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ODS-C practice questions

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Question 1Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

In an oncology registry, which data item is classified as a required core element for every reportable cancer case regardless of the reporting facility type?

  1. Attending physician's email
  2. Insurance payer
  3. Primary site Correct answer.
  4. Patient's occupation

Explanation

Primary site is a core data element collected for every reportable neoplasm because it drives staging, treatment analysis, and survival reporting. Payer, physician contact details, and occupation are optional or supplementary items not mandated for every case.

Question 2Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A hospital registrar identifies a reportable cancer diagnosed and initially treated at another facility before the patient moved. Which reporting concept determines whether the current facility must abstract this case?

  1. The patient's current insurance status
  2. The referring facility's accreditation status
  3. Case ascertainment based on reportability criteria Correct answer.
  4. The treatment modality used at the prior facility

Explanation

Case ascertainment applies reportability criteria, such as malignancy behavior, site, and diagnosis date, to determine whether a case must be abstracted by the reporting facility. Insurance, prior facility accreditation, and prior treatment do not by themselves determine reportability.

Question 3Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which date is recorded as the date of diagnosis for a solid tumor confirmed by pathology after an initial clinical suspicion?

  1. Date the tumor board reviewed the case
  2. Date the pathology report was signed
  3. Date the patient first mentioned symptoms
  4. Date the pathology specimen was collected Correct answer.

Explanation

For a microscopically confirmed tumor, the date of diagnosis is the date the specimen was collected, not the date the report was finalized. Symptom onset and conference review dates are not used when a confirming specimen exists.

Question 4Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is assigning a primary site code for a tumor that spans the gastroesophageal junction with its epicenter in the cardia. Which principle guides the code assignment?

  1. Code the structure with the largest surface area
  2. Code the site of origin using the epicenter when the tumor overlaps boundaries Correct answer.
  3. Code the site of the first metastatic deposit
  4. Code the most distal structure involved

Explanation

When a tumor overlaps contiguous sites, registry rules direct coding to the site of origin, often determined by the epicenter described in the pathology or imaging report. Distal extent, surface area, and metastatic location do not determine primary site.

Question 5Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which morphology behavior code applies to a neoplasm described as in situ carcinoma of the cervix?

  1. /6
  2. /2 Correct answer.
  3. /1
  4. /3

Explanation

The behavior code /2 designates carcinoma in situ, a noninvasive malignant neoplasm confined to the epithelium. Codes /3, /6, and /1 denote invasive malignancy, metastatic malignancy, and uncertain behavior respectively.

Question 6Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A patient received external beam radiation to the prostate followed by a brachytherapy implant. How should radiation treatment fields be abstracted for this case?

  1. Record neither because two modalities were combined
  2. Record only the modality delivered first
  3. Record both the external beam and brachytherapy as separate radiation episodes Correct answer.
  4. Record only the highest dose modality

Explanation

Each distinct course of radiation therapy, including external beam and brachytherapy, is captured as a separate radiation episode with its own fields and dates. Combining modalities does not eliminate the need to record either.

Question 7Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which source document is generally considered the most reliable for abstracting surgical procedure information?

  1. Patient billing statement
  2. Appointment scheduling record
  3. Operative report Correct answer.
  4. Nursing intake form

Explanation

The operative report provides the surgeon's detailed description of the procedure performed, including margins and lymph node sampling, making it the primary abstraction source. Billing, intake, and scheduling records lack the clinical detail needed.

Question 8Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar must reconcile conflicting stage information between the pathology report and the imaging study. Which principle should guide the assigned stage?

  1. Assign the higher of the two stages
  2. Use the documented stage from the most authoritative clinical source and record discrepancies Correct answer.
  3. Defer staging until a new biopsy is performed
  4. Assign the lower of the two stages

Explanation

When sources conflict, the registrar evaluates the most authoritative documentation, such as the staging physician's note or pathology, and records the rationale. Automatically choosing higher or lower values or deferring indefinitely is not appropriate.

Question 9Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which registry data field captures the intent of the first course of treatment, such as curative or palliative?

