing Performance and Development

In performance management terms, what does 'capability' refer to?

  1. The employee's length of service
  2. The number of appraisals completed
  3. The employee's ability to meet the requirements of the role, including skills and knowledge Correct answer.
  4. The team's headcount budget

Explanation

Capability concerns whether a person has the skills, knowledge and aptitude to perform the role to the required standard. It is distinct from tenure, budget or process metrics.

Question 36Managing Performance and Development

Which approach best supports fair and consistent performance ratings across a large team of managers?

  1. Calibrating ratings across managers against shared standards and evidence Correct answer.
  2. Letting each manager invent their own rating scale
  3. Rating everyone as 'meets expectations' to avoid disputes
  4. Basing ratings on the manager's personal like or dislike of the employee

Explanation

Calibration sessions compare evidence and apply shared standards, reducing inconsistency and bias between managers. Individual scales, blanket ratings or personal preference undermine fairness.

Question 37Managing Performance and Development

What is the key distinction between coaching and mentoring in a development context?

  1. Coaching typically uses structured questioning to unlock the coachee's own solutions; mentoring usually shares the mentor's experience and guidance Correct answer.
  2. Coaching is always for executives; mentoring is for juniors
  3. Coaching requires a formal qualification by law
  4. Mentoring never involves any conversation

Explanation

Coaching is generally non-directive, using questions so the coachee finds their own answers, while mentoring draws on the mentor's experience to offer guidance. Neither is restricted by seniority or law.

Question 38Managing Performance and Development

A team member consistently delivers strong results but is disengaged and disruptive in team meetings. Using a performance framework that separates behaviours from outcomes, how should the manager address this?

  1. Recognise the results while addressing the behavioural expectations separately in a feedback conversation Correct answer.
  2. Ignore the behaviour because results are strong
  3. Rate the person highly on everything to preserve morale
  4. Move the person to another team without discussion

Explanation

Separating results from behaviours allows the manager to acknowledge achievement and still hold the person to account for conduct. This keeps feedback balanced and specific rather than conflating the two dimensions.

Question 39Managing Performance and Development

During a mid-year review, an employee has met two objectives but missed a third because priorities shifted after a reorganisation. What is the most appropriate managerial response?

  1. Extend the probation period
  2. Discuss the changed context, agree whether the objective remains valid, and adjust the plan Correct answer.
  3. Cancel the entire review
  4. Apply the original rating mechanically without discussion

Explanation

Objectives should be reviewed when significant context changes, and the manager should discuss and re-baseline them with the employee. Mechanical application ignores fairness, while cancelling the review or invoking probation is disproportionate.

Question 40Managing Performance and Development

A manager notices an employee is struggling with a new system after a role change. Which action best reflects a development-oriented response rather than a performance-sanction response?

  1. Reduce the employee's objectives permanently
  2. Identify the specific skill gap, arrange targeted training and set a short-term checkpoint Correct answer.
  3. Reassign the work to a colleague without telling the employee
  4. Immediately start a formal capability procedure

Explanation

A development response diagnoses the skill gap and provides learning support with a review checkpoint. Escalating to formal process or silently redistributing work skips the development step.

Question 41Managing Performance and Development

Which practice most reduces the risk of recency bias in an annual appraisal?

  1. Keeping a running record of achievements and evidence throughout the year Correct answer.
  2. Asking only the employee's closest colleague for a view
  3. Relying only on the most recent month's performance
  4. Basing the rating on the manager's overall impression

Explanation

A running record of evidence across the whole period counteracts the tendency to over-weight recent events. Relying on the last month or overall impressions invites recency and halo bias.

Question 42Managing Performance and Development

A high performer asks for a stretch assignment to prepare for a more senior role. Which development action best fits this request?

  1. Increase the person's routine workload without new responsibility
  2. Give no new work until a vacancy arises
  3. Assign a project with broader scope and agreed support and review points Correct answer.
  4. Send the person on an unrelated compliance course

Explanation

Stretch assignments build capability by extending scope with appropriate support and checkpoints. Unrelated training or extra routine work does not develop the skills needed for the senior role.

