CAQ-OBGYN flashcards
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31 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- Naegele rule
- Estimated due date is calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period plus 280 days, or 9 months and 7 days, assuming a regular 28-day cycle.
- Postpartum hemorrhage definition
- Blood loss of 1000 mL or more, or any blood loss accompanied by signs of hemodynamic instability, occurring within 24 hours after birth.
- Magnesium sulfate loading dose
- For eclampsia prophylaxis, 4 to 6 grams intravenously over 20 minutes, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 grams per hour.
- Reactive nonstress test
- Two accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds within a 20-minute window at 32 weeks gestation or later.
- GBS prophylaxis indication
- Intrapartum penicillin is given for maternal group B streptococcus colonization, prior infant with invasive disease, or group B streptococcus bacteriuria at any colony count.
- Preeclampsia severe features
- Blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher, platelets below 100,000, creatinine above 1.1 mg/dL, doubled transaminases, or pulmonary edema.
- Shoulder dystocia sequence
- Maneuvers proceed from McRoberts position and suprapubic pressure to internal rotation, delivery of the posterior arm, and finally cephalic replacement.
- RhD immune globulin timing
- Given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery of an RhD-positive infant to an unsensitized RhD-negative mother, at a dose of 300 micrograms.
- PALM-COEIN classification
- System for abnormal uterine bleeding: structural causes are polyp, adenomyosis, leiomyoma, malignancy; nonstructural are coagulopathy, ovulatory dysfunction, endometrial, iatrogenic, not otherwise classified.
- Cervical cancer screening intervals
- Cytology alone every 3 years from age 21, or human papillomavirus co-testing every 5 years from age 30, with exit at age 65 after adequate negative screening.
- Amsel criteria
- Diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis requires three of four: homogeneous discharge, vaginal pH above 4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on microscopy.
- Discriminatory hCG zone
- A serum human chorionic gonadotropin level of 3500 mIU/mL, above which an intrauterine gestational sac should be visible on transvaginal ultrasound.
- Ovarian torsion management
- Sudden unilateral pelvic pain with an enlarged ovary warrants laparoscopy; detorsion with ovarian preservation is preferred rather than oophorectomy.
- Copper IUD duration
- The copper intrauterine device provides contraception for up to 10 years and is also used for emergency contraception within 5 days of unprotected intercourse.
- Endometrial biopsy threshold
- Biopsy is indicated for abnormal uterine bleeding in women older than 45 years, or younger women with obesity, chronic anovulation, or other endometrial cancer risk factors.
- Ovarian cancer stage III
- Tumor involving one or both ovaries with peritoneal spread outside the pelvis or retroperitoneal lymph node metastasis, but without distant parenchymal metastasis.
- BRCA and PARP inhibitors
- Maintenance with a PARP inhibitor improves progression-free survival in epithelial ovarian cancer harboring a BRCA mutation after platinum-based chemotherapy.
- FIGO stage IB1 cervix
- Invasive cervical carcinoma confined to the cervix measuring 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, treated surgically or with radiation depending on fertility goals.
- Type II endometrial cancer
- Non-estrogen-dependent endometrial carcinoma, most often serous or clear cell histology, associated with older age, high grade, and poorer prognosis.
- Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
- Persistent trophoblastic disease after molar pregnancy, indicated by a plateau of human chorionic gonadotropin over 3 weeks or a rise over 2 weeks.
- Vulvar cancer lymphatic spread
- Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva drains first to the superficial inguinal nodes, so groin node assessment guides staging and treatment.
- Tumor marker associations
- CA-125 marks epithelial ovarian cancer, alpha-fetoprotein marks yolk sac tumors, and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin marks choriocarcinoma and other germ cell tumors.
- Lynch syndrome screening
- Endometrial tumors are tested with immunohistochemistry for mismatch repair proteins; loss of expression prompts genetic counseling and germline testing.
- Rotterdam criteria
- Polycystic ovary syndrome requires two of three: oligo-ovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology on ultrasound.
- Infertility evaluation timing
- Evaluation starts after 12 months of unprotected intercourse, or after 6 months if the woman is 35 years or older, beginning with semen analysis and ovulation assessment.
- Clomiphene citrate protocol
- Started on cycle days 2 through 5; ovulation is confirmed by a midluteal serum progesterone level above 3 ng/mL.
- Ovarian reserve markers
- Antral follicle count and anti-Mullerian hormone estimate remaining follicles; anti-Mullerian hormone of 1.1 ng/mL or lower suggests diminished ovarian reserve.
- Hypothalamic amenorrhea
- Amenorrhea with low gonadotropins, low estradiol, and low body mass index; fertility treatment uses caloric restoration and pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
- Premature ovarian insufficiency
- Amenorrhea for 4 months or more with follicle-stimulating hormone above 40 mIU/mL on two occasions before age 40, requiring hormone therapy and fertility counseling.
- Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- Iatrogenic complication of ovulation induction with ovarian enlargement and capillary leak; severe disease shows hematocrit above 45 percent, oliguria, or thromboembolism.
- 21-hydroxylase deficiency
- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia causing hyperandrogenic anovulation, diagnosed by elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone; it is a treatable cause of hirsutism and infertility.