  1. Treatment plan intent Correct answer.
  2. Grade
  3. Sequence number
  4. Laterality

Explanation

Treatment plan intent records whether the first course of therapy was delivered with curative, palliative, or other intent. Sequence number, laterality, and grade describe case order, side, and differentiation rather than treatment purpose.

Question 10Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A patient has a history of breast cancer treated five years ago and now presents with a new primary lung cancer. How should the sequence number for the lung cancer be assigned?

  1. Assign sequence 60 because the lung cancer is metastatic
  2. Assign the next sequence number reflecting it as a subsequent primary Correct answer.
  3. Reuse the sequence number of the breast cancer
  4. Assign sequence 00 because the patient had prior cancer

Explanation

Each new reportable primary receives the next sequence number in the patient's record, reflecting the chronological order of primaries. Prior cancer does not allow reuse of a sequence number, and metastatic disease is not a new primary.

Question 11Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which element is essential when determining whether two tumors in the same organ represent a single primary or multiple primaries?

  1. Number of prior hospitalizations
  2. Patient's marital status
  3. Attending physician's specialty
  4. Histology and the timing rules for that site Correct answer.

Explanation

Multiple primary rules rely on histology, behavior, and site-specific timing criteria to decide whether tumors are one primary or separate primaries. Social and administrative factors are irrelevant to this determination.

Question 12Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is abstracting a case where the diagnosis was made at an outside hospital and treatment occurred at the reporting facility. Which concept describes the reporting facility's obligation?

  1. The facility reports only if the patient requests it
  2. The facility reports the case because treatment was delivered there Correct answer.
  3. The facility reports only if the outside hospital declines
  4. The facility never reports cases diagnosed elsewhere

Explanation

Facilities report cancer cases for patients diagnosed or receiving first course of treatment at their institution. Delivering treatment at the reporting facility establishes a reporting obligation regardless of where diagnosis occurred.

Question 13Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which data item records the size of the invasive component of a tumor as documented in the pathology report?

  1. Lymphovascular invasion
  2. Regional nodes examined
  3. Margins
  4. Tumor size Correct answer.

Explanation

Tumor size captures the greatest dimension of the invasive tumor as measured on the pathology specimen. Node counts, margin status, and lymphovascular invasion are separate data elements.

Question 14Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar notes that a patient's chemotherapy was administered at an outside facility and documented only in a scanned consultation note. What is the appropriate abstraction action?

  1. Abstract the chemotherapy only if the patient confirms it verbally
  2. Omit the chemotherapy because it was given elsewhere
  3. Abstract the chemotherapy from the scanned note with the source documented Correct answer.
  4. Wait for the outside facility to submit a formal abstract

Explanation

Treatment delivered outside the reporting facility is abstracted when documented in the medical record, with the source of information noted. Omitting valid treatment or relying on verbal confirmation alone is not acceptable practice.

Question 15Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which coding system is used by cancer registries to classify the histologic type and behavior of neoplasms?

  1. ICD-O-3 morphology codes Correct answer.
  2. CPT procedure codes
  3. NDC drug codes
  4. DRG payment codes

Explanation

ICD-O-3 provides the morphology and behavior codes used to describe histology and malignancy behavior in registry abstracts. CPT, NDC, and DRG codes serve procedure, drug, and payment purposes respectively.

Question 16Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar must determine laterality for a primary tumor of the kidney. Which code should be assigned when the pathology report describes a partial nephrectomy on the right kidney?

  1. Right Correct answer.
  2. Not applicable
  3. Bilateral
  4. Left

Explanation

Laterality is coded from the operative and pathology documentation identifying the involved side; a right partial nephrectomy is coded as right. Left, bilateral, and not applicable would contradict the documented side.

Question 17Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which concept describes the process of verifying that abstracted data meet quality standards before submission to the central registry?

  1. Data quality review Correct answer.
  2. Patient navigation
  3. Case ascertainment
  4. Tumor board review

Explanation

Data quality review involves edit checks, completeness audits, and consistency validation before data are submitted. Case ascertainment identifies cases, navigation assists patients, and tumor boards discuss management.