Question 43Managing Performance and Development

When giving feedback on a missed deadline, which opening best keeps the conversation developmental?

  1. 'Let's talk about something else entirely.'
  2. 'This will go on your record immediately.'
  3. 'You are unreliable and everyone knows it.'
  4. 'I want to understand what happened with the deadline and agree how we prevent a repeat.' Correct answer.

Explanation

An exploratory opening invites the employee's perspective and focuses on causes and solutions, which supports learning. Accusatory or purely punitive openings shut down the conversation.

Question 44Managing Performance and Development

A team's objectives are all output-based (number of cases closed) and quality is falling. What is the best adjustment to the performance measures?

  1. Remove all measures to reduce pressure
  2. Measure only attendance
  3. Increase the output target further
  4. Add balanced quality measures and discuss trade-offs with the team Correct answer.

Explanation

Balanced measures that include quality prevent gaming and unintended consequences of single output targets. Removing measures or raising output alone would worsen the quality problem.

Question 45Managing Performance and Development

An employee disputes a rating they believe is unfair. What is the most appropriate first step for the manager?

  1. Immediately change the rating to avoid conflict
  2. Refuse to discuss it
  3. Review the evidence against the agreed standards with the employee and explain the basis of the rating Correct answer.
  4. Refer the matter straight to dismissal

Explanation

Transparency about the evidence and standards used lets the employee understand and, if warranted, challenge the rating fairly. Refusing to engage or capitulating without review both undermine the process.

Question 46Managing Performance and Development

Which pairing correctly matches a development method to its main strength?

  1. Job rotation - builds breadth of experience across functions Correct answer.
  2. E-learning only - develops deep interpersonal skill
  3. Induction - assesses long-term potential
  4. Appraisal - provides technical certification

Explanation

Job rotation exposes people to different functions, building breadth and adaptability. The other pairings misattribute the primary strength of each method.

Question 47Managing Performance and Development

A manager must document a persistent performance concern. Which record best supports a fair process?

  1. A single email from a colleague expressing dislike
  2. A vague note that 'attitude is poor'
  3. A verbal recollection with no dates
  4. Dated, specific examples of the shortfall, the standards expected, support offered and the employee's responses Correct answer.

Explanation

A fair record is specific, dated and balanced, showing the standard, the gap, the support given and the employee's input. Vague or hearsay notes cannot support a defensible process.

Question 48Managing Performance and Development

A manager wants to build a culture where employees seek feedback. Which action is most likely to achieve this?

  1. Punish anyone who admits a mistake
  2. Model receiving feedback openly and separate feedback from blame Correct answer.
  3. Keep development conversations confidential from the employee
  4. Give feedback only when things go wrong

Explanation

Leaders who visibly receive feedback and treat it as learning, not blame, create psychological safety so others seek it. Punitive or error-only feedback discourages openness.

Question 49Managing Performance and Development

An organisation wants to identify high-potential employees for future leadership. Which approach is most defensible?

  1. Select employees based on a single manager's intuition
  2. Choose only the longest-serving staff
  3. Use multiple evidence sources, including performance, behavioural indicators and assessment, reviewed over time Correct answer.
  4. Select the most vocal people in meetings

Explanation

High-potential identification is more reliable when triangulated from several evidence sources and reviewed over time to reduce bias. Intuition, tenure or visibility are weak and biased proxies.

Question 50Managing Performance and Development

A manager is tempted to rate a returning employee lower because of a long absence unrelated to performance. Which principle should guide the decision?

  1. Rate on protected characteristics
  2. Rate on the manager's assumption about commitment
  3. Rate on the length of absence
  4. Rate only on evidence of performance against the agreed standards Correct answer.

Explanation

Ratings must rest on evidence of performance against agreed standards, not on assumptions or protected characteristics. Absence unrelated to performance should not drive the rating.