Question 18Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A patient's cancer was diagnosed by imaging alone without tissue confirmation, and the physician documented a clinical diagnosis. How should the diagnostic confirmation field be coded?

  1. Microscopically confirmed by histology
  2. Clinically diagnosed without microscopic confirmation Correct answer.
  3. Confirmed by laboratory marker only
  4. Unknown

Explanation

When a malignancy is diagnosed based on clinical or imaging evidence without tissue sampling, diagnostic confirmation reflects clinical diagnosis. Histology, marker-only, and unknown codes apply to different evidentiary situations.

Question 19Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which abstraction principle applies when the medical record contains multiple conflicting statements about a patient's smoking history?

  1. Omit tobacco history entirely
  2. Average the reported pack-years
  3. Select the first statement in the chart
  4. Use the most complete and clinically credible documentation and note the source Correct answer.

Explanation

Registrars evaluate conflicting documentation and record the most credible, complete information with the source cited. Averaging values, taking the first entry, or omitting the field would compromise data quality.

Question 20Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is reviewing a case where the primary site is coded to the pancreas but the pathology describes a mucinous neoplasm with ovarian involvement. Which action best reflects sound abstraction reasoning?

  1. Leave the pancreatic code without review
  2. Code both sites as separate primaries automatically
  3. Re-evaluate the primary site using the full pathology and clinical picture Correct answer.
  4. Code the ovary as primary because it was involved

Explanation

Conflicting site information requires the registrar to re-examine the pathology and clinical documentation to confirm the true site of origin. Automatically coding involved sites as primaries or ignoring the discrepancy would introduce error.

Question 21Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which element of the abstract captures the date the patient was first seen at the reporting facility for the reportable cancer?

  1. Date of last contact
  2. Date of first contact Correct answer.
  3. Date of treatment initiation
  4. Date of diagnosis

Explanation

Date of first contact records when the patient was first seen at the reporting facility for the cancer. Diagnosis, last contact, and treatment start dates describe different events in the patient timeline.

Question 22Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar finds that a patient had a colonoscopy with biopsy confirming adenocarcinoma, followed two weeks later by resection. Which date should be recorded as the date of diagnosis?

  1. Date of the resection
  2. Date of discharge after resection
  3. Date of the first oncology consultation
  4. Date of the colonoscopy biopsy Correct answer.

Explanation

The date of diagnosis for a microscopically confirmed tumor is the date the confirming specimen was collected, here the colonoscopy biopsy. Later resection, consultation, and discharge dates do not replace that date.

Question 23Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which scenario best demonstrates correct application of the first course of treatment concept?

  1. All treatment planned and delivered before disease progression or recurrence Correct answer.
  2. Only surgical treatment
  3. Only treatment given within 30 days of diagnosis
  4. Only treatment given at the reporting facility

Explanation

First course of treatment encompasses all therapy planned and delivered as initial management before progression or recurrence, regardless of where it was given. Limiting it to one facility, one modality, or an arbitrary time window misapplies the concept.

Question 24Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is coding a case with an unknown primary site after an extensive workup. Which code assignment approach is most appropriate?

  1. Assign the unknown primary code and document the workup performed Correct answer.
  2. Assign the most likely site based on the metastatic pattern
  3. Defer coding until autopsy results are available
  4. Assign the site of the largest metastasis

Explanation

When the primary site remains unidentified after adequate workup, the unknown primary code is assigned with documentation of the evaluation. Guessing a likely site or coding a metastasis as primary would misrepresent the case.

Question 25Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which action supports complete case ascertainment in a hospital registry?

  1. Routinely reviewing pathology, radiology, and discharge data for reportable diagnoses Correct answer.
  2. Relying solely on tumor board referrals
  3. Waiting for physicians to self-report cancer cases
  4. Reviewing only inpatient surgical cases

Explanation

Complete case ascertainment requires systematic review of multiple data sources such as pathology, radiology, and discharge records to identify reportable cases. Passive physician reporting or single-source review leads to missed cases.

Question 26Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which document in the medical record is the standard source for the date of initial diagnosis of a reportable cancer?

  1. The discharge summary written at the end of the first admission
  2. The nursing admission assessment completed on the day of surgery
  3. The billing statement generated after the diagnostic workup
  4. The pathology report containing the first microscopic confirmation of malignancy Correct answer.

Explanation

The date of initial diagnosis is the date the diagnosis was first confirmed, most often by the pathology report documenting malignancy. Other documents are created later or record administrative events rather than the diagnostic determination.

Question 27Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A hospital registrar is deciding whether a patient with a newly diagnosed leukemia must be reported. Which criterion most directly determines reportability for this case?

  1. Whether the patient resides in the hospital's service area
  2. Whether the neoplasm has malignant behavior as defined by the reportable list Correct answer.
  3. Whether the patient was admitted as an inpatient
  4. Whether treatment was delivered at the reporting facility

Explanation

Reportability is driven by the reportable neoplasm list, which classifies conditions by behavior and site. Admission status, residence, and treatment location do not by themselves make a case reportable.

Question 28Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which field records the facility where the patient was first evaluated and diagnosed for the reportable tumor?

  1. Diagnosing facility Correct answer.
  2. Reporting facility
  3. Accessioning hospital
  4. Treating facility

Explanation

The diagnosing facility identifies where the diagnosis was first established, which may differ from the reporting or treating facility. This distinction matters when consolidating cases across multiple institutions.

Question 29Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is abstracting a patient whose only treatment was surgery performed at the reporting hospital, with no other therapy planned. Which first course of treatment category applies?

  1. No treatment given
  2. Surgery only Correct answer.
  3. Unknown treatment
  4. Surgery and radiation

Explanation

When the documented first course consists solely of a surgical procedure, the treatment category reflects surgery only. Unknown is reserved for cases where treatment information cannot be determined.

Question 30Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which code set is used to classify the primary site of a reportable neoplasm in registry abstracts?

  1. CPT
  2. ICD-O topography Correct answer.
  3. NDC
  4. ICD-10-PCS

Explanation

Primary site is coded using the topography axis of ICD-O, which assigns a specific site code to each neoplasm. Procedure and drug code sets serve different purposes.

Question 31Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar needs the patient's sex assigned at birth for a registry abstract. Which source should be used when the medical record contains conflicting entries?

  1. The earliest documented value in the record Correct answer.
  2. The value recorded on the billing face sheet
  3. The most recent entry in the record
  4. The physician's admission note

Explanation

When conflicting values exist, the earliest documented value is generally used for demographic items such as sex. Later entries may reflect transcription errors or changes unrelated to the registry definition.

Question 32Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which document is the preferred source for determining the clinical extent of disease before treatment begins?

  1. The imaging and clinical evaluation documented before therapy Correct answer.
  2. The discharge summary
  3. The operative report
  4. The pathology report from the resection specimen

Explanation

Clinical extent is based on information obtained before treatment, including imaging and physical examination. Surgical and pathologic findings describe the post-treatment or resected extent.

Question 33Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A patient is diagnosed with a reportable cancer at an outpatient clinic affiliated with the hospital registry. Which action ensures the case enters the registry?

  1. Deferring the case to the state registry without abstraction
  2. Waiting for the patient to be admitted as an inpatient
  3. Excluding the case because no inpatient stay occurred
  4. Adding the case from the clinic's electronic case-finding list Correct answer.

Explanation

Case ascertainment must capture reportable diagnoses from all facility settings, including outpatient and clinic encounters. Case-finding lists generated from electronic sources support this completeness.

Question 34Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is abstracting a patient with two separate reportable primaries diagnosed in different years. How should the abstracts be handled?

  1. Abstract only the first primary and note the second in text
  2. Create a separate abstract for each primary Correct answer.
  3. Combine both diagnoses into one abstract with the later date
  4. Abstract only the more advanced primary

Explanation

Each reportable primary neoplasm receives its own abstract so that site, histology, stage, and treatment are captured independently. Combining them would obscure the characteristics of each tumor.

Question 35Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A patient's chemotherapy was administered at an outside clinic, and the only record at the reporting hospital is a consult note summarizing the regimen. How should the registrar proceed?

  1. Code chemotherapy as not given because the hospital did not administer it
  2. Code the treatment as unknown and close the case
  3. Code the chemotherapy based on the documented regimen and request outside records Correct answer.
  4. Leave all treatment fields blank pending resolution

Explanation

Treatment is captured regardless of where it was delivered, so a documented regimen supports coding. Requesting outside records improves completeness and verification.

Question 36Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is reviewing a case where the pathology report describes a tumor as in situ but the clinician's note refers to invasive carcinoma. Which approach best resolves the conflict?

  1. Accept the pathology report because microscopic findings define behavior Correct answer.
  2. Accept the clinician's note because it reflects the treating physician's judgment
  3. Code the case as unknown behavior
  4. Average the findings by coding the least aggressive behavior

Explanation

Behavior is determined by the microscopic pathology, which is the definitive source for histologic classification. A clinical impression that conflicts with the pathology should be clarified but does not override the microscopic diagnosis.

Question 37Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which element defines the sequence number assigned to a patient's reportable tumors?

  1. The chronologic order in which the tumors were diagnosed Correct answer.
  2. The order in which the abstracts were completed
  3. The order in which the tumors were treated
  4. The severity ranking of the tumors

Explanation

Sequence number reflects the chronologic order of diagnosis across a patient's reportable primaries. It is not based on treatment timing, abstraction order, or severity.

Question 38Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A patient with a prior reportable breast cancer is diagnosed with a new reportable colon cancer. Which principle governs the assignment of the sequence number for the colon primary?

  1. The colon tumor receives the same sequence number as the breast primary
  2. The colon tumor is sequenced as the next number after the breast primary Correct answer.
  3. The colon tumor resets the sequence to one
  4. The colon tumor is not sequenced because it is a second primary

Explanation

Sequence numbers increase with each new reportable primary in chronologic order, so the second primary receives the next number. Each primary remains independently reportable.

Question 39Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which item in the abstract captures the specific anatomic subsite of a laryngeal tumor?

  1. Grade code
  2. Histology code
  3. Behavior code
  4. Primary site code Correct answer.

Explanation

The primary site code identifies the anatomic location, including subsite detail where the coding system allows. Histology, grade, and behavior describe the tumor's microscopic characteristics rather than location.

Question 40Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is deciding how to code surgical margins when the pathology report states that the margin is free of tumor but the distance is not specified. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Code margins as indeterminate pending re-excision
  2. Code margins as involved because distance is absent
  3. Code margins as negative based on the explicit statement Correct answer.
  4. Code margins as unknown because distance is missing

Explanation

An explicit statement that the margin is free of tumor supports a negative margin code. Absence of a measured distance does not convert a negative margin into an unknown or involved one.

Question 41Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which data item records the patient's vital status as of the most recent follow-up contact?

  1. Date of diagnosis
  2. Date of recurrence
  3. Date of first course
  4. Date of last contact Correct answer.

Explanation

Date of last contact anchors the follow-up interval and is paired with vital status to describe the patient's status at that point. The other dates mark diagnostic and treatment milestones.

Question 42Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar finds that a patient's tumor was diagnosed by fine needle aspiration at an outside laboratory, with the report scanned into the record. Which source should be used to code histology?

  1. The hospital admission note
  2. The scanned cytology report Correct answer.
  3. The patient's self-reported history
  4. The referral letter

Explanation

Cytology and pathology reports are the definitive sources for histologic classification, even when generated outside the facility. Narrative notes and self-report are not substitutes for the microscopic diagnosis.

Question 43Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is reviewing a case where the primary site is documented as unknown after a complete workup. Which coding approach is most appropriate?

  1. Defer abstraction until a primary is identified
  2. Assign the unknown primary site code Correct answer.
  3. Assign a site code based on the most likely primary suggested by the oncologist
  4. Assign the site of the first metastatic lesion

Explanation

When a thorough workup fails to identify a primary, the unknown primary site code is used. Speculative assignment based on likelihood or metastasis location misrepresents the documented findings.

Question 44Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

Which practice best supports complete case ascertainment in a hospital cancer registry?

  1. Abstracting only cases that receive treatment at the facility
  2. Relying solely on physician referrals to the registry
  3. Reviewing only pathology reports for inpatient surgical cases
  4. Routinely comparing registry files against multiple case-finding sources such as pathology, radiology, and billing Correct answer.

Explanation

Complete ascertainment requires reconciling multiple data sources so that cases documented in one system but missed in another are captured. Single-source review inevitably misses reportable diagnoses.

Question 45Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A patient's record lists a diagnosis date in the consultation note and a later date on the pathology report confirming malignancy. Which date should be coded as the date of initial diagnosis?

  1. The date the registry abstract was completed
  2. The pathology confirmation date, because it establishes the diagnosis Correct answer.
  3. The midpoint between the two dates
  4. The consultation note date, because it precedes the pathology

Explanation

The date of initial diagnosis is the date the malignancy was first confirmed, which in this case is the pathology report. A suspicion documented earlier does not establish the diagnosis.

Question 46Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is coding a patient who received neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by resection. Which principle applies to the assignment of pathologic stage?

  1. Pathologic stage reflects the resected specimen after neoadjuvant therapy and is recorded with the appropriate post-therapy descriptor Correct answer.
  2. Pathologic stage should be replaced by clinical stage because neoadjuvant therapy was given
  3. Pathologic stage should be assigned as if no neoadjuvant therapy occurred
  4. Pathologic stage should be left blank when neoadjuvant therapy is documented

Explanation

Pathologic stage is derived from the resection specimen and, when neoadjuvant therapy preceded surgery, is recorded with the post-therapy descriptor. Clinical stage remains separately captured as the pretreatment extent.

Question 47Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar encounters a case with two reportable tumors in the same organ diagnosed more than two months apart, with different histologies. Which rule set determines whether these are separate primaries?

  1. The treating oncologist's opinion documented in the note
  2. The facility's internal abstraction policy alone
  3. The multiple-primary rules that consider site, histology, and timing Correct answer.
  4. The stage of each tumor

Explanation

Multiple-primary determination follows standardized rules that weigh anatomic site, histologic type, and timing of diagnosis. Facility policy, clinician opinion, and stage do not replace these rules.

Question 48Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A patient's radiation therapy began at the reporting facility and continued at an outside center after a move. How should the radiation fields be abstracted?

  1. Capture the full course of radiation documented across facilities Correct answer.
  2. Code radiation as not given because it was incomplete locally
  3. Code radiation as unknown because records are split
  4. Capture only the portion delivered at the reporting facility

Explanation

First course of treatment includes the full planned course regardless of where it was delivered, so records from all facilities should be combined. Partial capture understates treatment and distorts later analyses.

Question 49Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is abstracting a case in which the pathology report describes invasion into an adjacent structure, but the operative note describes the tumor as confined. Which source takes precedence for extent of disease?

  1. The pathology report, because microscopic evidence of invasion is definitive Correct answer.
  2. The operative note, because the surgeon directly visualized the tumor
  3. The oncologist's staging note
  4. The radiology report obtained before surgery

Explanation

Microscopic evidence of invasion in the pathology report is definitive for extent of disease when it conflicts with a gross surgical impression. The operative note and imaging remain useful but do not override histologic findings.

Question 50Cancer Registry Operations and Data Collection

A registrar is coding a patient whose only documentation of chemotherapy is a medication administration record listing a single dose given for symptom control. How should this be handled?

  1. Code as unknown chemotherapy
  2. Code as chemotherapy given as part of first course Correct answer.
  3. Code as immunotherapy
  4. Code as no chemotherapy because only one dose was given

Explanation

A documented chemotherapeutic agent administered to the patient is coded as chemotherapy regardless of dose count, unless the record establishes a non-cancer indication. Dose count alone does not disqualify the treatment.